Cholinergics Flashcards

1
Q

Nicotinic receptors have what structure and are what type of receptor?

A

Pentameric structure

Ligand-gated ion channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the major muscarinic subtypes in the body?

A

M1, M3, M5 inositol phosphate pathway

M2, M4 inhibit adenylyl cyclase (reduce cAMP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

M1

A

CNS

Stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

M2

A

Cardiac muscle

CNS

Airway smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

M3

A

Airway smooth muscle

Glandular smooth tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

M4/5

A

CNS

Probably other stuff people will figure in the future, be thankful we’re taking this class now..

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Nm

A

Skeletal muscle at NMJ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Nn

A

Autonomic ganglia

Adrenal medulla

CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Scopolamine and Atropine are ______ amines

A

Tertiary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Glycopyrrolate is _____ amine

A

Quaternary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which antimuscarinic has the strongest antisialagogue and sedative effects?

A

Scopolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which antimuscarinic has the strongest effect on increasing HR?

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why is glycopyrrolate prefered over atropine in many cases?

A

Does not cross the BBB and thus has fewer CNS effects (little sedation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Glycopyrrolate vs Atropine kinetics

A

IV atropine onset is 1 minute, duration 30-60 minutes. E1/2 2.3 hrs. 18% unchanged in urine, rest is hydrolyzed.

IV glycopyrrolate onset is 2-3 minutes, duration 30-60 minutes, E1/2 1.25 hrs, 80% unchanged in urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Who would see a bigger effect from atropine, an old patient or a young patient?

A

Young patient- high baseline vagal tone, this decreases as we age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What must we always give when antagonizing NMB?

A

Anticholinesterase drug

17
Q

Ipratropium uses and dosing

A

Bronchodilation

MDI 40-80mcg 2 puffs
0.25-0.5mg via neb
30-90 minute onset time
Useful in asthmatics, COPD, and smokers prior to airway instrumentation

18
Q

We would want to avoid anticholinergics in what type of ophtho cases?

A

Narrow angle glaucoma, it increase IOP

19
Q

Anticholinergics can reduce what side effect of opioids?

A

Biliary and ureteral spasm

20
Q

Scopolamine dosing

A
  1. 3-0.5mg or 5mcg/kg (pre-op)

1. 5mg transdermal (5mcg/hr x 72 hrs- nausea)

21
Q

Atropine

A

0.2-0.4mg IV (pre-op)
0.4-1.0mg IV (bradycardia)
2mg in 5ml NS via neb (bronchodilation)

22
Q

Glycopyrrolate

A

0.1mg-0.2mg IV (pre-op and bradycardia)

23
Q

Central anticholinergic syndrome is more likely to occur with ________ and __________. What are the S/S and treatment?

A

Scopolamine and atropine

Restlessness, hallucinations, somnolence, unconsciousness

Delayed emergence/recovery in PACU

Give physostigmine 15-60 mcg/kg IV as needed q1-2 hours

24
Q

Atropine doses below 0.4mg for bradycardia can actually do what?

A

Make the bradycardia worse!

25
Q

Other anticholinergics

A

Ipratropium (Atrovent), Tiotropium (Spiriva)- COPD

Oxybutynin (Ditropan), Tolterodine (Detrol)- overactive bladder (M non-specific)

Darifenacin (Enablex), Solifenacin (Vesicare)- overactive bladder (M3 specific)