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MA: Chp 41 & 42 - POL & Specimens > chp 42 > Flashcards

chp 42 Flashcards

1
Q

t/f: urine is considered sterile

A

true

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2
Q

t/f: lower respiratory system is not considered sterile

A

false

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3
Q

t/f: upper respiratory system is considered sterile

A

false

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4
Q

what is the time period for fasting

A

generally 8-12 hours

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5
Q

what should a urine specimen container be labeled with

A
  • pt name
  • date & time of collection
  • test to be done on specimen
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6
Q

when should urine testing ideally be done

A

1 hour within collection

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7
Q

what should be done if urine testing can’t be tested within the hour

A

refrigerate sample

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8
Q

what temperature should urine be before testing

A

room temperature

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9
Q

what urine test allows for the greatest concentration of urine

A

morning urine test

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10
Q

what concentrates does timed urine test measure (chemicals)

A

creatinine, urine urea nitrogen, glucose, sodium, potassium, other analytes affected by daily cycles

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11
Q

how long is timed urine test collected for

A

8-24 hours

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12
Q

when does timed urine test befing

A

after first morning void which is not counted

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13
Q

what sometimes needs to be done to timed urine collection because of time

A

refrigeration or add preservatives

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14
Q

what shows up in substance abuse urine test

A

all drugs (including OTC) taken in last 30 days

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15
Q

what is checked during a substance abuse urine test while the pt is watching

A

temperature

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16
Q

what are the physical components of urinalysis

A

color, clarity, odor, volume, specific gravity

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17
Q

what terms are used to describe color of urine

A

yellow, straw, dark straw, light straw, light yellow, dark yellow, red, brown, orange, green, blue

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18
Q

what terms are used to describe the clarity of urine

A

clear, slightly hazy, hazy, cloudy, turbid

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19
Q

what is the average volume of urine given in a sample

A

20 mL

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20
Q

what does a strong ammonia smell to urine indicate

A

UTI

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21
Q

what does a mousy/musty smell to urine indicate

A

phenylketonuria

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22
Q

what does a fruity/acetone smell to urine indicate

A

diabetes

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23
Q

t/f: certain foods like garlic can produce urine odor

A

true

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24
Q

what may be used to measure specific gravity of urine

A

urinometer/refractometer/chemical reagent strips

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25
Q

when measuring specific gravity what is used to compare

A

distilled water

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26
Q

average specific gravity of urine

A

1.005-1.03

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27
Q

more diluted the urine, the specific gravity will be ____

A

lower

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28
Q

what are tested in chemical urinalysis

A

pH, protein, ketone, bilirubin, urobilinogen, blood, nitrite, leukocyte esterase, glucose

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29
Q

avg pH of urine

A

5-7

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30
Q

what is used to confirm protein in urine

A

sulfosalicylic acid test (SSA)

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31
Q

what does protein in urine indicate

A

kidney disease/failure, UTI, blood

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32
Q

if ketone is found in urine, what does it mean

A

fat broken down and metabolized in digestive

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33
Q

what does ketones in urine indicate

A

diabetes, diet high in fat, starvation, wasting away of body

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34
Q

what is used to confirm ketones in urine

A

ace test

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35
Q

define BILIRUBIN

A

yellow-orange pigment from liver’s degradation of hemoglobin

36
Q

why might bilirubin in urine go undetected

A

it breaks down in light

37
Q

what confirms bilirubin in urine

A

ictotest

38
Q

what does bilirubin in urine indicate

A

liver damage/disease

39
Q

what does orange to green urine w/green foam when shaken indicate

A

hepatits

40
Q

what does too high or too low amounts of urobilinogen indicate

A

liver/gallbladder disfunction & spleen and heart problems

41
Q

define HEMATURIA

A

RBCs/hemoglobin/myoglobin in urine

42
Q

what is done to confirm hematuria

A

microscope evaluation

43
Q

what does nitrites in urine indicate

A

microorganisms/bacteria

44
Q

define ESTERASE

A

enzyme released by WBC when many cells present in fluid

45
Q

how is leukocyte esterase presence in urine confirmed

A

microscope

46
Q

what does glucose in urine mean

A

renal threshold exceeded for various reasons

47
Q

normal values for WBCs in urine for men & women

A

men: 0-10/hpf
women: 10-20/hpf

48
Q

normal values for RBCs in urine for men and women

A

male: 0
female: 5-10/hpf (unless menstruating)

49
Q

normal values for epithelial cells

A

few to moderate

50
Q

are epithelial cells generally seen in urine from men

A

not really

51
Q

normal value for bacteria in urine

A

none to slight

52
Q

normal value for mucus in urine

A

slight

53
Q

normal value for spermatozoa in urine

A

none

54
Q

what does spermatozoa in urine in men indicate

A

disease

55
Q

should sperm in urine from women be reported

A

no

56
Q

normal value for trichomonas in urine

A

none

57
Q

what do trichomonas in urine indicate and in what population is it more common

A

infection; women

58
Q

normal value for yeast in urine

A

none

59
Q

normal value for crystals in urine

A

none/some

60
Q

why may some crystals in urine be considered normal/healthy

A

some are nonpathological and can be result of diet

61
Q

crystals of these indicate disease

A

cholesterol, tyrosine, cystine, leukocine, sulfa

62
Q

normal value for casts in urine

A

none or some

63
Q

why may some casts in urine be considered normal/healthy

A

can just randomly show up otherwise show disease

64
Q

what does occult blood indicate

A

colon cancer, bleeding in GI, hemorrhoids, rectal polyps, or ulcerative colitis

65
Q

guaiac regent turns what color when in the presence of occult blood

A

blue

66
Q

generally how many samples are needed in an occult blood test

A

at least 3

67
Q

7 days before an occult blood test, the pt should avoid

A

aspirin, iron supplements, and large doses of vitamin C

68
Q

2 days before an occult blood test, the pt should avoid

A

red & processed meats, turnips, broccoli, cauliflower, and melon

69
Q

2 days before an occult blood test, the pt should

A

eat a diet high in fiber

70
Q

how should occult blood slides be stored

A

at room temp away from heat, sun, and fluorescent lights

71
Q

purpose of sputum infections

A

diagnose cancer, viral/bacterial/fungal infections, and TB

72
Q

list the pt directions for performing a sputum infection

A
  1. do it first thing in the morning
  2. rinse mouth w/water and expel
  3. uncap sterile container
  4. cough deeply from deep down and into cup
  5. recap the container and record date & time
73
Q

how is a pinworm test performed

A

office tape to tongue depressor and press onto skin around anus to look for worms/eggs

74
Q

describe culture test

A

swab sample of drainage from throat/mouth/ear/eye/nose/vagina/anus/infected wounds and collected in a culturette and nourished with a crushed ampule and grown with special media/agar

75
Q

describe sensitivity test

A

microorganisms are tested w/different antibiotics

76
Q

what shows an antibiotic is successful in a sensitivity test

A

zone ring

77
Q

define PRIMARY MEDIA

A

grows all microorganisms and gen tryptic soy agar w/5% sheep blood

78
Q

define SELECTIVE MEDIA

A

agar gen only encourages growth of gram negative organisms and discourages growth of others

79
Q

which is gen more dangerous: gram negative or gram positive

A

gram negative

80
Q

where is gram negative found

A

intestinal tract

81
Q

purpose of thayer-martin plate

A

isolates gonorrhea

82
Q

define ENRICHMENT MEDIUM

A

agar w/additional nutrients

83
Q

give an example of enrichment medium

A

chocolate agar

84
Q

what conditions are gram variable reactions

A
  • mycobacterium (leprosy)
  • mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB)
85
Q

what diseases are gram positive

A
  • bacillus anthracis (anthrax)
  • clostridium botulinum (botulism)
  • clostridium perfringens (gas gangrene, wound infection)
  • clostridium tetani (tetanus)
  • corynebacterium diphtheriae (diphtheria)
  • staphylococcus aureus (carbuncles, furunculosis, pneumonia, septicemia)
  • streptococcus pyogenes (erysipelas, rheumatic fever, scarlet fever, septicemia, strep throat, tonsillitis)
86
Q

what diseases are gram negative reactions

A
  • bordetella pertussis (pertussis)
  • brucella abortus/brucella melitensis/brucella suis (flu-like s/s, fever, arthritis, neurologic, chronic fatigue syndrome, depression, arthritis)
  • escherichia coli (urinary infection)
  • haemophilus influenzae (meningitis, pneumonia)
  • neisseria gonorrhoeae (gonorrhea)
  • neisseria meningitidis (nasopharyngitis, meningitis)
  • pseudomonas aeruginosa (respiratory & urogenital infection)
  • rickettsia rickettsii (rocky mountain spotted fever)
  • salmonella paratyphi (food poisoning, paratyphoid fever)
  • shigella dysenteriae (dysentery)
  • treponema pallidum (syphilis)
  • vibrio cholerae (cholera)
  • yersinia pestis (plague)

MA: Chp 41 & 42 - POL & Specimens (3 decks)

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