CHOP

Question 1

Professional liability insurance is mandatory in all jurisdictions.

Answer 1

False (1.1.2) The provincial and territorial associations vary in their requirements for professional liability insurance. In most jurisdictions in Canada, professional liability insurance is mandatory. Professional liability insurance will protect the public by providing financial compensation as a result of an error, omission or negligence in the provision of professional services.

Question 2

The role of the provincial associations is to:
a) Set eligibility criteria
b) Set conduct regulations
c) Build awareness and appreciation of architecture
d) Investigate and adjudicate allegations of misconduct
e) Impose disciplinary actions
f) Licensing and Registration

Answer 2

a, b, d, e, f, CHOP 1.1

Question 3

Which level of government has jurisdiction over professional practice?

Answer 3

Provincial

Question 4

Of the 5600 hours of work experience required to be completed in the IAP, how many are designated as the minimum Number of hours for “design and construction documents”?

Answer 4

The minimum number of hours required in the “Design and Construction Documents” category is 2,200.

Question 5

What are the three components of the common admission standards adopted by the provincial associations of architects in Canada?

Answer 5

3 E’s :
Education, Experience, Examination Chapter 1.5 – Admission to the Profession

Question 6

What are the three key elements that distinguish professions from other occupations?

Answer 6

Expertise, Commitment to Public Good, Accountability

Question 7

Currently the RAIC has ratified mutual recognition agreements with?

Answer 7

Royal Architectural Institute of Canada (RAIC), in collaboration with the Canadian Architectural Licensing Authorities (CALA), has actively pursued Mutual Recognition Agreements (MRAs) with international architectural organizations to facilitate the mobility of architects across borders. MRAs currently in place: Tri-National Agreement (Canada, USA, Mexico), Canada-USA Agreement, APEC Architect Agreement (Australia and New Zealand), ACE-CALA Agreement (European Union)

Question 8

The Canadian Construction Documents Committee (CCDC) activities are governed by:
a) Provincial associations
b) RAIC
c) Construction Industry Consultative Committee

Answer 8

c) Construction Industry Consultative Committee

Question 9

Give two reasons why early consultation with building officials is good practice.

Answer 9

establish relationship,
understand regulations for a specific project

Question 10

T/F : The architect is responsible for obtaining permits to occupy public property for the construction hoarding, designing the shoring for excavation and for obtaining separate approvals for demolition and sewer connection permits.

Answer 10

F – the contractor is

Question 11

What does the Certificate of Substantial Performance trigger?

Answer 11

1. Commencement of the Warranty Period: The CSP sets the official start date for the warranty period as outlined in the construction contract. CCDC 2 - Stipulated Price Contract, the warranty period begins at the point of “ready-for-takeover,” which is closely linked to the issuance of the CSP. This means the contractor becomes contractually obligated to address any defects or deficiencies that arise within the specified warranty period, typically one year, starting from the date on the CSP.
2. Release of Holdback Monies:
   A significant portion of the construction project funds, known as the statutory holdback, is retained by the owner until the issuance of the CSP. The holdback serves as financial protection for subcontractors and suppliers, ensuring they are paid even if the general contractor defaults. Once the CSP is issued, the contractor can apply for the release of the holdback monies. However, the actual release of funds is typically delayed for a specified period, defined by provincial lien legislation, after the CSP date. This delay allows subcontractors and suppliers to file lien claims if they have not been paid.
3. Formal Notification to Subcontractors and Suppliers:
   The CSP issuance acts as a formal notification to all subcontractors and suppliers that the project is substantially complete. This notification, often achieved through publication in a construction trade newspaper, informs subcontractors and suppliers that the deadline for filing lien claims is approaching.
   The lien claim period typically expires a certain number of days, as specified by provincial lien legislation, from the date the CSP is published.
4. Shifting of Risk and Responsibility:
   The issuance of the CSP signifies a transfer of risk and responsibility from the contractor to the owner for ongoing maintenance and operation of the building. While the contractor remains responsible for addressing deficiencies and warranty issues, the owner assumes responsibility for general upkeep and maintenance once the building is substantially complete.

Question 12

T/F Federal government buildings are always subject to the building code of the jurisdiction in which they are situated.

Answer 12

False - Federal Buildings must comply with NBC

Question 13

Which of the following is not a type of architectural practice? [2.1.1]
a. Corporation
b. Partnership
c. Sole Proprietorship
d. Partnership of Corporations
e. None of The Above

Answer 13

e

Question 14

Which of the following are examples of succession planning options? [2.1.2]
1. Reapportioning of Ownership | 2. Dissolution of The Practice | 3. Sell The Practice | 4. Working on Your Golf Swing While Letting Staff Worry About Your Projects

a.1 & 3
b. 4
c. 2 & 3
d. 1, 2 & 3

Answer 14

d

Question 15

T/F The ‘construction cost’ includes all construction costs incurred by the project including Architect and Consultants fees:

Answer 15

False - Construction Cost : all construction costs (all elements of the project – contract price/changes/CM fees/procurement services/all applicable taxes) – excludes compensation of arch/consultants/land cost/land dev. Charges and other prof. fees. VS. Project Budget: Total expenditure for entire project (incl. construction budget/prof fees/cost of land/rights of ways/other client costs)

Question 16

1. The purposes of fire resistance requirements in the building code include which of the following?
   I. to permit safe evacuation of the occupants
   II. to prevent fire damage to the building
   Ill. to reduce the generation of toxic smoke
   IV to prevent structural failure for a specified period of time
   A I only
   B. land IV
   C.11 and Ill
   D. I, II, and Ill

Answer 16

B. Fire resistive requirements relate primarily to life safety, and only secondarily to structural damage

Question 17

2. The difference between the terms “exit” and “means of egress” is that means of egress refers to:
   A. all ways out of a building
   B. all emergency ways out of a building
   C. all legal ways out of a building
   D. exactly the same thing as exit

Answer 17

D. The two terms are interchangeable.

Question 18

Construction cost estimates prepared during the programming phase should be:
A. based on appropriate unit costs
B. based on a single lump-sum figure
C. disregarded, because there are so many unknowns
D. disregarded, because costs do not affect programming

Answer 18

A. Based on appropriate unit costs - this system is usually based on recent experience with similar types of buildings.

Question 19

4. On a moderate hillside which rises behind a housing development, one could reduce the need for a complex drainage
   system by:
   A. paving the hillside area with an impervious material
   B. grading level areas into the hillside
   C. providing a thick ground cover of plant material
   D. creating earth berms at the foot of the slope

Answer 19

C. Thick ground cover would slow down the rate of runoff - this would allow greater water absorption and percolation
into the soil, as well as reduce erosion.

Question 20

After considering all bids, the owner favours a bid with irregularities. According to the Instructions to Bidders (CCDC 23),
the owner:
A. has the right to waive irregularities and accept the bid
B. has the right to extend the bidding period for corrections
C. must informally request corrections from the bidder
D. must only consider bids without irregularities

Answer 20

A. Has the right to waive irregularities and accept the bid.

Question 21

6. The contractor for a project submits to the architect shop drawings that contain deviations from the contract documents
   not noted as deviations on the shop drawings. The drawings are then approved and returned to the contractor by the
   architect. According to CCDC2, which of the following is true in this situation?:
   A. the contractor assumes reponsibility for deviations from the contract documents
   B. the contractor is allowed to build according to the approved shop drawings containing deviations
   C. the architect assumes responsibility for deviations from the contract documents because the architect approved the shops
   D. the owner must be informed of all deviations from and alterations to the contract documents

Answer 21

6. A. The contractor assumes reponsibility for deviations from the contract documents.

Question 22

7. During a concrete pour, a portion of the third floor of a project collapses because of inadequate shoring. The architect
   informs the contractor that work in the area of the collapse will not be approved until the architect can fully evavaluate the
   impact of the failure on adjacent work in place. The contractor states that the architect will be held responsible for the cost
   of delays unless the analysis is performed within 24 hours. The architect should:
   A. perform as complete and thorough an analysis as possible within 24 hours
   B. perform a complete analysis in a timely manner and make it clear that the contractor will be responsible for the schedule
   C. put the owner on notice that the owner may have to pay additional costs for an extended completion date
   D. allow the contractor to proceed with work in the adjacent area so that no time is lost

Answer 22

7. B. Perform a complete analysis in a timely manner and make it clear that the contractor will be responsible for schedule.

Question 23

8. A project Manual contains:
   I. the drawings
   II. the general conditions of the contract for discussion
   Ill. the instructions to bidders
   IV. sample contract administration forms
   V. the bid form
   A lland IV
   B. I, Ill, and V
   C. II, Ill, IV, and V
   D. 1,11I,l l, IV, and V

Answer 23

C. Contains the technical specs and other contractual and administrative docs; it does not contain the drawings.

Question 24

9. All of the following statements about performance specifications are true EXCEPT:
   A. they include test parameters for the items specified
   B. they make the contractor responsible for proper performance of the specified items
   C. they explain all components of the specified items in detail
   D. they are best used for new or unusual situations

Answer 24

C. Prescriptive specs explain all components of specified items.

Question 25

10. Which of the following are NOT considered a part of the construction contract documents?:
    I. specifications
    II. addenda
    Ill. shop drawings
    IV. owner-architect agreement
    V. supplementary conditions
    A. IV only
    8.11 and Ill
    C. I and V
    D. Ill and IV

Answer 25

D. Shop drawings+ Owner-Architect Agreement

Question 26

11. Which of the following is NOT part of the bidding documents?:
    A. drawings
    B. instruction to bidders
    C. shop drawings
    D.addenda

Answer 26

C. Shop drawings

Question 27

12. Which of the following methods is likely to be effective in dealing with hydrostatic pressures acting on a structure?:
    I. increasing the weight of the building
    II. installing vertical reinforcement in subsurface walls
    Ill. installing horizontal reinforcement in subsurface walls
    IV. decreasing the amount of water in the soil
    V. installing gravel beds under ground floor concrete slabs
    A. IV only
    B. II, IV, and V
    C. I, II, Ill, IV, and V
    D. I and V

Answer 27

C. Hydrostatic pressure is created by water in the soil - decreasing water will reduce pressure; increasing weight and
installing gravel beds to reduce cappilary action under slabs is effective in dealing with vertical hydrostatic forces;
horizontal and vertical reinforcing help resist lateral forces caused by hydrostatic pressure.

Question 28

13. After the bid opening for a new hospital project, a contractor discovers that his estimator misinterpreted the intent of
    the drawings in the construction of the concrete work included in the contract. As a result, his bid is too low by
    $500,000. This error results in the contractor’s bid being lower than the next lowest bid by approximately $550,000.
    In this circumstance, the owner and architect should:
    A. allow the contractor to increase his bid by $500,000 and award the contract on the basis that it is still the lowest bid
    B. allow the contractor to withdraw his bid without penalty
    C. correct the contract documents to eliminate all possible misunderstandings and rebid the project
    D. offer the erring bidder the contract for the amount of the original bid. Retain the bidsecurity if the contractor refuses to
    enter into a contract for that amount

Answer 28

D. Contractors whose bids contain clerical or computational errors of this magnitude may be allowed to withdraw their
bids without penalty, but not for mistakes involving judgement (there is no indication that that the docs were unclear
or in error - there is no valid reason to rebid the project).

Question 29

14. Some clients discover shortly after hiring the architect for programming and design services that they must move out
    of their existing facility sooner than expected. The new schedule requires that construction and move-in be completed
    in 18 months instead of the original 21 months. What recommendation from the architect is most feasible?:
    A. consider fast-track construction
    B. use CPM scheduling and use a negotiated contract rather than bidding
    C. assign more staff to programming and design and work overtime to get construction started earlier
    D. suggest that the client streamline its decision-making process and hire a construction manager

Answer 29

A. Reducing time by 3 months is about a 15% reduction - fast track will most likely take this amount off the process.

Question 30

15. What type of glass would probably NOT be appropriate for a 10-storey building?
    A. tempered
    B. annealed
    C. heat-strengthened
    D. laminated

Answer 30

B. Annealed is standard for use in most non-critical situations. All the others have high strength and can resist loads, etc.

Question 31

16. What cement would be used in slip-form construction?
    A. Type I
    B. Type II
    C. Type Ill
    D. Type IV

Answer 31

C. Type Ill cement is high early strength.

Question 32

17. Which of the following are TRUE about built-up roofing?
    I. it may be applied on slopes from O in/ft to 1 in/ft
    II. it is best applied only over nailable decks
    Ill. the top layer should be protected from ultraviolet degradation
    IV. proper installation is more important than the number of plies
    V. roof insulation can be placed either above or below the roofing
    A. I, 111a,n d V
    B. 11I,l l, and IV
    C. Ill, IV, and V
    D. I, II, IV, and V

Answer 32

C. Statement I is partially correct because built-up roofs can be applied to flat roofs. However, they should not be; there should be a minumum of 1/4”/ft of slope. Statement II is incorrect because built-up roofs can be applied over nailable and non-nailable decks.

Question 33

18. What are two important considerations when designing a fire-rated ceiling?
    I. hold-down clips
    II. the structural slab
    Ill. thermal insulation
    IV. composition of the floor/ceiling assembly
    V. style of grid
    A. I and Ill
    B. l and IV
    C. II and IV
    D. Ill and V

Answer 33

B. The structural slab is a consideration, but only as part of the entire floor/ceiling assembly, so statement II is incorrect.
Statement Ill is incorrect because thermal insulation is not a consideration in a ceiling’s fire resistance. Statement V
is incorrect because the style is not as important.

Question 34

20. Match the following items to the correct specification section (MasterFormat, Division 01 to Division 16):
    A. contract modification procedures
    B. acoustic ceilings
    C. light-gauge metal framing
    D. toilet accessories
    E. motorized shade and controls
    F. selective demolition
    G. hydraulic elevator
    H. audio-visual equipment

Answer 34

A-div00
B-div09
C-div09
D-div10
E-div12
F-div02
G-div14
H-div11

Question 35

21. Where would the requirements for testing a plumbing system be located?
    A. in a section of Division 1 of the specifications
    B. in Part 1 of Section 15400, Plumbing
    C. in Part 2 of Section 15400, Plumbing
    D. in Part 3 of Section 15400, Plumbing

Answer 35

A. Procedures for submittals are in division 01, General Requirements. The requirements of individual technical sections refer back to division 01.

Question 36

22. Which of the following describes agency?
    A. the architect acts on behalf of the owner, making decisions, expediting the work, and taking on responsibilities the
    owner would normally have
    B. the architect mediates between the owner, the contractor, and vendors for the benefit of the owner
    C. the architect is the principal of the relationship and balances the needs of the contractor and the owner
    D. the architect works for the owner in certain designated areas with the authority to act on the owner’s behalf

Answer 36

D. Agent acts on behalf of another and assumes certain specified authority and duties, but does not take on responsibility.

Question 37

23. The requirement for how a bidder should propose a substitution will be found in the:
    A advertisement to bid
    B. bidding procedures
    C. instructions to bidders
    D. general conditions

Answer 37

C. For bidding, the procedure a contractor must follow to propose a substitution is in the Instruction to Bidders

Question 38

24. In what order should the following activities take place during project close-out (per the OAA/OGCA Doc No. 100)?
    I. preparation of the final certificate for payment
    II. contractor’s inspection and assembly of inspection list
    Ill. issuance of the certificate of substantial completion
    IV. architect’s site review of warranty items
    V. written notification by the contractor that the project is substantially complete
    VI. contractor publishes a copy of certificate of substantial performance in a construction trade newspaper
    VII. issuance of the certificate for payment of the basic statutory holdback monies
    A II, VI, V, VII, IV, I, then Ill
    B. II, V, Ill, VI, I, VII, then IV
    C. V, Ill, II, VI, VII, I, then IV
    D. II, V, Ill, VI, VII, I, then IV

Answer 38

D. II, V, Ill, VI, VII, I, IV

Question 39

25. Per the General Conditions, if there is a conflict within the Contract Docs, the order of priority of items (high-low) is:
    I. the drawings
    II. supplementary conditions
    Ill. the definitions
    IV. material and finish schedules
    V. agreement btwn owner and contractor
    VI. division 1 of specs
    VII. the technical specifications
    A. V, Ill, II, VI, VII, IV, then I
    B. VI, 111V, , II, VII, I, then IV
    C. V, VI, II, Ill, VII, IV, then I
    D. I, IV, VII, VI, II, Ill, then V

Answer 39

A.
the order of priority of documents, from highest to lowest, shall be
− the Agreement between the Owner and the Contractor,
− the Definitions,
− Supplementary Conditions,
− the General Conditions,
− Division 1 of the Specifications,
− technical Specifications,
− material and finishing schedules,
− the Drawings.

Question 40

26. Exits may pass through which of the following areas?:
    I. office reception areas
    II. building lobbies
    Ill. unoccupied storage areas
    IV. apartment entries
    V. kitchens
    A. I, II, and IV
27. I, 111a,n d IV
    C. II, 111a,n d IV
    D. Ill, IV. and V

Answer 40

A. Exits cannot pass through kitchens, storerooms, closets, or sim; or through rooms that can be locked to prevent egress.

Question 41

27. An accessible route must serve:
    A. all accessible spaces and parts of a building
    B. the corridors, stairs, elevators, and toilet rooms of a building
    C. entrances, parking lots, toilet rooms, corridors and drinking fountains
    D. those areas where physically disabled people are likely to need access

Answer 41

A. Any part of the building that is required to be accessible must be accessible from the entry of the building.

Question 42

28. During the design process to remodel toilet rooms to make them accessible, it is found to be impossible to provide
    adequate clearance on one side of a door. WHat is the best course of action?
    A. apply to the building department for a hardship exemption because compliance is not ‘readily achievable’
29. tell the client the walls should be demolished and the toilet rooms replanned to provide the necessary clearances
    C. specify a power-assisted door opener that meets accessibility standards, and use this in the design
    D. plan for accessible toilet rooms in another location in the building where all requirements can be adequately met

Answer 42

C. All choices would solve the problem but installing a power-assist door would be least expensive and require least time.

Question 43

29. Matters affecting the basic legal rights and responsibilities of the parties to the contract, but which may vary from one project to another, should be handled in:
    A. the bidding requirements
30. the owner-contractor agreement
    C. the supplementary conditions
    D. division 1, general requirements

Answer 43

C. The supplementary conditions

Question 44

30. Placing load on a footing results in:
    A. reduced soil bearing capacity
31. differential settlement
    C. a reduction of the soil’s void volume
    D. shrinkage of the soil

Answer 44

C. As load is placed on a footing, it compresses the soil and reduces the soil’s void volume (not necessarily diff settlement)

Question 45

31. The principle determinant of concrete strength is the:
    A. amount of air entrained
32. type of portland cement used
    C. volume of aggregate in the mix
    D. water-cement ratio

Answer 45

D. Depends on a number of factors, but primarily water-cement ratio.

Question 46

32. While observing a concrete pour, an architect notices that the entire concrete laod has been deposited from a 6-foot
    height at the middle of a 40-foot long form. The architect should direct the contractor to:
    A. spread the concrete throughout the length of the form
33. pour the next 2 concrete loads at each end of the form
    C. pour the next load in exactly the same location
    D. remove and discard the concrete

Answer 46

D. Pour is improper for 2 reasons - it was dropped from excessive height, and it was deposited at one point only. Both of these will cause segregation of the mix, and no further treatment will solve the problem.

Question 47

33. During a weekly job-site visit, the architect notices that a mason has used troweled joints on an exposed exterior masonry
    wall, instead of the weather-struck joints that were specified. In the interest of practicality, the architect should:
    A. accept the change, because there is little difference in the 2 joints
34. accept the change, because there is no practical way to modify troweled joints
    C. reject the work and have the mason trowel additional mortar over every horizontal joint
    D. reject the wall and have the wall rebuilt

Answer 47

D. Water tends to collect and remain at trowelled joints, so if left, the mortar would eventually deteriorate. Adding mortar is poor practice, so the only alternative is to redo the wall.

Question 48

34. The most reasonable alternative solution to the problem stated in question#33 would be to:
    A. paint the entire wall with a waterproof sealer
    B. spray the entire wall with a clear lacquer
    C. fill each joint with expansion joint filler
    D. plaster the masonry wall

Answer 48

D. None of the first 3 methods provides the weather resistance of a proper mortar joint.

Question 49

35. An architect discovers that the anticipated load of a proposed floor exceeds the safe carrying capacity of conventional
    wood joists spaced at 16” o.c. Since the design is limited to a relatively shallow framing depth, the practical solution
    would be to use:
    A. conventional joists more closely spaced
    B. shallow wood trusses
    C. glue laminated beams
    D. plywood girders

Answer 49

A. Wood trusses, laminated beams and girders are all possible substitutes, but their use would be impractical/more cost.

Question 50

36. The strength of a wood member is affected by which of the following?
    I. the species of tree from which it is cut
    II. the method used in its seasoning
    Ill. the way it is cut from the tree
    IV the number of defects it has
    V. the direction of the applied loads
    A. I, IV, and V
    B. II, 111a,n d IV
    C. I, II, Ill, and V
    D. all of the above

Answer 50

D. All

Question 51

37. A polyethylene vapor barrier at roof level should be installed:
    A. just above the finished ceiling
    B. over the insulation on a roof deck
    C. just beneath the roofing
    D. between roof rafters

Answer 51

A. Vapour barriers should always be installed on warm or room side of construction; sheets are also installed continuous.

Question 52

38. A client has asked you to investigate 4 proposed sites for his residence. Considering only safety, economy, and
    practicality of the foundation system, which site would you recommend for purchase?:
    A. site A has large attractive outcroppings of rock
    B. a stream bordered by wide areas of soft, damp clay runs through site B
    C. site C is covered by compact sand, about half of which is coarse
    D. over the dry, stiff clay of site D is loose fill that ranges in depth from 10 to 25 feet

Answer 52

C. Since asked to consider the foundation system specifically, both sites A and D can be eliminated (costly foundations), and site B is doubtful because of low bearing capacity of soft clay and the continuous presence of water.

Question 53

39. During the application of built-up composition roofing, the architect notices that trapped moisture has caused bubbles to form between plies. The architect should require the roofing contractor to:
    A. apply additional roofing plies over the affected areas
    B. puncture the bubbles and resurface the affected areas
    C. remove the roofing plies and resurface the entire area
    D. ignore the moisture since it will eventually evaporate

Answer 53

B. It is neither necessary nor desirable to remove the entire ply roof; allowing moisture to evaporate and resurfacing the affected area only is acceptable.

Question 54

40. During the course of excavation for a multi-storey building foundation, soft water-bearing soil is encountered (this condition was previously undetected by the soild testing agency). After careful consideration you conclude the need for:
    A. soil compaction through surface vibration
    B. soil densification employing sheepsfoot rollers
    C. caissons or cofferdams
    D. a granular fill below the floor slab

Answer 54

C. Compaction or densification is usually insufficient to improve bearing capacity. Granuler fill does not improve the bearing capacity of soft water-bearing soil. Foundations must be extended to depths below water level, to solid support.

Question 55

41. All of the following are capable of reversing the otherwise invariant flow of heat from hotter to cooler objects EXCEPT:
    A. the heat pump system
    B. the variable air volume system
    C. the refrigeration cycle
    D. the evaporative chiller

Answer 55

B. Systems which use the compressive refrigeration cycle reverse the flow from hotter to cooler objects.

Question 56

42. Which of the following systems can provide simultaneous heating and cooling to different rooms within the same zone?:
    I. single duct, constant volume with electric reheat system
    II. double duct system
    Ill. fan coil system
    A. I and II
    B.11 and Ill
    C. I and Ill
    D, I, II, and Ill

Answer 56

D. Electric reheat system normally cools, but can heat when the resistance coil is on. The double duct system distributes only air and can heat or cool as needed, at each mixing box. The fan coil system can also heat or cool at each unit.

Question 57

43. Which of the following strategies reduces overall energy consumption in a building?:
    I. an HVAC system with an economizer cycle
    II. a daylighting design which provides light but little heat
    Ill. a wet standpipe system
    A. I and II
    8.11 and Ill
    C. I and Ill
    D. I, II, and Ill

Answer 57

A. An economizer cycle shuts off the refrigeration and uses outside air when the air temps are low enough, thus reducing the plant load. Daylighting reduces the need for artificial light, which reduces required energy. However, daylighting may also increase the heat gain and thus the cooling load (but that is not the case, since we’re told that the design provides little heat. The standpipe system has little to do with energy consumption.

Question 58

44. In remodeling an existing school building which has a steam heat system and no air conditioning, the intent is to create separate living units. Which of the following systems is probably the best choice for the building?:
    A. a double-duct forced air system, which would provide each unit either heating or cooling, independent of the other units
    B. a variable air volume system, which would be the most efficient, even if one unit is being heated while an adjacent unit is being cooled
    C. a heat pump system, which would not require the addition of ductwork, and would allow each unit to be heated or cooled
    D. a multizone system, which would provide for different temperature zones with less space required than any of the others

Answer 58

C. There are already pipes for the steam heat system - these may be used for the heat sink if they are in good condition, or they may be replaced by new pipes, which would be approximately the same size. All of the other systems are forced air systems which would require major modifications for the required ducting. The heat pump system also
allows each unit to be billed separately, based on the electricity used by that unit’s heat pump.

Question 59

45. Which of the following basic structural systems would be appropriate for a high-tech building with equipment and functions that are extremely sensitive to vibrations?
    A. poured-in-place concrete beam and slab system
    B. heavy steel frame with composite floor slab with rubber insulators
    C. heavy 12 gauge metal studs with long-span steel joist with a 5-inch thick concrete slab
    D. masonry bearing walls with wood joists and wood deck with a 4-inch thick gypsum concrete topping slab

Answer 59

A. Poured in place concrete beam and slab system

Question 60

46. An architectural program should contain which of the following (check the 4 answers that apply):
    A. budget limitations
    B. soils bearing capacity
    C. a statement of the owner’s goals
    D. an inventory of spaces required
    E. statements of functional relationships
    F. determination of the structiral system

Answer 60

A, C, D, E

Question 61

47. What is the floor area ratio (FAR) of a three-storey building on a one-acre parcel of land, if each floor contains 14, 520 square feet?
    A. one
    B. two
    C. three
    D. ten

Answer 61

A. (FAR) = ratio of gross floor area of a building to the ground area of the site. Formula for sqft to acre is to divide the unit by 43,560

Question 62

48. Which of the following would be most appropriate for a high-rise building in a high-risk seismic zone?
    A. a building on stilts
    B. a building with an L-shaped plan
    C. a building with a symmetrical T-shaped plan
    D. a building with a symmetrical square plan

Answer 62

D.

Question 63

49. Which of the following is NOT a primary structural system that is employed to resist lateral loads?
    A. shearwalls
    B. braced frames
    C. hinged frames
    D. moment-resisting frames

Answer 63

C.

Question 64

50. All of the following are criteria for base isolation systems EXCEPT:
    A. the system must allow lateral movement
    B. the system must control movement between ground and structure
    C. energy must be dissipated in the isolators
    D. the system must amplify ground accelerations

Answer 64

D

Question 65

52. Link the applicable definition to the following terms:
    I. unconditional occupancy
    II. partial occupancy
    Ill. conditional occupancy
    IV. phased occupancy
    A. occurs when a building or part of is considered safe, but incomplete with respect to the scope of work in the contract
    B. occurs when discrete, or stand-alone portions of the building are complete with respect to building code and permit issues
    C. occurs when scope of work related to building code and building permit is complete and accepted
    D. occurs at completion of all items included in the scope of work for the contract is completed

Answer 65

I- D II -A Ill - C IV - B

Question 66

53. Match the building type to the most appropriate concrete slab structure:
    I. parking garage
    II. apartment building with typical 6 meter structural bays
    Ill. contemporary library with 15 meter structural bays
    A. one-way slab
    B. two-way flat slab
    C. waffle slab

Answer 66

1-B II-A III-C

Question 67

54. A foundation wall is laterally unsupported at the top and extends 1.2m above the ground cover of the crawl space.
    Determine the thickness of the foundation wall if the foundations are to be made of 15 MPa concrete.
    NBC reference: ___________ _

Answer 67

200mm (ref. 9.15.4.2.A)

Question 68

56. Identify all the characteristics below that apply to the following bonds:
    A. Performance Bond
    B. Bid Bond
    C. Labour and Material Payment Bond
    I. ______ indemnifies the owner in the event of contractor bankruptcy
    II. ______ amount is usually between 5% and 10% of the construction cost
    Ill. ______ recommend use of CCDC form 222
    IV ______ covers the difference in cost between the winning bid
    and the amount the owner contracts with another contractor
    V. _______ amount is usually between 50% and 100% of the contract amount
    VI. ______ recommends the use of CCDC form 220
    VII. ______ requested by ‘consent of surety’
    VIII. ______ is not an insurance policy

Answer 68

I. A
II B
Ill C
IV B
V A, C
VI B
VII A, C
VII A, B, C

Question 69

57. What type of project delivery:
    A. has a sequential process and clear roles assigned to each party
    B. is suitable where very high quality is required
    C. can involve staged bidding for fast-track; common for large, complex projects
    D. determines budget costs early in process before design is complete
    E. is suitable where time is more important than cost
    F. is appropriate for small, complicated projects where total costs are initially difficult to determine

Answer 69

A- stipulated price contract
B - cost-plus
C - construction management
D - design-build
E - cost-plus
F - cost-plus

Question 70

58. List and describe the 5 methods of Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) in order of low to high volatility + cost.

Answer 70

prevention - ‘partnering’; solve problems as they arise, in a manner that will achieve agreed collective goals rather than trying to affix blame
negotiation - negotiated between two parties and based on strict interpretation of the terms of the contract
mediation - two or more parties mutually agree and a neutral person is appointed to act as a mediator
arbitration - two or more parties submit a dispute to an independent arbitration panel; the arbitrator makes final and binding determination in a judicial manner
litigation - judge and jury (legal courts)

Question 71

How to make a 900ish mm door in a 1400mm corridor barrier free compliant

Answer 71

(swing door out since not enough room for 600 on latch side (i.e. know the 300/600 rule)).

Question 72

300mm/600mm Rule

Answer 72

11) Unless equipped with a power door operator complying with Sentence (6), a swinging door in a barrier-free path of travel shall have a clear space on the latch side extending the height of the doorway and not less than
a) 600 mm beyond the edge of the door opening if the door swings toward the approach side, and
b) 300 mm beyond the edge of the door opening if the door swings away from the approach side.
(See Note A-3.8.3.6.(11).)

Question 73

What’s the industry standard for costing info?

Answer 73

RS means

Question 74

Pros and cons of quartersawn and flatsawn lumber

Question 75

BF toilets are required on a rocky site that cannot have municipal water brought to it. Is the project ok to proceed?

Answer 75

3.7.2.1. Plumbing and Drainage Systems - 3) Except as permitted in Sentence (4), if the installation of a sanitary drainage system is not possible because of the absence of a water supply, sanitary privies, chemical closets or other means for the disposal of human waste shall be provided.

Question 76

What is a Statutory Declaration?

Answer 76

CCDC 9A – 2018 Statutory Declaration of Progress Payment Distribution by Contractor is a sworn statement for use by the Contractor as a condition of receiving payment for either the second and subsequent applications for progress payment or the release of holdback funds. Refer to CCDC 9A, 9B, and 9C for sample forms. Refer also to the applicable lien legislation in the province or territory in which the project is undertaken, which governs.

Question 77

What’s the contract is ccdc14 based off of?

Answer 77

Design-Build Stipulated Price Contract:
CCDC 14 – Design-Build Stipulated Price Contract
In the design-build stipulated price contract, the owner deals with one single business entity, which arranges
to provide both design services and construction of the project under one contract package. Prices established
before the design is completed may cause disagreement over the scope of the work or the details of construction intended for inclusion in the stipulated price. The prime contract is between the owner and the design-builder, where the design-builder could be a contractor, an architect, a broker, or a joint venture between a contractor and an architect.

Question 78

What’s contract between design builder and architect?

Answer 78

CCDC 15 – Design-Builder/
Consultant Contract
(subcontract)

Question 79

What are the key differences between a Change Order and a Change Directive as outlined in the “CCDC 2 - 1994 Stipulated Price Contract.pdf”?

Answer 79

Change Order: A written amendment to the contract, prepared by the Consultant and signed by both the Owner and the Contractor, that details an agreed-upon change in the Work. The Change Order specifies the method or amount of adjustment to the Contract Price, if any, and any changes to the Contract Time.
Change Directive: A written instruction from the Consultant, signed by the Owner, that directs the Contractor to proceed with a change in the Work before the Owner and Contractor have agreed on adjustments to the Contract Price and Contract Time.

Question 80

Explain the stages of payment according to CCDC 2

Answer 80

1. make progress payments to the Contractor on account of the Contract Price when due in the amount certified by the
   Consultant
   .2 upon Substantial Performance of the Work, pay to the Contractor the unpaid balance of the holdback amount when due
   together
   .3 upon the issuance of the final certificate for payment, pay to the Contractor the unpaid balance of the Contract Price

Question 81

What are the three main objectives of a Change Order?

Answer 81

work, time, money:
- a change in the Work;
- the method of adjustment or the amount of the adjustment in the Contract Price, if any; and
- the extent of the adjustment in the Contract Time, if any.

Question 82

According to CCDC 2 - when is Substantial Performance reached?

Answer 82

Substantial Performance of the Work shall have been reached when the Work is ready for use or is being used for the purpose intended and is so certified by the Consultant.

Question 83

How does a Supplemental Instruction vary from a Change Directive or Change Order?

Answer 83

There is no adjustment to the Contract Price or Contract Time. It is to be issued by the Consultant to supplement the Contract Documents as required for the performance of
the Work.

Question 84

T/F - the Contract Documents of CCDC 2 establish a contractual agreement between the Consultant and the Contractor

Answer 84

False - Nothing contained in the Contract Documents shall create any contractual relationship between:
.1 the Owner and a Subcontractor, a Supplier, or their agent, employee, or other person performing any portion of the Work.
.2 the Consultant and the Contractor, a Subcontractor, a Supplier, or their agent, employee, or other person performing any portion of the Work.

Question 85

T/F - the Consultant is responsible for calculating the exact amount required for payment from the Owner to the Contractor throughout the course of the project

Answer 85

False - Based on the Consultant’s observations and evaluation of the Contractor’s applications for payment, the Consultant will
determine the amounts owing to the Contractor under the Contract and will issue certificates for payment as provided in Article A-5 of the Agreement - PAYMENT, GC 5.3 - PROGRESS PAYMENT and GC 5.7 - FINAL PAYMENT. Basically use judgment but not responsible for coming up with the sum - that is contained in the contractors application for payment.

Question 86

T/F - The Consultant may order any portion or portions of the Work to be examined to confirm that such work is in accordance with the requirements of the Contract Documents, and if it does not comply the Contractor has to redo the Work

Answer 86

True - If the work is not in accordance with the requirements of the Contract Documents, the Contractor shall correct the work and pay the cost of examination and correction. If the work is in accordance with the requirements of the Contract Documents, the Owner shall pay the cost of examination and restoration.

Question 87

If defective work is found on site, what are the options for dealing with it according to CCDC2:
a) rip it out and replace it
b) hire a new contractor to do the work
c) keep the defective work and alter the contract price to reflect the difference between the intended contract docs and the installed defective works
d) leave it as is and don’t say anything

Answer 87

a, c
The Contractor shall promptly correct defective work that has been rejected by the Consultant as failing to conform to the Contract Documents whether or not the defective work has been incorporated in the Work and whether or not the defect is
the result of poor workmanship, use of defective products or damage through carelessness or other act or omission of the Contractor.
If in the opinion of the Consultant it is not expedient to correct defective work or work not performed as provided in the
Contract Documents, the Owner may deduct from the amount otherwise due to the Contractor the difference in value between the work as performed and that called for by the Contract Documents. If the Owner and the Contractor do not agree on the difference in value, they shall refer the matter to the Consultant for a determination.

Question 88

T/F The Consultant shall be solely responsible for construction means, methods, techniques, sequences, and procedures and for
co-ordinating the various parts of the Work under the Contract.

Answer 88

False - Contractor

Question 89

T/F The Owner is allowed to hire their own forces or separate contracts to perform other parts of the project, in conjunction with the work by the Contractor.

Answer 89

True :The Owner reserves the right to award separate contracts in connection with other parts of the Project to other contractors and to perform work with own forces.
Where the Contract Documents identify work to be performed by other contractors or the Owner’s own forces, the Contractor shall co-ordinate and schedule the Work with the work of other contractors and the Owner’s own forces as specified in the Contract Documents, as well as coordinate locations for equipment within reason, cooperate w schedules, and advise the Consultant of any discrepancies caused by the Owners own forces.

Question 90

Who is responsible for the temporary work on site?

Answer 90

Contractor (CCDC2)

Question 91

T/F The Owner has the right to refuse a bid and request a change in subtrade?

Answer 91

True - The Owner may, for reasonable cause, at any time before the Owner has signed the Contract, object to the use of a proposed
Subcontractor or Supplier and require the Contractor to employ one of the other subcontract bidders.
3.7.4 If the Owner requires the Contractor to change a proposed Subcontractor or Supplier, the Contract Price and Contract Time
shall be adjusted by the differences occasioned by such required change.

Question 92

What does the Copyright Act say in regards to architectural works?

Answer 92

The Copyright Act protects architectural works in a category of material called “artistic works.” Artistic works are defined to include drawings, charts, plans, photographs, works of artistic craftsmanship (such as models) and architectural works. An “architectural work” is defined as “any building or structure or any model of a building or structure.” As a result, the building is protected by copyright, as well as the various drawings, sketches, designs and models produced as part of the project.(CHOP 6.4 Appendix A)

Question 93

What are the 4 S’ for designing a structure?

Answer 93

Strength (prevents breaking)
Stiffness (prevents excessive deformation)
Stability (prevents collapse)
Synergy (compatibility w overall design)

Question 94

Shear Wall considerations:

Answer 94

• material: any
• especially stiff, good for compact arrangement of stabilization is needed.
• mostly solid = limited openings
• frequently used in cores (stairs, elevators etc) to reduce impact in floor plan. can be used in exterior wall, but limited access to light.

Question 95

Braced Frame considerations:

Answer 95

• cost : when braced frame/shear wall is used, beam to column connections can be cheaper/easier (shear connections) = building frame does not need to provide own lateral force resistance
• material: usually steel or wood
• frequently used in cores, but can also be used on the exterior and have an aesthetic value

Question 96

Rigid Frame considerations (also known as moment resisting frames):

Answer 96

• difficulty of construction: column and beam connections need to be stiffer (moment connections = greater resistance to lateral loads in frame itself)
• materials: steel or sitecast concrete (precast possible but v difficult)
• less interference with plan/elevation
• less structurally efficient at resisting lateral force; use in low/broad structures with modest lateral force
• taller = combination w shear or brace
• imposes additional stresses - heavy columns / closer spacing usually needed to compensate

Question 97

Typically, what percentage of space does M&E take up in a building?

Answer 97

10-15%

Question 98

What MasterFormat subsection contains Division 02-14?

Answer 98

Facility Construction Subgroup

Question 99

Which of the following are part of Site and Instrastructure SubGroup?
a) Div 33
b) Div 36
c) Div 21
d) Div 12
e) Div 34

Answer 99

a and e (and c)
Div 33 Utilities
Div 34 Transportation
Div 36 is reserved for future expansion

Question 100

Match the division to the correct category:

a) Division 04
b) Division 09
c) Division 22
d) Division 27
e) Division 33
f) Division 06

Answer 100

a) Division 04 Masonry
b) Division 09 Finishes
c) Division 22 Plumbing
d) Division 27 Communications
e) Division 33
f) Division 06 Wood, Plastics and Composites

Question 101

What are the Facilities Services Subgroup?

Answer 101

Division 20-29 (20, 24, 29 reserved)
Div 21 Fire Suppression
Div 22 Plumbing
Div 23 HVAC
Div 25 Integrated Automation
Div 26 Electrical
Div 27 Communications
Div 28 Electronic Safety and Security

Question 102

What are the Site and Infrastructure Subgroup?

Answer 102

Div 30-39 (30, 36-39 reserved)
Div 31 Earthwork
Div 32 Exterior Improvements
Div 33 Utilities
Div 34 Transportation
Div 35 Waterway and Marine Construction

Question 103

What does a psychrometric chart describe?

Answer 103

the physical and thermal properties of atmospheric air for a particular barometric pressure