Chp 6: Capital Structure Flashcards
What does the CAPM calculation give?
The cost of equity
How do you calculate the cost of a preferecne share?
Kpref = D0/P0
D0=dividend rate; P0=market value
What would be the impact on the WACC if gearing increased?
Shares become more risky so the Ke will rise
More debt finance is used and the Kd is lower than the cost of equity
What impact does a fall in the WACC have on shareholders?
Benefits shareholders
Present value of cash flows will be higher if discounted at a lower rate.
In an efficient market, this implies that the market value of debt + equity will rise as the WACC falls
Explain the traditional view of gearing
As gearing increases, Kd remains unchanged up to a point before increasing as interest cover falls
Ke rises as gearing increases as the financial risk increaes
The WACC falls initially as the proportion of debt capital increases before rising as the Ke becomes more significant
Optimum gearign is when WACC is at it’s lowest point
What is the net operating income theory of gearing (Modigliani and Miller)?
Without tax
Two propositions and three assumptions
Propositions
1. The total market value of a company is independent of it’s capital structure - MV depends on a companys future income and the risk attached to this, which is unaffected by the capital structure as the WACC is unaffected (point 2)
2. The cost of equity increases proportionately with the gearing ratio - Debt finance transfers risk to shareholders and causes a proportionate rise in Ke. Therefore WACC remains constant.
Assumptions
1. A perfect capital market exists, in which investors have the same information
2. There are no tax or transaction fees
3. Debt is risk free and fully available
Total MV of a company = Value fo debt + value of equity
What is arbitrage?
If a low geared company is worth less than a high geared company then MM propose shareholders will take on personal debt to buy shares in the undervalued company. Which would drive up the value of the low geared company until they are equal.
How does MM theory of gearing change with tax being involved?
Taxation reduces the cost of debt capital by multiplying it by (1-t).
Therefore, as gearing rises, the WACC will fall constantly up to a gearing of 100%
This still assumes there are no financial distress costs
What are the four factors that can influence capital structure in the real world?
- Debt Capacity - the maximum amount of debt that a company can support or obtain. Based on the assets they can use as securities and the availability of finance in the market
- Debt Covenants - can restrict borrowing behaviour
- Cost of debt - MM assumes Kd remains the same. However, lenders are likely to want a higher return for borrowers already in debt
- Tax Exhaustion - As gearing increases, there will be a point in which interest repayments reduce taxable profit to zero, thereby negating the tax benefit of debt.
What are four practical considerations that influence debt levels (and therefore gearing)?
- Life cycle - New, growing businesses find it difficult to forecats cash flows with certainty so high debt is unwise.
- Operational Gearing - High fixed costs mean cash flow is volatile so high gearign is unwise.
- Stability of revenue - If revenue is not stable, then high gearing is unwise
- Security - If unable to offer security then debt will be expensive and difficult to obtain