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Pathology Board Review: Part 1 > Chiro Board Review App > Flashcards

Chiro Board Review App Flashcards

1
Q

A cancer that has not invaded the basement membrane or the tissue of origin is called?

  1. Leukoplakia
  2. Medullary carcinoma
  3. Carcinoma in situ
  4. Broader’s grade 1
A

Carcinoma in Situ

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2
Q

A deficiency in which of the following trace elements results in tetomy similar to that which accompanies hypocalcemia?

  1. Magnesium
  2. Zinc
  3. Copper
  4. Iron
A

Magnesium

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3
Q

A deficiency of Vitamin C most often effects?

  1. Hemopoietic tissue
  2. Muscles
  3. Nerves
  4. Connective tissue
A

Connective Tissue

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4
Q

A patient with a yolk cell tumor of the testes likely has an elevated blood serum?

  1. Erythropoietin
  2. Alpha-fetaprotein
  3. Carcinoembryonic antigen
  4. Calcium
A

Alpha-Fetaprotein

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5
Q

A small cystic projection from a joint capsule or tendon sheath usually on the wrist is called?

  1. Synovial sarcoma
  2. Nodule
  3. Ganglion
  4. Epidermoid cyst
A

Ganglion

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6
Q

A young male from central Africa has a rapidly expanding mass in the area of the jaw. What could be the cause?

  1. Melanoma
  2. Keratoacanthoma
  3. Squamous cell carcinoma
  4. Burketts lymphoma
A

Burketts Lymphoma

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7
Q

Acromegaly and gigantism result from an increase in which of the following?

  1. Somatropin
  2. TSH
  3. Histamine
  4. Parathormone
A

Somatropin

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8
Q

Almost all pathological changes of systemic lupus erythematosus involve which of the following?

  1. Increased cytotoxins
  2. Increased IgG
  3. Famma
  4. Increased immune cells
A

Increased Immune Cells

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9
Q

Antibody synthesis is a primary function of?

  1. Monocytes
  2. Plasma cells
  3. Basophils
  4. Neutrophils
A

Plasma Cells

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10
Q

Carcinoma is least likely to metastasize in the _____?

  1. Skeletal muscle
  2. Vertebra
  3. Liver
  4. Lungs
A

Lungs

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11
Q

Cardiac tamponade is defined as?

  1. Increased fluid in veins
  2. Aortic stenosis
  3. Exess fluid in capillaries
  4. Fluid in pericardial space
A

Fluid in Pericardial Space

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12
Q

Chronic passive congestion of the liver is typically seen in which of the following conditions?

  1. Left heart failure
  2. Myocardial infarction
  3. Hypertension
  4. Right heart failure
A

Right Heart Failure

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13
Q

Circulatory level of which cell increase in an acute inflammatory response caused by bacterial infection?

  1. Eosinophil
  2. Basophils
  3. Neutrophils
  4. Lymphocytic
A

Neutrophils

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14
Q

Coccidiodomycosis most commonly affects which of the following organs?

  1. Heart
  2. Lung
  3. Intestine
  4. Skin
A

Lung

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15
Q

Cretinism is caused by?

  1. Hyperthyroidism
  2. Hyperparathyroidism
  3. Hypothyroidism
  4. Goiter
A

Hypothyroidism

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16
Q

Dilation of the inner mammary and subscapular arteries, hypertension and weakness of the upper limbs with decreased lower limb pulse occurs in which of the following?

  1. Twisting of the aorta
  2. Patent ductus arteriosus
  3. Coarctation of the aorta
  4. Aortic insufficiency
A

Coarctation of the Aorta

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17
Q

Dry eyes and mouth with the symptoms of an autoimmune disease are characteritic of?

  1. Scleoderma
  2. Reiter’s syndrome
  3. Sjogren’s syndrome
  4. Rheumatoid arthritis
A

Sjogren’s Syndrome

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18
Q

Epidural hemorrhage most likely results from laceration of which of the following arteries?

  1. Middle meningeal artery
  2. Superficial temporal
  3. Internal carotid
  4. Middle cerebral
A

Middle Meningeal Artery

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19
Q

Fatty liver, edema and atrophy of the small bowel are charateristics in which of the following?

  1. Kwashiokor
  2. Pellagra
  3. Marasmus
  4. Riboflavin deficiency
A

Kwashiokor

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20
Q

Generalized muscle weakness, poor intestinal tonus and resultant bloating, heart abnormalities and weakness of respiratory muscles characterizes which of the following deficiencies?

  1. Magnesium
  2. Calcium
  3. Potassium
  4. Chloride
A

Calcium

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21
Q

Giant cell arthritis primarily affects the?

  1. Muscular arteries
  2. Occipital arteries
  3. Abdominal arteries
  4. Temporal artery
A

Temporal Artery

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22
Q

Hemorrhage in the reticular formation of the brain is a likely to result in?

  1. Anosmia
  2. Aphasia
  3. Coma
  4. Blindness
A

Coma

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23
Q

Hyperglycemia, obesity and osteopenia are characteristic of?

  1. Hyperparathyroidism
  2. Hypercortisolism
  3. Hyperaldsteronism
  4. Diabetes mellitus
A

Hypercortisolism

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24
Q

In most types of allergic injuries the immediate transient phase of vascular permeability is mediated by which of the following?

  1. Anaphylatoxin
  2. Histamine
  3. The Hoffman factor
  4. Complement
A

Histamine

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25
Q

In which of the the following muscle disorders is pseudohypertrophy most common?

  1. Myasthenia gravis
  2. Beckers dystrophy
  3. Myotonic dystrophy
  4. Duchenne’s dystrophy
A

Duchenne’s Dystrophy

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26
Q

Increased secretion from anterior pituitary following closure of the epiphyseal plates could produce?

  1. Paget’s disease
  2. Gigantism
  3. Cretinism
  4. Acromegaly
A

Acromegaly

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27
Q

Intracranial calcification occurs most commonly in?

  1. Ependymoma
  2. Oligodendroglioma
  3. Medulloblastoma
  4. Astrocytoma
A

Oligodendroglioma

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28
Q

Ischmic necrosis as a consequence of cardiac muscle damage is which type of necrosis?

  1. Coagulaton
  2. Liquefaction
  3. Enzymatic
  4. Caseous
A

Coagulation

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29
Q

Kaposis sarcoma occurs in 1/3 of patients with?

  1. Dermatitis
  2. AIDS
  3. Tuberculosis
  4. Lupus erythematosus
A

AIDS

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30
Q

Loss of braking skills, the lack of ability to stop forward movement of the hand when reaching for something results from blockage of?

  1. Brainstem
  2. Cerebellum
  3. Cortex
  4. Medulla
A

Cerebellum

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31
Q

Mask-like face, claw-like fingers, hypertension and fibrosis of the esophagus are characteristic of which of the following diseases?

  1. Scleroderma
  2. Systemic lupus
  3. Rheumatoid
  4. Raynaud’s disease
A

Scleroderma

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32
Q

Mature cells of atypical size, shape and organization are characteristic of?

  1. Cancer
  2. Anaplasia
  3. Dysplasia
  4. Metaplasia
A

Dysplasia

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33
Q

Neonatal hyaline membrane disorder is die to?

  1. Abnormal elastic swelling
  2. Presence of fluid in alveoli
  3. Absene of surfactant
  4. Aspiration of fluid
A

Absence of Surfactant

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34
Q

Pannus formation is characterized in te pathogenesis of?

  1. Rheumatic fever
  2. Osteoarthritis
  3. Rheumatoid arthritis
  4. Gout
A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

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35
Q

Patchy consolidation of the lungs is characteristic of?

  1. Bronchial asthma
  2. Emphysema
  3. Bronchitis
  4. Bronchopneumonia
A

Bronchopneumonia

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36
Q

Patients with asbestos are predisposed to?

  1. Aspergillosis
  2. Embolism
  3. Tuberculosis
  4. Mesothelioma
A

Mesothelioma

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37
Q

Pitting edema is typically caused by which of the following?

  1. Cirrosis of the liver
  2. Hyperthyroidism
  3. Myxedema
  4. Congestive heart failure
A

Congestive Heart Failure

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38
Q

Pyknosis is characterized by nuclear _____?

  1. Fragmentation
  2. Desecration
  3. Condensation
  4. Dissolution
A

Condensation

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39
Q

Release of histamine into the skin following cutaneous trauma causes?

  1. Vasoconstricton causes blanching
  2. Granulomatous increase of mast cells
  3. Extracellular fluid filled capillaries
  4. Vasodilation of arterioles causing redness
A

Vasodilation of Arterioles Causing Redness

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40
Q

Serum sickness is an example of?

  1. T-cell mediated complex
  2. Delayed immunity
  3. Antibody antigen mediated complex
  4. Immune complex
A

Immune Complex

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41
Q

Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord is due to which of the following?

  1. Megaloblastic anemia
  2. Folic acid
  3. Carcinoma
  4. Thiamine
A

Megaloblastic Anemia

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42
Q

Subacute panencephalitis is a rare sequal to?

  1. Chicken pox
  2. Mumps
  3. Herpes simplex
  4. Measles
A

Measles

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43
Q

Subluxation or the lens, laxity of ligaments and cystic medial necrosis of the aorta are characteristic of which of the following?

  1. Marfan’s syndrome
  2. Von Recklinghausen syndome
  3. Systemic lupus
  4. Alkaptonuria
A

Marfan’s Syndrome

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44
Q

Synovial thickening and secondary inflammation with edema but no pannus formation is seen in which of the following?

  1. TB arthritis
  2. Raccoon bite
  3. Osteoarthritis
  4. Gouty arthritis
A

Gouty Arthritis

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45
Q

Tensile stretch is proteinaceous deposition of what in wound healing?

  1. Collagen
  2. Reticulin
  3. Amine
  4. Vitamin C
A

Collagen

46
Q

The atheromatous calcification of the aorta that occurs with normal serum Ca2+ levels?

  1. Metastatic calcification
  2. Dystrophic calcification
  3. Enzymatic fat necrosis
  4. Lipodystrophy
A

Metastatic Calcification

47
Q

The disease most likely to cause secondary orchitis in a post-puberty male is?

  1. Measles
  2. Chicken pox
  3. Mumps
  4. German measles
A

Mumps

48
Q

The genetic defect of the conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine in the liver results in?

  1. Decreased prothrombin time
  2. Mental retardation
  3. Agammaglobulinemia
  4. Increased SGPT
A

Mental Retardation

49
Q

The most common malignant tumor of the large intestine is?

  1. Adenocarcinoma
  2. Cancroid
  3. Squamous cell carcinoma
  4. Lymphoma
A

Adenocarcinoma

50
Q

The most common site of cardiac valvular regurgitation are which valves?

  1. Mitral and tricuspid
  2. Aortic and pulmonary
  3. Mitral and aortic
  4. Tricuspid and aortic
A

Mitral and Aortic

51
Q

The most threatening characteristic Guillian-Barre syndrome affects what muscle?

  1. Gastric
  2. Respiratory
  3. Myocardial
  4. Smooth
A

Respiratory

52
Q

The neoplasm found in AIDS patients is?

  1. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
  2. Wilms tumor in kidney effecting children
  3. Karposi sarcoma
  4. Melanoma
A

Karposi Sarcoma

53
Q

The Philidelphia chromosome is a risk factor for which leukemia?

  1. Acute myelocytic
  2. Chronic myelocytic
  3. Acute lymphocytic
  4. Chronic lymphocytic
A

Chronic Myelocytic

54
Q

The primary biochemical requirement for the clinical diagnosis of gout in the blood is?

  1. Phosphorus
  2. Calcium
  3. Alcohol
  4. Uric acid
A

Uric Acid

55
Q

The substrate of a fully differentiated cell type to another is known as?

  1. Dysplasia
  2. Anaplasia
  3. Metaplasia
  4. Hyperplasia
A

Metaplasia

56
Q

Thrombosis and embolism of which of the following vessels can cause a transmural infarction of the small intestine?

  1. Superior mesenteric vein
  2. Inferior mesenteric vein
  3. Superior mesenteric artery
  4. Inferior mesenteric artery
A

Superior Mesenteric Artery

57
Q

Toxic megacolon is a complication of?

  1. Ulceratice colitis
  2. Ischemic colitis
  3. Granulomatous colitis
  4. Regional enteritis
A

Ulcerative Colitis

58
Q

Tuberculosis of the spine is an AKA for?

  1. Lyme’s disease
  2. Potts disease
  3. Stills disease
  4. Ankylosing spondylitis
A

Pott’s Disease

59
Q

Vascular tumors originate in which cell type?

  1. Fibrinogen
  2. Endothelial
  3. Histocyte
  4. Macrophages
A

Endothelial

60
Q

Wernecke-Korsakoff syndrome is caused by chronic alcoholism due to deficiency of which of the following?

  1. Vitamin C
  2. Vitamin B1
  3. Vitamin B2
  4. Vitamin B3
A

Vitamin B1

61
Q

What causes hoarsness associated with carcinoma in the apex of the lung?

  1. Increased sputum
  2. Metastasis of the speech area
  3. Esophageal atresia
  4. Laryngeal nerve damage
A

Laryngeal Nerve Damage

62
Q

What is the functional vasospastic disorder which affects small arteries and arterioles of the extremities?

  1. Buerger’s disease
  2. Raynaud’s disease
  3. Thrombophlebitis
  4. Dyspnea
A

Raynaud’s Disease

63
Q

What is the mechanism by which the herpes stays in the body long after the infection?

  1. Compromise lymphocytes
  2. Sequestering of the virus genome in the sensory neuron
  3. Replicates in spleen and liver
  4. None of the above
A

Sequestering of the virus genome in the sensory neuron

64
Q

What is the result in the cell as a consequence of thyroid goiter?

  1. Hyperplasia
  2. Metaplasia
  3. Dysplasia
  4. Anaplasia
A

Hyperplasia

65
Q

What type of collagen is found 1st or earliest?

  1. Type 1
  2. Type 2
  3. Type 3
  4. Type 4
A

Type 3

66
Q

What type of deficiency is delayed hypersensitivity?

  1. Type 1
  2. Type 2
  3. Type 3
  4. Type 4
A

Type 4

67
Q

When there is degeneration of the lateral cells which of the following is affected?

  1. Vibration sense
  2. Autonomic function
  3. Temperature sensation
  4. Motor skill
A

Autonomic Function

68
Q

Where would the initial symptoms of myasthenia gravis be observed?

  1. Calf
  2. Thigh
  3. Arms
  4. Extraocular
A

Extraocular

69
Q

Which cell is increased in viral infections?

  1. Monocytes
  2. Eosinophils
  3. Lymphocytes
  4. Neutrophils
A

Lymphocytes

70
Q

Which characteristic is least suggestive of a malignancy in a growing tumor?

  1. Local lymphocytic enlargement
  2. Fiberous capsule
  3. Circumferential erosion
  4. Anaplasia
A

Fiberous Capsule

71
Q

Which is not characterized by a granulomatous inflammation?

  1. Sarcoidosis
  2. Candidiasis
  3. Tuberculosis
  4. Actinomycosis
A

Candidiasis

72
Q

Which is the most common benign tumor of the spine?

  1. Osteochondroma
  2. Osteoma
  3. Hemangioma
  4. Enchondroma
A

Hemangioma

73
Q

Which joints are affected by Heberden’s nodes?

  1. Interphalangeal
  2. Knee
  3. Intervertebral
  4. Ankle
A

Interphalangeal

74
Q

Which of the following affects the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia and results in resting tremors?

  1. Huntington’s disease
  2. Myasthenia gravis
  3. Alzheimer’s
  4. Parkinson’s disease
A

Parkinson’s Disease

75
Q

Which of the following causes hypoxia without ischemia?

  1. Embolism
  2. Thrombosis
  3. Anemia
  4. Arterial compression
A

Anemia

76
Q

Which of the following causes localized edema and accompanies filariasis?

  1. Lymphatic obstruction
  2. Decreased osmotic pressure
  3. Increased hydrostatic pressure
  4. Increased venous pressure
A

Lymphatic Obstruction

77
Q

Which of the following conditions is characterized by calcification of the temporal artery?

  1. Arteriosclerosis
  2. Atherosclerosis
  3. Giant cell arteritis
  4. None of the above
A

Giant Cell Arteritis

78
Q

Which of the following conditions is characterized by congenital absence or parasympathetic ganglia in the colon subsequent constipation and dilation of the colon?

  1. Chagas disease
  2. Merkel’s diverticulum
  3. Horner’s syndrome
  4. Hirschsprung’s disease
A

Hirschsprung’s Disease

79
Q

Which of the following conditions is characterized by T-cell deficiency due to lack of development of 3 and 4 pharyngeal pouches, deficiency of heart great vessels, mouth and ears?

  1. Wishcott Aldrich
  2. B-cells
  3. Improper clothing
  4. T-helper
A

T-Helper

80
Q

Which of the following conditions is characterized by the presence of a 45x karyotype?

  1. Turner’s syndrome
  2. Kleinfelter’s syndrome
  3. Down’s syndrome
  4. Edward’s syndrome
A

Turner’s Syndrome

81
Q

Which of the following conditions is probably present if upon palpation the median groove of the prostate cannot be palpated?

  1. Granulomatous prostate
  2. Prostatitis
  3. Benign prostatic hypertrophy
  4. Prostate carcinoma
A

Prostate Carcinoma

82
Q

Which of the following develops from an IgE mediated immune reaction?

  1. Pernicious anemia
  2. Tuberculosis
  3. Panacinar emphysema
  4. Acute gastritis
A

Panacinar Emphysema

83
Q

Which of the following diseases produce symptoms due to primarily to demyelination of peripheral motor nerve axons?

  1. Post-infectious polyradicuopathy
  2. Myasthenia gravis
  3. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
  4. Multiple sclerosis
A

Post-Infectious Polyradiculopathy

84
Q

Which of the following is a genetic defect that causes multiple neuromas?

  1. Wilson’s dease
  2. Marfan’s disease
  3. Edward’s disease
  4. Von Recklinghausen’s disease
A

Von Recklinghausen’s Disease

85
Q

Which of the following is a localized area of tissue necrosis resulting from an immunologically induced necrotizing vasculitis?

  1. Serum sickness
  2. Tuberculin reaction
  3. Type 3 hypersensitivity
  4. Anaplasia
A

Type 3 Hypersensitivity

86
Q

Which of the following is a periosteal encasement of necrotic tissue?

  1. Involcrum
  2. Cloaca
  3. Limbus
  4. Sequestration
A

Sequestrum

87
Q

Which of the following is a primary immunodeficiency?

  1. Hashimotos thyroiditis
  2. Myasthenia gravis
  3. AIDS
  4. Burtons agammaglobulimia
A

Burton’s Agammaglobulimia

88
Q

Which of the following is a systemic immune complex reaction?

  1. Food allergy
  2. Incomplete blood transfusion
  3. Rheumatoid arthritis
  4. Poison oak
A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

89
Q

Which of the following is an autosomal glucocerebral disease with hepatosplenomegaly?

  1. Gauchers
  2. Lyme disease
  3. Marfans
  4. Kleinfelters
A

Gauchers

90
Q

Which of the following is characterized by recanalization?

  1. Aneurysm
  2. Fistulas
  3. Sinuses
  4. Thrombus
A

Thrombus

91
Q

Which of the following is classified as a benign neoplasm?

  1. Sarcoma
  2. Lymphoma and Melanoma
  3. Lipoma
  4. Carcinoma
A

Lipoma

92
Q

Which of the following is not caused by pneumococcus?

  1. Lobar pneumonia
  2. Atpical pneumonia
  3. Bronchopneumonia
  4. Bronchitis
A

Atypical Pneumonia

93
Q

Which of the following is pseudohypertrophic most common in?

  1. Myotonic dystrophy
  2. Duchenne’s dystrophy
  3. Mysathenia gravis
  4. Beckers dystrophy
A

Duchenne’s Dystrophy

94
Q

Which of the following is responsible for post-infectious glomerulonephritis?

  1. Staphylococcus streptococcus
  2. Group D staphylococcus
  3. Staph aureus
  4. Beta-hemolytic strep
A

Beta-Hemolytic Streptococcus

95
Q

Which of the following is the most common degenerative disease of the joints?

  1. Gouty arthritis
  2. Migratory polyarthritis
  3. Osteoarthritis
  4. Rheumatoid arthritis
A

Osteoarthritis

96
Q

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for an infant who develops projectile vomiting within the 1st week of life?

  1. Achlasia
  2. Zenker’s diverticulitis
  3. Pyloric stenosis
  4. Merkels diverticulitis
A

Pyloric Stenosis

97
Q

Which of the following is the primary mechanism of inflammatory edema?

  1. Increased permeability of capillary wall
  2. Capillary obstruction
  3. Increased colloid osmotic pressure
  4. Lymphatic obstruction
A

Increased Permeability of Capillary Wall

98
Q

Which of the following is the type of cell which is predominantly produced by inflammatory response to a Salmonella infection?

  1. Neutrophils
  2. Mononuclear
  3. Plasmocyte
  4. Eosinophils
A

Neutrophils

99
Q

Which of the following occurs in a keloid?

  1. Benign tumor
  2. Early granulomatous disease
  3. Response to wound healing
  4. Hypertrophic enlargement of scar tissue
A

Hypertrophic Enlargement of Scar Tissue

100
Q

Which of the following procedures exudative lesions caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis and contains caseous?

  1. Ghon lesion
  2. Guarnieri bodies
  3. Brodie’s abscess
  4. Aschoff bodies
A

Ghon Lesion

101
Q

Which of the following results from hyperparathyroidism?

  1. Increased metabolism
  2. Increased cortical sclerosing
  3. Increased weight loss
  4. Osteopenia
A

Osteopenia

102
Q

Which of the following secrete both heparin and histamine?

  1. Eosinophils
  2. Monocytes
  3. Mast cells
  4. Plasma cells
A

Mast Cells

103
Q

Which of the following substances is produced in the cells and increases inflammation due to tissue damage?

  1. Leukotriene
  2. Thrombus
  3. Prostaglandins
  4. Histamine
A

Histamine

104
Q

Which of the following syndromes is a form of polyposis characterized by polyps in the intrinsic GI tract?

  1. Ulcerative colitis
  2. Crohn’s disease
  3. Adenocarcinoma
  4. Peutz Jegher’s disease
A

Peutx Jagher’s Disease

105
Q

Which of the following types of thyrotoxicosis is most common in patients under 40?

  1. Iodine induced hyperthyroiditis
  2. Struma ovarii
  3. Graves disease
  4. All of the above
A

Grave’s Disease

106
Q

Which type of disease is ankylosing spondylitis?

  1. Inflammatory
  2. Degenerative
  3. Infectious
  4. Autoimmune
A

Inflammatory

107
Q

Who is considered the father of pathology?

  1. Jenner
  2. Koch
  3. Pasture
  4. Lister
A

Pasture

108
Q

Who is most likely to have entrapment neuropathy of median nerve?

  1. Elderly males
  2. Athletic males
  3. Pregnant female
  4. Children
A

Pregnant Female

109
Q

Who is the most infectious member of the family?

  1. Middle aged males
  2. School age children
  3. Pregnant females
A

School Aged Children

110
Q

X-linked gamma globulinemia of bruton is characterized by?

  1. Sexual transmission
  2. Autosomal in males
  3. B-cell deficiency
  4. T-cell deficiency
A

B-Cell Deficiency

Pathology Board Review: Part 1 (1 decks)

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