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Chiropractic Board Exam 1 Prep > Chiro Essentials Part 1 > Flashcards

Chiro Essentials Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Abdominal pain blue gum line and constipation indicates?

A

Lead poisoning

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2
Q

Abdominal pain and tenderness in the right iliac fossa indicates?

A

Appendicitis

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3
Q

Abdominal pain following an alcoholic binge indicates?

A

Pancreatitis

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4
Q

Abdominal pain in the right iliac fossa and diarrhea indicates?

A

Crohn’s disease

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5
Q

Abdominal pain in the left iliac fossa blood in stool in a young female indicates?

A

Ulcerative colitis

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6
Q

Abdominal pain in the left iliac fossa blood in stool in an older male indicates?

A

Diverticulitis

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7
Q

Abdominal pain splenomegaly in a black child indicates?

A

Sickle Cell

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8
Q

Adrenal hemmorrhage and shock indicates?

A

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

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9
Q

Amenorrhea no lactation after postpartum hemorrhage indicates?

A

Sheehan’s syndrome

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10
Q

Arachnodactyly lens dislocation hyper-mobile joints indicates?

A

Marfan’s disease

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11
Q

Argyll-Robertson pupil aortic aneurysm and angina pectoris indicates?

A

Tertiary syphilis

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12
Q

Ataxia heart problems and scoliosis indicates?

A

Friedreich’s disease

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13
Q

Beefy red tongue and fatigue indicates?

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency

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14
Q

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and erythema nodosum indicates?

A

Sarcoidosis

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15
Q

Bilateral ptosis diploplia and difficulty chewing found in females indicates?

A

Myasthenia Gravis

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16
Q

Bitot’s spots in the eye indicates?

A

Vitamin A deficiency

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17
Q

Bladder or bowel control problem indicates?

A

cauda equina syndrome

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18
Q

Bleeding swollen gums indicates?

A

Scurvy

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19
Q

Blue lips swollen ankles and dyspnea indicates?

A

Chronic bronchitis

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20
Q

Blue sclera and frequent fractures as an infant indicates?

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

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21
Q

Bone pain head enlargement and deafness indicates?

A

Paget’s Disease of bone

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22
Q

Bronze skin cirrhosis and diabetes mellitus indicates?

A

Hemochromatosis

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23
Q

Buffalo hump obesity and purplish abdominal striae indicates?

A

Cushing’s syndrome

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24
Q

Buboes in the groin sign of the groove indicates?

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum

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25
Q

Bull’s eye rash indicates?

A

Lyme disease

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26
Q

Butterfly rash and multiple painful joints in a young female indicates?

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

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27
Q

Cafe-au-lait spots and skin nodules indicates?

A

Neurofibromatosis

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28
Q

Calf pseudohypertrophy and a positive Gower’s sign indicates?

A

Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy

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29
Q

Cape-like distribution of loss of pain indicates?

A

Syringomyelia

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30
Q

Caput Medusa indicates?

A

Cirrhosis with portal hypertension

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31
Q

Carditis chorea polyarthritis and subcutaneous nodules indicates?

A

Rheumatic fever

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32
Q

Casal’s necklace indicates?

A

Pellagra

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33
Q

Cat scratch fever and local lymphadenitis indicates?

A

Cat Scratch Disease

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34
Q

Cauliflower like lesions on the hands or genitals indicates?

A

Human Papilloma Viral Infection

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35
Q

Cherry red spots on the macula indicates?

A

Tay-Sachs disease

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36
Q

Cherry red skin and headaches indicates?

A

Carbon Monoxide poisoning

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37
Q

Chest pain worse on lying down and better while sitting forward indicates?

A

Pericarditis

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38
Q

Chest pain worse with exertion and better with rest indicates?

A

Angina pectoris

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39
Q

Chest pain with sweating and feeling of apprehension indicates?

A

Myocardial Infarction

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40
Q

Chills fever vomiting and costovertebral angle tenderness indicates?

A

Pyelonephritis

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41
Q

Chorea and dementia indicates?

A

Huntington’s disease

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42
Q

Chronic non healing ulcer on ear or nose indicates?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

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43
Q

Cirrhosis and Kayser-Fleisher rings indicates?

A

Wilson’s disease

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44
Q

Clubbing and cyanosis in an infant with heart murmur indicates?

A

Fallot’s tetralogy

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45
Q

Condylomata accuminata indicates?

A

Human Papilloma virus infection

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46
Q

Condylomata lata indicates?

A

Secondary syphilis

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47
Q

Coryza conjunctivitis and “C” oplick spots indicates?

A

Measles

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48
Q

Deep labored breathing with acetone smell on breath indicates?

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis

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49
Q

Dermatitis diarrhea and dementia indicates?

A

Pellagra

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50
Q

Dry eyes mouth and arthritis indicates?

A

Sjogren’s syndrome

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51
Q

Dysphagia glossitis and iron deficiency anemia indicates?

A

Plummer-Vinson syndrome

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52
Q

Dyspepsia worse with eating food indicates?

A

Gastric type of peptic ulcer disease

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53
Q

Elastic skin with hypermobile joints indicates?

A

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

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54
Q

Enlarged nerves and anesthetic hypopigmented rashes indicates?

A

Leprosy

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55
Q

Fair fat female over 40 with abdominal pain indicates?

A

Cholecystitis

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56
Q

Fever cough chest pain in a parrot breeder indicates?

A

Bird fancier’s disease

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57
Q

Fever headache and skin rash on wrist and feet indicates?

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

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58
Q

Fever conjuctivitis coryza and fine rash on trunk indicates?

A

Measles

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59
Q

Fever neck stiffness and headaches indicates?

A

Meningitis

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60
Q

Fever night sweats weight loss cough or hemoptysis indicates?

A

Tuberculosis

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61
Q

Fever maculopapulovesicular rash on trunk indicates?

A

Chickenpox

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62
Q

Frequent urination with burning on micturition

A

Urinary Tract Infection

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63
Q

Frothy urine recurrent infections with normal blood pressure indicates?

A

Nephrotic syndrome

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64
Q

Frothy malodorus vaginal discharge indicates?

A

Trichomonas vaginitis

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65
Q

Galactorrhea and amenorrhea indicates?

A

Prolactinoma

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66
Q

Gumma indicates?

A

Tertiary syphilis

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67
Q

Gottron’s papules and heliotrope eyelids indicates?

A

Dermatomyositis

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68
Q

Gout and self mutilation in a child due to pain insensitivity indicates?

A

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

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69
Q

Haygrath’s nodes indicates?

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

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70
Q

Heartburn that is worse on lying down after meals indicates?

A

Gastro-Esophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)

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71
Q

Heat intolerance fine tremors weight loss or exopthalmos indicates?

A

Hyperthyroidism

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72
Q

Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes indicates?

A

Osteoarthritis

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73
Q

Hematemesis following protracted vomiting or wretching indicates?

A

Mallory Weiss syndrome

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74
Q

Hemoptysis and in a chronic cigarette smoker indicates?

A

Lung cancer

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75
Q

Hemoptysis and hematuria indicates?

A

Goodpasture syndrome

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76
Q

Honey colored crusts on the face near the mouth and nose indicates?

A

Impetigo

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77
Q

Hyperpigmented oral cavity and intestinal polyps indicates?

A

Peutz-Jegher syndrome

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78
Q

Hyperpigmented skin creases bronze skin and fatigue indicates?

A

Addison’s disease

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79
Q

Hypertension hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis indicates?

A

Conn’s disease

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80
Q

Hypertension exopthalmos and goiter indicates?

A

Graves disease

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81
Q

Indurated painless and penile lesion indicates?

A

Primary syphilis

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82
Q

Infant with red hair and swollen abdomen indicates?

A

Kwashiorkor

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83
Q

Infant with microcephaly and rocker-bottom feet indicates?

A

Trisomy 18 (Edwards Syndrome)

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84
Q

Infant with microcephaly and indistinct philtrum indicates?

A

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

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85
Q

Infant with mongoloid eyes and mental retardation indicates?

A

Trisomy 21 (Down Syndrome)

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86
Q

Irregularly irregular breathing indicates?

A

Biot’s respiration

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87
Q

Jaundice chills and fever indicates?

A

Ascending cholangitis

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88
Q

Jaundice ascites and firm non tender hepatomegaly indicates?

A

Cirrhosis

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89
Q

Jaundicee with tender hepatomegaly indicates?

A

Hepatitis

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90
Q

Large spatulate hands protruding jaw indicates?

A

Acromegaly

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91
Q

Loss of outer third of eyebrows and slow reflexes indicates?

A

Hypothroidism

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92
Q

Low back pain bamboo spine in young male adult indicates?

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

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93
Q

Lower abdominal pain and 6-8 weeks of amenorrhea indicates?

A

Ectopic pregnancy

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94
Q

Koilonychia and pale mucous membranes indicates?

A

Iron deficiency anemia

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95
Q

Koplick spots and fever followed by fine maculopaular rash indicates?

A

Measles

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96
Q

Magenta colored tongue indicates?

A

Vitamin B2 deficiency

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97
Q

Male child with recurrent infection and no B cells indicates?

A

Bruton’s disease

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98
Q

Mental retardation large scrotal tongue and umbilical hernia indicates?

A

Down syndrome

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99
Q

Middle aged male smoker with intermittent claudication indicates?

A

Buerger’s disease

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100
Q

Midsystolic click and atypical chest pain indicates?

A

Mitral Valve Prolapse

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101
Q

Mole with irregular margins change in color size indicates?

A

Malignant melanoma

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102
Q

Mucoid urethral discharge in a sexually active male indicates?

A

Chlamydia urethritis

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103
Q

Muscle cramps with a positive Chvostek test indicates?

A

Hypoparathyroidism

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104
Q

Newborn with paralyzed arm after difficult vertex delivery indicates?

A

Erb-Duchenne palsy

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105
Q

Newborn with claw hand after difficult breech delivery indicates?

A

Klumpke’s palsy

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106
Q

Night blindness dry eyes/skin indicates?

A

Vitamin A deficiency

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107
Q

Nocturnal back pain recurrent infections and fatigue indicates?

A

Multiple Myeloma

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108
Q

Obesity hirsuitism and irregular periods indicates?

A

Polycystic Ovarian syndrome

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109
Q

Osler nodes Janeway nodules or Roth spots indicates?

A

Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis

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110
Q

Painful pale cold fingers and toes indicates?

A

Raynaud’s syndrome

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111
Q

Painful fingers and wrists bilaterally with morning stiffness (>1 hr) indicates?

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

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112
Q

Painful hip with a limp in a young child indicates?

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

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113
Q

Painful hip with a limp in an overweight teenager indicates?

A

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis

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114
Q

Painful pulseless pale perishingly cold limb indicates?

A

Arterial embolism

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115
Q

Ohio Valley fever

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

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116
Q

San Joaquin Valley Fever

A

Coccidioides immitis

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117
Q

Spokes of wheel appearance

A

Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

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118
Q

Decaying vegetation

A

aspergillus fumigatus

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119
Q

Wright Giemsa stain

A

Parasites and syphilis

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120
Q

Spread by bat droppings

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

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121
Q

Causes meningitis spread by pigeon poop

A

cryptococcus neoformans

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122
Q

Causes pneumonia in an immune compromised patient

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci (carinii)

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123
Q

Ziehl-Neelsen stain

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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124
Q

Percentage of true positive

A

Sensitivity

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125
Q

Percentage of true negative

A

Specificity

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126
Q

Used to exclude a disease if test is negative ( SnOUT)

A

Sensitivity

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127
Q

Used to include a diagnosis if test is positive ( SpIN)

A

Specificity

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128
Q

Sudden increase in the number with a disease locally

A

Epidemic

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129
Q

Normal occurrence of disease in a particular locally

A

Endemic

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130
Q

Sudden increase in the number with a disease worldwide

A

Pandemic

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131
Q

Number of people with the disease at a given time

A

Incidence

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132
Q

Number of people who have a particular disease

A

Morbidity rate

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133
Q

Number of people who die from a particular disease

A

Mortality rate

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134
Q

Epidemiology or Disease Triangle

A

Host agent (microbe) and environment

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135
Q

Antigenic shift (virus) spores (bacteria/fungus) cysts ( protozoa)

A

Microbial adaptations

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136
Q

Disease that has newly appeared

A

Emerging Disease

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137
Q

Previously known disease that has increased or spread

A

re-emerging disease

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138
Q

Bacteria and fungi form spores and protozoa form cysts

A

Pathogen adaptations to environment

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139
Q

Viral adaptation to the environment and host

A

Antigenic shift

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140
Q

Exposure of milk to progressively higher temperatures

A

Pasteurization

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141
Q

Use of chemicals to destroy most pathogens

A

disinfection

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142
Q

Allows water to pass through pores of different sizes

A

Filtration

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143
Q

Use of aluminum to precipitate material from water

A

Flocculation

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144
Q

Allows the precipitate to settle out

A

Sedimentation

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145
Q

Adds anaerobic bacteria to break down organic matter

A

sludge digestion

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146
Q

Allows water to pass through sand

A

sand filtration

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147
Q

Passes oxygen through to kill anaerobic bacteria

A

aeroation

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148
Q

Addition of chlorine to kill all remaining micro-organisms

A

Chlorination

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149
Q

Anecdotes case study case control cohort study or RCT

A

Hierarchy of evidence

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150
Q

Describes and interprets an individual case

A

Case study

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151
Q

Comparing outcomes of those with and without disease

A

Case Control Study

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152
Q

Follows samples prospectively with respect to disease

A

Cohort study

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153
Q

Random allocation to experimental or control group

A

Randomized Clinical Trial

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154
Q

Combines all outcomes and summarizes the findings

A

Systematic review

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155
Q

Subset of systematic review focused on one conclusion

A

Meta Anaylsis

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156
Q

Inspect meat and milk

A

Department of Agriculture

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157
Q

Drug and cosmetic quality and health product advertisement

A

Food and Drug Administration

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158
Q

Disease surveillance and restaurant inspection

A

Department of Public Health

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159
Q

Monitors Air and Water quality

A

Environmental Protection Agency

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160
Q

Monitors quality of diary products

A

US diary associated

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161
Q

Monitors workplace safety and hazardous material disposal

A

Occupational Safety Health Admin.

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162
Q

Epidemiological research and health stats

A

Centers of Disease Control

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163
Q

Oversees health care to the underserved

A

Health services Administration

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164
Q

Oversees funding for disease research

A

National Institutes of Health

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165
Q

Recent emerging disease spread by infected body fluids

A

Ebola

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166
Q

Spread by the vector lxodes scapularis

A

Lyme disease

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167
Q

Emerging disease spread by body fluids from infected rats

A

Hantavirus infection

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168
Q

Spread by working with infected birds

A

Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome

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169
Q

Spread by working with infected pigs

A

H1N1 influenza

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170
Q

Emerging disease spread by contact with infected camels

A

Middle East Respiratory Syndrome

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171
Q

Kills more people in the USA than AIDs

A

Methicillin Resistant Staph. Aureus

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172
Q

Process in which there is loss of hydrogen electrons

A

Oxidation

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173
Q

Process in which there is a gain of hydrogen electrons

A

Reduction

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174
Q

Replacement of hydrogen by carboxyl group (-COOH)

A

Carboxylation

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175
Q

Substance which speeds up the rate of chemical reactions

A

Enzyme

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176
Q

Inactive precursor protein with an additional peptide attached

A

Pro-enzyme

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177
Q

Enzyme that catalyzes the addition of carboxyl broup

A

Carboxylase

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178
Q

Removal of the carboxyl group (-COOH)

A

Decarboxylation

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179
Q

Reaction that combines H20 with a salt to produce acid and base

A

Hydrolysis

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180
Q

Enzyme that causes hydrolysis

A

Hydrolase

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181
Q

Movement of a phosphate (PO4) from one molecule to another

A

Phosphorylation

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182
Q

Enzyme which adds a phosphate from an organic compound

A

Phosphorylase

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183
Q

Enzyme that removes a phosphate from an organic compound

A

Kinase

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184
Q

Enzyme that catalyzes the transfer of one group to another

A

Transferase

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185
Q

Enzyme that makes an isomer ( same chemical composition)

A

Isomerase

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186
Q

Molecule with the same composition but different chemical structure

A

Isomer

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187
Q

Isomerase enzyme which changes the configuration of a molecule

A

Mutase

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188
Q

Number of Factors that affect enzyme activity

A

Three

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189
Q

Temperature pH and concentration of the substrate

A

Affects enzyme activity

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190
Q

Maximum velocity of a reaction

A

Vmax

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191
Q

Michaelis-Menten constant

A

Kmax

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192
Q

The amount of substrate required to reach 1/2 of the Vmax

A

Kmax

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193
Q

A substance which slows down the rate of an enzyme reaction

A

Inhibitor

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194
Q

Competition and allosterism

A

Enzymatic regulation

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195
Q

Actively competes with substrate for the active site

A

Competition

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196
Q

Changes in activity by acting on a site other than the active site

A

Allosterism

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197
Q

Chemical bond between two amino acids

A

Peptide bond

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198
Q

Chemical bond between the base bases found in DNA

A

Hydrogen bond

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199
Q

Chemical bond between glycerol and fatty acids

A

Ester bonds

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200
Q

Chemical bond between two sugars

A

Glycosidic bond

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201
Q

Chemical bond between nucleotides

A

Phosphodiester

202
Q

Site of all pathways except the Krebs Cycle and 1st half of the Urea Cycle

A

Cytosol

203
Q

Site of Krebs cycle and 1st half of the urea cycle

A

Mitochondria

204
Q

Constituents of Starch

A

Amylose and Amylopectin

205
Q

Long unbranched chains of glucose linked at C1 and C4 ( alpha 14 link)

A

Amylose

206
Q

Fewer branches of glucose with alpha 14 and 1 6 linked branches

A

Amylopectin

207
Q

Comprised of glucose and fructose found in table sugar and fruit

A

sucrose

208
Q

Contains galactose and glucose found in milk ; beta 14 link

A

Lactose

209
Q

Form in which glucose is stored in skeletal muscle and liver

A

glycogen

210
Q

Aldopentose ( 5 carbon) sugar

A

Ribose

211
Q

Ketohexoxe ( 6 Carbon) sugar

A

Fructose

212
Q

Crucial step that controls how fast or slow the pathway goes

A

Rate Limiting Step

213
Q

The most important rate limiting step in glycolysis

A

Phosphofructokinase

214
Q

Steps in glycoylsis at which ATP is used

A

Steps 1 and 3

215
Q

Steps in glycolyis at which ATP is produced

A

Step 7 and 10

216
Q

Step in glycolysis at which NADH is produced

A

Step 6

217
Q

Number of pyruvate molecules produced from one glucose in glycolysis

A

Two

218
Q

Main fate of pyruvate

A

Converted to Acetyl CoA

219
Q

Alternate fates of pyruvate

A

Lactate and Alanine

220
Q

Number of carbon molecules in pyruvate

A

3

221
Q

Number of carbon molecules in acetoacetate

A

2

222
Q

Making glucose from pyruvate lactate glycerol fatty and amino acids

A

Gluconeogenesis

223
Q

Irreversible steps in glycolysis that are replaced in gluconeogenesis

A

Steps 1 3 10

224
Q

Location of gluconeogenesis

A

Mitochondria and cytoplasm

225
Q

Lactate is converted to pyruvate which is converted to glucose

A

Sequence of events

226
Q

Disorderly disorganized neoplastic growth

A

Anaplasia

227
Q

Downey Cells

A

Mononucleosis

228
Q

Dry eyes and dry mouth

A

Sjörgen’s Syndrome

229
Q

Dystrophin defect

A

Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy

230
Q

Eburnation

A

Osteoarthritis

231
Q

Enzymatic necrosis

A

Acute pancreatitis

232
Q

Erythema nodosum

A

Sarcoidosis TB or drug reaction

233
Q

Esophageal metaplasia

A

Barrett’s esophagus

234
Q

Fatty necrosis

A

Liver damage

235
Q

Fawn’s beard

A

Spina bifida occulta

236
Q

Fibrillin defect

A

Marfan’s Syndrome

237
Q

Galactorrhea

A

Prolactinoma

238
Q

Ghon’s focus and complex

A

Primary Tuberculosis

239
Q

Guaneri bodies

A

Smallpox

240
Q

Gumma

A

Tertiary Syphilis

241
Q

Gynestomastia in a tall thin male (XXY)

A

Klinefleter’s Syndrome

242
Q

Heberden’s Nodes

A

Osteoarthritis of the fingers

243
Q

Heliotrope eyelid discoloration and Gottron’s Papules

A

Dermatomyositis

244
Q

Heterophil Antibodies

A

Mononucleosis

245
Q

Hirano’s Bodies

A

Alzheimer’s disease

246
Q

HLA-B8

A

Grave’s Disease

247
Q

HLA-B27

A

Psoriatic Arthritis AS IBD Reiters (RAS)

248
Q

HLA-DR3 or 4

A

DM Type 1 RA and SLE

249
Q

Human Mad Cow Disease

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

250
Q

Hunner’s ulcers in the bladder

A

Interstitial cystitis

251
Q

Hutchinson’s notched central incisors

A

Congenital Syphilis

252
Q

Hypercoaguability venous stasis and vessel wall damage

A

Virchow’s Triad

253
Q

Hyperelasticity of skin and joint capsule

A

Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

254
Q

Hyperpigmented skin creases with fatigue

A

Addison’s disease

255
Q

Immotile cilia with sinusitis bronchiectasis and situs inversus

A

Kartagener’s Syndrome

256
Q

Inappropriate ADH secretion

A

Small cell lung cancer

257
Q

Increased size of tissue or organ

A

Hypertrophy

258
Q

Increased number of cells

A

Hyperplasia

259
Q

Indistinct philtrum

A

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

260
Q

Kayser-Fleisher Rings

A

Wilson’s Disease

261
Q

Kimmelsteil-Wilson Nodular Sclerosis

A

Diabetic Nephropathy

262
Q

Koilonychia and dysphagia in a post-menopausal woman

A

Plummer Vinson Syndrome

263
Q

Langhan’s giant cells

A

Tuberculosis

264
Q

Large Cyst in the posterior cranial fossa

A

Dandy Walker Syndrome

265
Q

Lewy Bodies

A

Parkinson’s disease

266
Q

Libman-Sacks Endocarditis

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

267
Q

Linear esophageal tear after retching

A

Mallory-Weiss Syndrome

268
Q

Lines of Zahn

A

Thrombus

269
Q

Liquefactive necrosis

A

Brain infarction

270
Q

Liver and Brain damage after aspirin ingestion

A

Reye Syndrome

271
Q

L-MYC oncogene

A

Colon Cancer

272
Q

Looser’s zone (pseudo-fracture)

A

Osteomalacia

273
Q

MacCallum’s patch in left atrium

A

Rheumatic Fever

274
Q

Macrocytic Normochromic anemia

A

Folic Acid or Vitamin B12 deficiency

275
Q

Malignant plasma cells

A

Multiple Myeloma

276
Q

Microcytic hypochromic anemia

A

Iron deficiency anemia

277
Q

Minimal change of the basement membrane

A

Nephrotic Syndrome

278
Q

Most common cancer in men

A

Prostate cancer

279
Q

Most common cancer in women

A

Breast Cancer

280
Q

Most common cause of Osteomyelitis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

281
Q

Most common malignant bone tumor

A

Metastasis

282
Q

Most common benign brain tumor

A

Meningioma

283
Q

Most common kidney tumor in children

A

Wilms Tumor

284
Q

Most common malignant brain tumor in adults

A

Glioblastoma Multiforme

285
Q

Most common malignant brain tumor in children

A

Neuroblastoma

286
Q

Most common primary bone cancer in adults

A

Multiple Myeloma

287
Q

Most common primary bone cancer in teens

A

Osteosarcoma

288
Q

Most common skin cancer

A

Basal Cell Carcinoma

289
Q

Most malignant skin cancer

A

Melanoma

290
Q

M spike on serum electrophoresis

A

Multiple Myeloma

291
Q

Multiple cysts in both kidneys in an adult

A

Adult polycystic disease of the kidney

292
Q

Multiple cysts in one kidney in an infant

A

Congenital polycystic disease of the kidney

293
Q

Multiple superficial ulcers in the colon

A

Ulcerative Colitis

294
Q

Needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals

A

Gout (Uric acid crystals)

295
Q

Negri bodies

A

Rabies

296
Q

Neurofibrillary tangles

A

Alzheimer’s disease

297
Q

N-MYC oncogene

A

Neuroblastoma

298
Q

Non-caseous granulomas in the gut

A

Crohn’s disease

299
Q

Non-caseous granulomas in the lung

A

Sarcoidosis

300
Q

Nutmeg liver

A

Congestive Heart Failure

301
Q

Onion-skin periosteal reaction on x-ray

A

Ewing’s Sarcoma

302
Q

Oral pigmentation and intestinal polyps

A

Peutz-Jegher Syndrome

303
Q

Osteophytes

A

Osteoarthritis

304
Q

Owl-eye appearance in lung biopsy

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

305
Q

p16 oncogene

A

Malignant melanoma

306
Q

Pannus formation

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

307
Q

Paroxysms of hypertension palpitations and perspiration

A

Pheochromocytoma

308
Q

Philadelphia Chromosome

A

Chromic Myelogenous Leukemia

309
Q

Pill-rolling tremor and decreased dopamine

A

Parkinson’s disease

310
Q

Post-coital bleeding

A

Carcinoma of the cervix

311
Q

Post-menopausal bleeding

A

Endometrial cancer

312
Q

Prostatic Specific Antigen

A

Prostatic Carcinoma

313
Q

Pseudohypertrophic calf muscles

A

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

314
Q

Pulmonary Stenosis VSD over-riding aorta RVH

A

Fallot’s Tetralogy

315
Q

Pulsatile midline abdominal mass

A

Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

316
Q

Rachitic rosary

A

Vitamin D deficiency in children

317
Q

Red and grey hepatization in the lung

A

Pneumonia

318
Q

Radiofemoral delay

A

Coarctation of the aorta

319
Q

Red blood cell casts in the urine

A

Glomerulonephritis

320
Q

Recurrent peptic ulcers

A

Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

321
Q

Rib notching on chest x-ray

A

Coarctation of the aorta

322
Q

Reed-Sternberg Cells

A

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

323
Q

Rokitansky-Ashoff sinuses

A

Cholecystitis

324
Q

Scanning Speech intention tremor and nystagmus

A

Multiple Sclerosis

325
Q

Sero-Positive (Rheumatoid Factor) arthritis

A

RA and SLE

326
Q

Soap-bubble appearance on x ray

A

Giant cell Tumor

327
Q

Spaghetti and Meatballs appearance

A

Malassezia furfur

328
Q

Splenomegaly and eyethema nodosum

A

Sarcoidosis

329
Q

Splinter Hemorrhages

A

Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis

330
Q

Starry sky appearance in lymph node

A

Burkitt’s Lymphoma

331
Q

Stunted small intestinal villi due to gluten sensitivity

A

Celiac Disease

332
Q

Subchondral sclerosis

A

Osteoarthritis

333
Q

Thymic and parathyroid aplasia

A

DiGeorge Syndrome

334
Q

Thyroglobulin antibodies

A

Hashimoto’s disease

335
Q

Trisomy 21

A

Down’s Syndrome

336
Q

Vanilyl mandelic acid in the urine

A

Pheochromocytoma

337
Q

Virchow’s triad-vessel damage stasis hypercoagulability

A

Deep Vein Thrombosis

338
Q

Vomiting blood after protracted vomiting and retching

A

Mallory-Weiss Syndrome

339
Q

Wallerian Degeneration

A

Nerve Damage

340
Q

Weight loss and Troisier’s sign

A

Gastric carcinoma

341
Q

White blood cell casts in urine

A

Pyelonephritis

342
Q

XO chromosomal disease

A

Turner’s disease

343
Q

Zenker’s degeneration

A

Skeletal Muscle Damage

344
Q

No cell wall no nucleus no ribosome DNA or RNA

A

Virus

345
Q

Peptidoglycan wall single chromosome 70S ribosome

A

Bacteria

346
Q

Chitin wall ergosterol membrane 80S ribosome nucleus

A

Fungus

347
Q

Sterol membrane no chitin wall 80S ribosome nucleus

A

Parasite

348
Q

Ability to cause disease

A

Pathogenicity

349
Q

Ability to cause serious disease

A

Virulence

350
Q

Hospital acquired infection

A

Nosocomial

351
Q

Part of the normal flora

A

Commensal

352
Q

Ability of two dissimilar living together

A

Symbiosis

353
Q

Both organisms need each other to function

A

Synergism

354
Q

Lag Log Stationary and Death

A

Bacterial growth phases

355
Q

Phase of exponential growth

A

Log Phase

356
Q

Heat irradiation antimicrobial chemicals antibiotics

A

Factors which affect bacterial growth

357
Q

Host agent and environment

A

Disease Triangle

358
Q

All viruses are RNA except 7 HHHAPPPy ones which are

A

DNA

359
Q

3 DNA viruses are enveloped

A

HepaDNA Herpes and Pox

360
Q

3 DNA viruses are naked

A

Papilloma Adeno and Polyoma

361
Q

1 DNA virus that is single stranded

A

Parvo B19

362
Q

All RNA viruses are single stranded EXCEPT

A

Rota Virus of the REO virus family

363
Q

All RNA single stranded viruses are + EXCEPT 6

A

6 FABulous PROfessionals

364
Q

Paramyxo Rhabdo Orthomyxo Filo Arena Bunya

A

Negative sense RNA viruses

365
Q

All hepatitis viruses are RNA EXCEPT

A

Hepatitis B (hepaDNA group)

366
Q

All hepatitis viruses are spread by the orofecal route EXCEPT

A

Hepatitis B and C (sex and blood)

367
Q

Single stranded retrovirus

A

Human Immune Deficiency Virus

368
Q

All ARBO viruses are flavi viruses EXCEPT

A

Calfornia encephalitis (Bunya virus)

369
Q

Parotitis pancreatitis and painful orchitis

A

Paramyxovirus

370
Q

Common cold with runny nose and sore throat

A

Corona virus

371
Q

Hand foot and mouth lesions

A

Coxsackie virus

372
Q

Bacteria without cell walls

A

Mycoplasma

373
Q

Obligate intracellular parasites

A

Chlamydia Rickettsiae Coxiella

374
Q

Flexible Bacteria

A

Borellia Leptospira and Treponema

375
Q

Gram stain resistant bacillus-Ziehl Neelsen staining

A

Mycobacterium

376
Q

Infection in bird keepers

A

Chlamydia psittaci

377
Q

Most common preventable cause of blindness in Africa

A

Chlamydia trachomatis types A B and C

378
Q

Conjunctivitis Urethritis and Arthritis

A

Chlamydia trachomatis types D-K

379
Q

Sign of the groove

A

Chlamydia trachomatis type L

380
Q

Q fever

A

Coxiella burnetti

381
Q

Long start tick

A

Ehrlichia chaffeensis

382
Q

Hemorrhagic disease spread by urine from infected rats

A

Leptospira interogans

383
Q

Painless hard penile ulcer

A

Syphilis

384
Q

Lung infection in wool sorters

A

Bacillus anthracis

385
Q

Rheumatic Fever and glomerulonephritis

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

386
Q

Infects previously damaged heart valves

A

Streptococcus viridans

387
Q

Infects previously healthy heart valves

A

Staphylococcus aureus

388
Q

Lockjaw (trismus)

A

Clostridium tetani

389
Q

Transmitted by contaminated honey and causes paralysis

A

Clostridium botulinum

390
Q

Muscle necrosis with gas formation

A

Clostridium perfringens

391
Q

Grey pseudomembrane in the throat

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

392
Q

Paroxysmal bouts of coughing with a whoop in a child

A

Bordetella pertussis

393
Q

Fever from handling infected rabbit skin

A

Francisella tularensis

394
Q

Lung infection from infer air conditioners

A

Legionella pneumophila

395
Q

Infected burns with blue green burns

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

396
Q

Gram negative coccus which ferments glucose

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

397
Q

Gram negative coccus which ferments maltose

A

Neisseria meningitidis

398
Q

Causes server diarrhea with rice water stool

A

Vibrio cholera

399
Q

Causes peptic ulcer and some forms of stomach cancer

A

Helicobacter pylori

400
Q

Vitamin deficiency which results in excess lactic acid production?

A

Biotin deficiency

401
Q

Rate limiting step in gluconeogenesis?

A

F1 6 biophosphatase

402
Q

Hormone which inhibits glueconeogenisis?

A

Insulin

403
Q

Location of Krebs cycle?

A

Mitochondrial matrix

404
Q

Steps in the Krebs cycle at which NADH is produced?

A

Steps 3+4+7

405
Q

Type of enzyme which facilitates the production of NADH

A

Dehydrogenase

406
Q

Destination of the energy harvested from the Krebs cycle?

A

Electron transport chain

407
Q

Number of ATP’s generated from 1 NADH?

A

3 ATP

408
Q

Number of ATP’s generated from 1 FADH2?

A

2 ATP

409
Q

Number of NADH FAHD2 and GTP generated by one Krebs cycle?

A

3 NADH 1 FADH2 and 1 GTP

410
Q

Number of Krebs cycles to completely break down 1 glucose?

A

2

411
Q

Number of ATP produced from breakdown of one glucose in glycolysis?

A

4 ATP

412
Q

Number of NADH produced from one glucose in glycolysis?

A

2 NADH

413
Q

Net ATP gain from one glucose in glycolysis?

A

2 ATP

414
Q

Number of NADH produced by converting pyruvate to acetyl CoA?

A

1

415
Q

Total ATP generated by the breakdown of one molecule of glucose?

A

38 ATP

416
Q

Alternate fule types for the krebs cycle?

A

proteins and fat

417
Q

Succinyl CoA Oxaloacetate Fumerate and Alpha-ketogluterate are sights where protein ____?

A

Enter

418
Q

Alpha-ketogluterate and Succinyl CoA are sights at which Fat ____?

A

Enter

419
Q

Location of Electron transport chain?

A

Inner mitochondrial membrane

420
Q

Role of electron transport chain?

A

Transfer of electrons to O2

421
Q

Compound which has both reduced and oxidized forms of a molecule?

A

Redox pair

422
Q

NAD [oxidized] and NADH [reduced] are examples of

A

Redox pairs

423
Q

Drop off point for NADH in the Electron Transport Chain?

A

Complex 1

424
Q

Drop off point for FADH2 in the electron transport chain?

A

Complex 2

425
Q

Alternate name for Co Q10?

A

Ubiquinone

426
Q

Heme containing compounds that receive electrons from CoQH2

A

Cytochromes

427
Q

ETC complexes involving cytochromes?

A

Complex 3 and 4

428
Q

ETC complexs involving phosphorylation

A

complex 5

429
Q

Other metal which is important to the electron transport chain?

A

copper

430
Q

Cycle used to prevent lactic acidosis [lactic acid buildup]?

A

Cori cycle

431
Q

Purpose of the Hexose MonoPhysphate shunt?

A

Produces NADPH and Ribose

432
Q

Location of the pentose phosphate pathway [aka HMP shunt]

A

Cytosol

433
Q

Rate limiting enzyme in the pentose phosphate pathway?

A

G63p dehydrogenase

434
Q

Sight of glycogen metabolism?

A

cytosol

435
Q

Starter of primer molecule for glycogen synthesis?

A

Glycogenin

436
Q

Compound containing a 5 carbon and 6 carbon sugar in glycogenesis?

A

Uridine DiPhospho-Glucose

437
Q

Rate limiting enzyme used to lengthen the glycogen chain?

A

Glycogen Synthase

438
Q

Type of chemical bonds between glucose molecules: alpha 14 and alpha 16 links

A

Glycosidic bonds

439
Q

Tate Limiting enzyme in glycogenolysis activated by ATP?

A

Glycogen phosphorylase

440
Q

Sites for glycogenolysis?

A

Heart liver and muscle

441
Q

Name of enzyme that changes G1P to G6P

A

Phosphoglucomutase

442
Q

Group consisting of Carbon with Oxygen and a hydroxyl attached?

A

Carboxyl group

443
Q

One with no double bonds between the carbon atoms [C-C]

A

Saturated fatty acid

444
Q

One with one or more double bonds between the carbon atoms?

A

unsaturated fatty acid

445
Q

Linoleic acid [vegetable oil omega-6] and linolenic acid [fish oil - omega 3]

A

Essential fatty acids

446
Q

Mono- unsaturated fatty acids [MUFA] - 18:1 (9)

A

Linoleic acid

447
Q

Polyunsaturated Fatty acid 18;2(912) oleic acid

A

oleic acid

448
Q

Plyunsaturated Fatty acid - 20:4 (581114)

A

Arachidonic acid

449
Q

Location of lipolysis?

A

Mitochondria

450
Q

Site of lipogenesis?

A

Cytosol

451
Q

Rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis and target for statins?

A

HMG CoA reductase

452
Q

Starting point for steroid hormone synthesis

A

Cholesterol

453
Q

Phe Val The Trp Lle Met [His and Arg during pregnancy] Leu and lys are?

A

Essential amino acids

454
Q

Asn Gly Glu Cys Ala Pro Ser Try Asp and Gln are?

A

non-Essentail amino acids

455
Q

Proline [Pro]

A

Cyclic amino acid

456
Q

Pheylalanine [phe] Tyrosine [Try] and Tryptophan [Trp]

A

Aromatic amino acids

457
Q

Histidine [His} arginine [Arg] and Lysine [Lys]

A

basic amino acids

458
Q

Asparagine [Asn] Aspartate [Asp] Glutamin [Gln] and Glutamate [Glu]

A

Acid amino acids

459
Q

Cysteine [Cys] Methionine [Met} Serine [Ser] and Threonine [Thr]

A

Sulfer-containing amino acids

460
Q

Alanine [Ala] Glycine [Gly] Isoleueucine [Ile] Leucine [Leu] Valine [Val]

A

Aliphatic amino acids

461
Q

Removal of the amine NH2 group?

A

Deamination

462
Q

Source of nitrogen for the urea cycle?

A

Glutamate and alanine

463
Q

Substrates for urea formation?

A

NH3 and CO2

464
Q

Location of the urea cycle?

A

Mitochondrion then cytosol

465
Q

Rate Limiting enzyme in the urea cycle?

A

Carbamoyl PO4 synthase

466
Q

Purine or Pyrimidine base PLUS pentose [5-carbon] Sugar

A

Nucleoside

467
Q

Purine or Pyrimidine base PLUS pentose sugar and phosphate?

A

Nucleotide

468
Q

Adenine and Guanine; used to make nucleosides and nucleotides??

A

Purine bases

469
Q

Cytosine Uracil Thymine; used to make nucleosides and nucleotides?

A

Pyrimidine bases

470
Q

Adenine and Thymine; Cytosine and Guanine; Adenine and Uracil?

A

Base Pairs

471
Q

Nucleoside formed by combining uracil and d-Ribose?

A

Uridine

472
Q

Enzyme which converts xanthine into uric acid

A

Xanthine oxidase

473
Q

Process by which RNA template for protein synthesis is made from DNA?

A

Transcription

474
Q

Process by which RNA codon begins to make an protein?

A

Translation

475
Q

Arginine is made from which amino acid?

A

Glutamine

476
Q

Glutamine arginine and proline are all made from which amino acid?

A

Glutamate

477
Q

Glutamate is made from which amino acid?

A

alpha-Ketoglutarate

478
Q

Asparagine is made from which amino acid?

A

Aspartate

479
Q

Aspartate is derived from which amino acid?

A

Oxaloacetate transamination

480
Q

Water soluble bitamins?

A

B and C

481
Q

Fat soluble vitamins?

A

D A K and E

482
Q

Anti-oxidants

A

Vitamins A C E and selenium

483
Q

Used to make rhodopsin helps in the differentiation of epithelial tissue?

A

Vitamin A

484
Q

Used in carboxylation of glutamate residue in making clotting factors?

A

Vitamin K

485
Q

Powerful antioxidant which mops free radicals; lipid antioxidant?

A

Vitamin E

486
Q

Cofactor in pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase?

A

Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)

487
Q

Precursor for FMN FAD and FADH2 in the ETC and Redox reactions?

A

Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)

488
Q

Precursor for NAD and NADP in the electron transport chain?

A

Vitamin B3 (Niacin)

489
Q

Precursor for removal of CO2 (decarboxylase) in the Krebs cycle?

A

Vitamin B3 (Niacin)

490
Q

Acyl carrier as part of Coenzyme A; Pantene Pro V (V=5)

A

Bitamin B5 (Pantothenic acid)

491
Q

Cofactor for several transaminase reactions?

A

Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxin)

492
Q

Used in carboxylation reactions?

A

Vitamin B7 (biotin)

493
Q

Used in reactions involving malonyl and Methylmalonyl CoA?

A

Vitamin B7 (Biotin)

494
Q

Used in the transfer of 1-Carbon units and makes Methionine and Purines?

A

Vitamin B9 (Folic acid)

495
Q

Cofactors for methionine and Succinyl CoA Manufacture?

A

Vitamin B12 (cobalmin)

496
Q

Cofactor in hydroxylation in the synthesis of collagen?

A

Vitamin C (ascorbic acid)

497
Q

Necessary in the electron transport chain and found in prunes?

A

copper

498
Q

Cofactor of carbonic anhydrase found in seafood meat and whole grain?

A

Zinc

499
Q

Forms complexes with ATP and found abundantly in nuts?

A

Magnesium

500
Q

Helps with glucose transport into cells and found in oysters?

A

Chromium

Chiropractic Board Exam 1 Prep (1 decks)

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