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2nd year > child health > Flashcards

child health Flashcards

1
Q

preterm

A

a birth that occurs before 37 completed weeks of gestation

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2
Q

term

A

a birth between 37 weeks and 42 weeks of gestation

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3
Q

post-term

A

a birth that occurs after 42 weeks of gestation

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4
Q

normal weight for a baby

A

2.5-4kg

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5
Q

what happens in the 3rd trimester

A
  • Daily weight gain of 24g during 3rd trimester
  • Approx. 7g of fat per day in last 4 weeks
  • Transplacental transfer - iron, vitamins, calcium, phosphate and antibodies
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6
Q

what vitamin should be given at birth

A

Vitamin K given in the newborn period given to prevent haemorrhagic disease of the newborn - clotting (vitamin K dependent)

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7
Q

list some complications of a pre-term pregnancy

A
  • hypothermia
  • Neonatal sepsis
  • Respiratory distress syndrome
  • Retinopathy of prematurity - usually 6-8 weeks after delivery
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8
Q

a higher apgar score is worse for babys

A

false - high score is good

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9
Q

give respiratory complications of the newborn

A

Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) - fluid in the lungs does not clear away

Pneumothorax

Congenital respiratory disease
- Tracheo-oesophageal fistula
- Diaphragmatic hernia

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10
Q

give cardiac complications of the newborn

A

Hydrops foetalis - rhesus disease, chromosomal

persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN)

Congenital heart disease

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11
Q

give initial management of a sick newborn

A
  • Stabilise temperature - 36.5-37.4℃
  • Airway and breathing - gentle support (e.g. open airway), consider oxygen as needed
  • Circulation - fluids, inotropes
  • Metabolic homeostasis - glucose management, correction of acid-base balance
  • Antibiotics
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12
Q

give causative organisms of early onset sepsis of the newborn

A

gram negative group B streptococcus

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13
Q

give causative organisms of LATE onset sepsis of the newborn (after birth)

A
  • Gram negatives
  • Staph. aureus
  • Coagulase negative staphylococci
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14
Q

management of neonatal sepsis

A
  • Prevention - hand washing, vigilance, infection screening
  • Antibiotics
  • Supportive measures
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15
Q

which type of jaundice can be Both physiological and pathological

A

unconjucated
conjugated is always pathological

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16
Q

define prolonged jaundice

A

over 14 days in a term baby or 21 days in a preterm baby

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17
Q

give investigations for early jaundice

A

FBC/SBR/DCT, investigate underlying cause

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18
Q

give investigations for prolonged jaundice

A

FBC/LFTs/SBR/TFTs, further investigation if required

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19
Q

give management for early and prolonged jaundice

A

early
- Phototherapy
- Adequate hydration
- Resolve underlying cause

prolonged
- Resolve underlying cause

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20
Q

outline NRDS

A

Affects 75% of infants born before 29 weeks - born before the lungs start producing adequate surfactant

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21
Q

pathophysiology of NRDS

A
  • Inadequate surfactant leads to high surface tension within alveoli
  • This leads to atelectasis (lung collapse)
  • This leads to inadequate gaseous exchange
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22
Q

clinical presentation of NRDS

A
  • Respiratory distress - tachypoea, grunting, intercostal recessions, nasal flaring, cyanosis
  • Worsens over minutes to hours til 2-4 days then gradual improvement
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23
Q

management for NRDS

A
  • Maternal steroid
  • Surfactant replacement
  • Ventilation (non-invasive preferred over invasive)
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24
Q

define neonatal abstinence syndrome

A

Refers to the withdrawal symptoms that happens in neonates of mothers that used substances in pregnancy

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25
Q

clinical presentation of NAS

A
  • CNS: irritability, tremors, seizures
  • Vasomotor and respiratory: sweating, unstable temperature, tachypnoea
  • Metabolic and GI: poor feeding, regurgitation/vomiting, hypoglycaemia
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26
Q

management for NAS

A

notes should have an alert which allows for extra monitoring and management

kept in hospital for 3 days on a NAS chart to monitor for withdrawals

support in a quiet and dim environment

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27
Q

what BGL defines neonatal hypoglycaemia

A

BGL < 2.6 mmol/l

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28
Q

presentation of neonatal hypoglycaemia

A
  • Lethargy
  • Jitteriness
  • Seizure activity
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29
Q

management of neonatal hypoglycaemia

A

keep baby warm
feed
if unsafe to feed IV glucose

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30
Q

define birth asphyxia

A

Occurs when a baby doesn’t receive enough oxygen before, during or just after birth

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31
Q

causes of birth asphyxia

A
  • Maternal shock
  • Intrapartum haemorrhage
  • Prolapsed cord, causing compression of the cord during birth
  • Nuchal cord, where the cord is wrapped around the neck of the baby
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32
Q

give a major complication of birth asphyxia

A

Hypoxic Ischaemic Encephalopathy - Multi-organ damage due to tissue hypoxia

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33
Q

what can babies with HIE benefit from

A

therapeutic hypothermia - reduces the risk of cerebral palsy, developmental delay, learning disability, blindness and death

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34
Q

describe hydrocephalus

A

> Describes cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) building up abnormally within the brain and spinal cord

  • Result of either over-production of CSF or a problem with draining or absorbing CSF
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35
Q

clinical presentation of hydrocephalus

A
  • Enlarged and rapidly increasing head circumference
  • Bulging anterior fontanelle
  • Poor feeding and vomiting
  • Poor tone
  • Sleepiness
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36
Q

Investigations and management of hydrocephalus

A

transcranial ultrasound

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt

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37
Q

define necrotising enterocolitis

A

> Disorder affecting premature neonates, where part of the bowel becomes necrotic

  • Serious intestinal injury to a relatively immature gut (e.g. premature baby being fed too early) resulting in perforation
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38
Q

clinical presentations of necrotising enterocolitis

A
  • Intolerance to feeds
  • Vomiting, particularly with green bile
  • Generally unwell
  • Distended, tender abdomen
  • Absent bowel sounds
  • Blood in stools
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39
Q

what is the investigation of choice for necrotising enterocolitis and what will it show

A

AXR

  • Dilated loops of bowel
  • Bowel wall oedema
  • Gas in bowel wall
  • Gas in peritoneal cavity (pneumoperitoneum) indicates perforation
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40
Q

management of necrotising enterocolitis

A
  • Nil by mouth, clindamycin and cefotaxime
  • Immediate referral to the neonatal surgical team
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41
Q

describe intraventricular heamorrhage

A

Bleeding into the ventricles inside the brain; in neonates occurs mainly in premature infants

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42
Q

what is the most common type of intraventricular haemorrhage

A

Germinal matrix is the most common type - related to perinatal stress affecting the highly vascularised germinal matrix

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43
Q

define jejunal atresia

A

Congenital anomaly characterised by obliteration of the lumen of the jejunum

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44
Q

clincial presentation of jejunal atresia

A

Neonates typically present with abdominal distension and bilious vomiting within the first 24 hours of birth

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45
Q

management of jejunal atresia

A

surgical correction

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46
Q

define malrotation

A

Congenital anatomical anomaly that results from an abnormal rotation of the gut as it returns to the abdominal cavity during embryogenesis

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47
Q

clinical presentation of malrotation

A
  • Most common presentation in the infant is midgut volvulus - presents with bilious (green) vomiting
  • Up to 40% of patients with malrotation show signs within the first week of life
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48
Q

give investigations and management for malrotation

A

upper GI contrast and followthrough

surgical correction

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49
Q

outline meconium ileus (BUBBLY APPEARANCE)

A

> Refers to a neonatal bowel obstruction of the distal ileum due to abnormally thick and impacted meconium

  • Usually a manifestation of cystic fibrosis
  • x-ray
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50
Q

define cerebral palsy

A

Cerebral palsy (CP) is the name given to the permanent neurological problems resulting from damage to the brain around the time of birth (from prenatal to < 1 month postnatal)

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51
Q

give antenatal causes of CP

A
  • Maternal infections
  • Trauma during pregnancy
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52
Q

give perinatal causes of CP

A
  • Birth asphyxia
  • Pre-term birth
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53
Q

give postnatal causes of CP

A
  • Meningitis
  • Severe neonatal jaundice
  • Head injury
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54
Q

clinical presentation of CP

A

progressive
- Mobility problems, spasticity and
orthopaedic problems
- Learning difficulties
- Epilepsy
- Visual/hearing impairment
- Communication difficulties
- Feeding difficulties
- Sleep problems
- Behavioural problems

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55
Q

aetiology of bronchiolitis

A

RSV
<1 year, usually under 6 months

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56
Q

clinical presentation of bronchiolitis

A
  • Viral URTI symptoms (coryzal symptoms) - running or snotty nose, sneezing, mucus in throat and watery eyes
  • Dyspnoea
  • Tachypnoea
  • Poor feeding
  • Mild fever (under 39ºC)
  • Apnoeas
  • Signs of respiratory distress
  • Wheeze and crackles on auscultation
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57
Q

management of bronchiolitis

A

supportive

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58
Q

define croup

A

Upper respiratory tract infection causing oedema in the larynx

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59
Q

what is the most common causative organism in croup

A

parainfluenza virus

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60
Q

clinical presentation of croup

A
  • Increasedwork of breathing
  • ‘Barking’cough, occurring in clusters of coughing episodes
  • Hoarse voice
  • Stridor
  • Low gradefever
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61
Q

management of croup

A

diagnosis is made clinically

single dose of steroid eg dexamethasone

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62
Q

give features of severe asthma

A

peak flow < 50% predicted
saturations < 92%
unable to complete sentances in one breath

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63
Q

give features of life threatening asthma

A

peak flow < 33% predicted
saturations < 92%
exhaustion and poor respiratory effort
hypotension
silent chest
cyanosis

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64
Q

give management of moderate to severe asthma attacks

A

OHSHITMAN
- Oxygen (at least 60%)
- Salbutamol (neb)
- Oral prednisolone/IV Hydrocortisone
- Ipratropium (neb)
- Theophylline (oral)
- Magnesium sulphate (IV)
- An anesthetist (to intubate)

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65
Q

give the most common causes of pneumonia in children

A
  • Bacterial - Streptococcus pneumonia is most common.

others include Group A and B strep, Staph. aureus and H. influenza

  • Viral - RSV is the most common viral cause
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66
Q

give signs of pneumonia

A
  • Bronchial breath sounds - harsh breath sounds that are equally loud on inspiration and expiration, caused by consolidation of the lung tissue around the airway
  • Focal coarse crackles- caused by air passing through sputum
  • Dullness to percussion- due to lung tissue collapse and/or consolidation
  • delirium
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67
Q

investigations for pneumonia

A
  • CXR
  • Blood cultures if signs of sepsis
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68
Q

management for pneumonia

A
  • Amoxicillin first line
  • Macrolide antibiotics e.g. erythromycin can be added to cover atypical pneumonia, or as a monotherapy in penicillin allergic patients
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69
Q

what is the most common heart rhythms in children

A

SVT

There are four main types:
- atrial fibrillation,
- paroxysmal supraventricular
tachycardia (PSVT),
- atrial flutter
- Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome

70
Q

describe infective endocarditis

A

Rare but severe bacterial infection of the heart valves

71
Q

aetiology of infective endocarditis

A
  • Gram-positive bacteria most common - includes viridans group streptococci, staphylococci and enteroccoci
  • Can also be caused by gram-negatives and fungi
72
Q

clinical presentation of infective endocarditis

A
  • Most cases of pediatric endocarditis present subacutely - low-grade fever, malaise, myalgias, arthralgias, and headaches
  • New or changing heart murmur may be auscultated
73
Q

management of infective endocarditis

A

Obtain culture, then start empirical antibiotics, transition to specific antibiotics based on culture results

74
Q

definition and aetiology of gastroenteritis

A

Inflammation all the way from the stomach to the intestines

Most commonly viral - rotavirus, norovirus

75
Q

clinical presentation of gastroenteritis

A
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Diarrhoea
76
Q

management of gastroenteritis

A

Ensure patient remains hydrated while waiting for diarrhoea and vomiting to settle - aim for oral rehydration, may require IV fluids

77
Q

investigations and management for pyloric stenosis

A
  • US scan upper abdomen
  • Surgery - pyloromyotomy (open or lap)
78
Q

describe volvulus

A

Loop of intestine twists around itself and the mesentery that supports it, resulting in a bowel obstruction

79
Q

aetiology of volvulus

A
  • Congenital intestinal malrotation predisposes to midgut volvulus
  • Abnormal intestinal contents e.g. meconium ileus can predispose to segmental volvulus
80
Q

clinical presentation of volvulus

A
  • Abdominal pain
  • Abdominal bloating
  • Vomiting bile - green
  • Constipation
  • Bloody stool
81
Q

give investigations and management for volvulus

A

AXR

surgery

82
Q

describe intussusception

A

The bowel ‘invaginates’ or ‘telescopes’ into itself, narrowing the lumen, which results in a palpable mass in the abdomen and obstruction to the passage of faeces through the bowel

83
Q

signs and symptoms of inussusception

A
  • Severe, colicky abdominal pain
  • Pale, lethargic and unwell child
  • Vomiting
  • ‘Redcurrant jelly stool’
  • Right upper quadrant mass on palpation
  • Can be associated with concurrent viral illness
  • bring legs up
  • sausage shaped mass
  • coffee bean sign
84
Q

give investigations and management for intussusception

A

US - TARGET sign

air reduction - relieves obstruction in > 85%

surgical reduction

85
Q

signs of appendicitis

A
  • Tenderness in McBurney’s point
  • Rosving’s sign- palpation of theleft iliac fossacauses pain in theRIF
86
Q

give investigation for children with suspected UTI

A

Urine clean catch sample with microbiology

87
Q

give management for UTIs in children

A
  • All children under 3 months with a fever should start immediate IV antibiotics
  • Oral antibiotics can be considered in children over 3 months if they are otherwise well
  • Children with features of sepsis or pyelonephritis (infection affecting kidney function) will require inpatient treatment with IV antibiotics
88
Q

give the cause and management of epidymoorchitis in kids

A

result of retrograde bacterial colonisation via the ejaculatory ducts and vas deferens

analgaesia and antibiotics

89
Q

where is the appendix of the testis (hydatid of morgagni) located

A

located at the upper pole of the testis (between the testis and the head of the epididymis)

90
Q

define hydrocoele

A

Collection of fluid within the tunica vaginalis that surrounds the testes

91
Q

clinical presentation of a hydrocoele

A
  • Soft, smooth, non-tender swelling around one of the testes
  • Transilluminate with light on examination with a pen torch
92
Q

management of hydroceles

A
  • Simple hydroceles (no connection with peritoneal cavity) usually resolve within 2 years without having any lasting negative effects
  • Communicating hydroceles (have a connection with the peritoneal cavity) are managed surgically
93
Q

outline inguinal hernia

A
  • Part of the bowel pushes through a weakness in the abdominal muscles
  • Soft lump in the inguinal region (in the groin)
  • Surgical correction
94
Q

‘empty scrotum’

A

undescended testis

95
Q

when should surgical correction of undescended testis be carried out

A

6 and 12 months of age if testes still have not descended

96
Q

outline Bxo balanitis xerotica obliterans

A
  • Chronic inflammatory process which affects the foreskin but can also extend onto the glans and external urethral meatus
  • Keratinisation of the tip of the foreskin causes scaring and the prepuce remains non-retractile
  • Circumcision
97
Q

outline Hypospadias

A
  • Congenital defect causing the urethral meatus to be located at an abnormal site, usually on the under side of the penis rather than at the tip
  • Surgical correction
98
Q

what is encephalitis

A

inflammation of the brain

99
Q

what is the most common cause of encephalitis

A

HSV

100
Q

clinical presentation of encephalitis

A
  • Altered consciousness
  • Altered cognition
  • Unusual behaviour
  • Acute onset of focal neurological symptoms
  • Acute onset of focal seizures
  • Fever
101
Q

investigations and management of encephalitis

A
  • Lumbar puncture and imaging
  • Antiviral medications - aciclovir treats HSV and VZV
102
Q

what is the most common bacterial cause of meningitis in children and adults

A

Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus) and Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus) in children and adults

103
Q

what is the most common bacterial cause of meningitis in neonates

A

groub b strep

104
Q

what are the most common viral causes of meningitis

A

hsv and vzv

105
Q

signs and symptoms of meningitis

A

-neck stiffness
-photophobia
-altered consciousness or seizures
-non-blanching rash in meningococcal septicaemia

106
Q

what is the best investigation for sepsis

A

lumbar puncture

107
Q

management for bacterial meningitis

A
  • Under 3 months- cefotaxime plus amoxicillin
  • Above 3 months- ceftriaxone
  • If penicillin allergic: chloramphenicol
  • Steroids e.g. dexamethasone to reduce the frequency and severity of hearing loss and neurological damage
108
Q

treatment of viral meningitis

A
  • Tends to be milder and often only requires supportive treatment
  • Aciclovir can be used to treat suspected or confirmed HSV or VZV infection
109
Q

give clinical features of patients with downs syndrome

A
  • Hypotonia
  • Brachycephaly(small head with a flat back)
  • Short neck
  • Short stature
  • Distinctive facial features
    • Prominent tongue
    • Flattened face and nose
    • Prominent epicanthic folds
    • Brushfield spots
110
Q

give complications of downs syndrome

A
  • learning disabilities
  • recurrent otitis media
  • deafness (glue ear)
  • eye => myopia, strabismus, cataracts
  • hypothyroidism
  • cardiac defects - ASD, VSD, PDA, TOF
  • GI issues - Hirschsprungs disease,
    duodenal atresia
  • diabetes and coelic
  • leukaemia
111
Q

outline screening for downs syndrome patients

A
  • High risk of cardiac, visual and hearing defects
  • Much more prone to hypothyroidism - check TFTs annually
  • Screening for sleep-related breathing disorders e.g. OSA
  • Specific growth charts and developmental milestones
112
Q

clinical presentation of prader-willi syndrome

A
  • At birth - very floppy, ability to suck weak or absent, tube feeding common
  • Childhood - hyperphagia (food seeking
    and lack of satiety)
  • Learning difficulties
  • Hypogonadism
  • Short stature
113
Q

clinical presentations of Barget-Biedl syndrome

A
  • Visual impairment, renal abnormalities, polydactyly,
    learning difficulties, hypogonadism, obesity
  • Hyperphagia
114
Q

what is the leading cause of death globally

A

diarrhoea

115
Q

give the aetiology of diarrhoea

A
  • rotavirus, E. coli
  • Usually caused by faeces-infected water or food
116
Q

give causes and the result of reactive attachment disorder

A
  • Persistent disregard for the child’s emotional needs for comfort, stimulation and affection
  • Persistent disregard for the child’s physical needs
  • Repeated changes of the primary caregivers
  • As a result of this the child has difficulty forming lasting, loving, intimate relationships
117
Q

give risk factors for reactive attachment disorder

A
  • Adverse childhood experiences - abuse, neglect, household dysfunction
  • Increased likelihood if child is orphaned at a young age
118
Q

conduct disorder

A

children with CD are able to form some satisfying relationships with peers and adults

119
Q

depression

A

depressed children are often able to form appropriate social relations with those who reach out to them

120
Q

ADHD

A

children with ADHD are more able to initiate and maintain relationships

121
Q

risk factors for TB

A
  • HIV - over 50% of TB cases in Sub-
    Saharan Africa are co-infected with HIV
  • Malnutrition
  • Household contact
  • middle/lower income countries 95%
122
Q

clinical presentation of TB

A
  • Chronic cough or fever >2 weeks
  • Night sweats
  • Weight loss
  • Lymphadenopathy
123
Q

give X-ray finding in TB

A
  • Shadows, lesions, consolidation
  • Ghon focus in periphery of mid zone
    of lung - primary site of infection
  • Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
  • ‘Miliary shadowing’ = miliary TB
124
Q

give treatment for active TB

A

Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide and Ethambutol for 4 months, then Rifampicin and Isoniazid for a further 2 months

125
Q

treatment of latent TB

A

Rifampicin and Isoniazid for 3 months OR Isoniazid for 6 months

126
Q

what age do febrile seizures take place

A

6 months - 5 years

127
Q

management of febrile seizures

A
  • Identify and manage underlying infection
  • Control the fever with simple analgesia such as paracetamol and ibuprofen
  • Reassure parents
128
Q

what is the most common cause of syncope in children

A

vasovagal episodes

129
Q

define a vasovagal episode

A

Type of reflex syncope, involves vagal stimulation triggered by emotional distress or orthstatic stress

130
Q

give triggers of vasovagal episodes

A

prolonged standing, emotional stress, pain, the sight of blood

131
Q

management of vasovagal episodes

A
  • Reassurance
  • Education - avoidance of triggers, how to avert faint through manoevers to increase venous return e.g. horizonal gravity neutralisation position
132
Q

outline reflex anoxic seizures

A
  • Occur when the child is startled, most commonly a minor bump to the head
  • The vagus nerve sends strong signals to the heart - causes it to stop beating
  • child will go pale, lose consciousness
    and may start to have some seizure-
    like muscle twitching
  • Within 30 seconds the heart restarts and the child becomes conscious again
133
Q

management for reflex anoxic seizures

A

After excluding other pathology and making a diagnosis, educating and reassuring parents is the key to management

134
Q

outline epilepsy

A
  • Umbrella term for a condition where there is a tendency to have seizures
  • Seizures are transient episodes of abnormal electrical activity in the brain
135
Q

epilepsy investigations

A

Investigations include electroencephalogram (EEG) and MRI brain

136
Q

epilepsy management

A
  • Education about how to manage seizure
  • Anti-epileptic medication
137
Q

describe chickenpox

A

Fever initially
Itchy, rash starting on head/trunk before spreading. Initially macular then papular then vesicular
Systemic upset is usually mild

138
Q

describe measles

A

Prodrome: irritable, conjunctivitis, fever
Koplik spots: white spots (‘grain of salt’) on buccal mucosa
Rash: starts behind ears then to whole body, discrete maculopapular rash becoming blotchy & confluent

139
Q

describe mumps

A

muscular pain

Parotitis (‘earache’, ‘pain on eating’): unilateral initially then becomes bilateral in 70%

140
Q

describe rubella

A

Rash: pink maculopapular, initially on face before spreading to whole body, usually fades by the 3-5 day
Lymphadenopathy: suboccipital and postauricular

141
Q

describe erythema infectiousum

A

Also known as fifth disease or ‘slapped-cheek syndrome’
Caused by parvovirus B19
Lethargy, fever, headache
‘Slapped-cheek’ rash spreading to proximal arms and extensor surfaces

142
Q

describe scarlett fever

A

Reaction to erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci
Fever, malaise, tonsillitis
‘Strawberry’ tongue
Rash - fine punctate erythema sparing the area around the mouth (circumoral pallor)

143
Q

describe hand, foot and mouth disease

A

Caused by the coxsackie A16 virus
Mild systemic upset: sore throat, fever
Vesicles in the mouth and on the palms and soles of the feet

144
Q

what condition can mimic appendicitis.

A

meckels diverticulum

145
Q

what organism causes impetigo

A

staph. aureus

strep. pyogenes

146
Q

what is the most common ocular malignancy seen in children

A

retinoblastoma

147
Q

features of kawasakis

A

Dry cracked lips
Bilateral conjunctivitis
Peeling of skin on fingers and toes
Cervical lymphadenopathy
Red rash over trunk

148
Q

what is the most common cause of painless massive GI bleeding requiring a transfusion in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years

A

meckels diverticulum

149
Q

what investigation is contraindicated in patients with any sign of meningococcal septicaemia

A

lumbar puncture

150
Q

what age do umbilical hernias usually resolve by

A

3

151
Q

complication of kawasakis

A

coronary artery aneurysm

152
Q

red flags for development

A

6 months = not reaching for object
10 months = no smile or speech
12 months = cannot sit unsupported & has preferential use of one hand (cerebral palsy)
18 months = cannot walk

153
Q

antenatal causes of CP (think olympics)

A

TORCH

Toxoplasmosis
Rubella
CMV
Herpes simplex

154
Q

what is the most common cause of UTI in children

A

Cause = E. Coli (80%)

“Gram-negative, facultative anaerobic, rod-shaped, coliform bacterium”

155
Q

Ix for vesicoureteric reflux

A

Micturating cystourethrogram

156
Q

most common complication of measles

A

otitis media

157
Q

what is the cause of scarlett fever

A

Group A Strep Pyogenes

158
Q

management for scarlett fever

A

Oral Penicillin V (10 days)

159
Q

cause of mumps

A

Paramyxovirus

160
Q

complications of slapped cheek syndrome

A

Sickle cell anaemia 🡪 sickle cell crisis
Aplastic anaemia
Spontaneous abortions in pregnancy <20wks

161
Q

management for UTI < 3 months

A

IV ABX

162
Q

management for UTI > 3 months

A

PO ABX

163
Q

management for upper UTI in kids

A

admission

164
Q

management for acute epiglottitis

A

Immediate senior ENT help
IV Ceftriaxone + Oxygen
Do not examine the throat

165
Q

what sign is seen on X ray in epiglottitis

A

thumb print sign

166
Q

what sign is seen on X ray in croup

A

steeple sign

167
Q

what is the mode of inheritance in CF

A

Autosomal recessive: CFTR gene mutation 🡪 Chromosome 7

168
Q

cause of epiglottitis

A

H. Influenzae

169
Q

investigation and management for pertussis

A

Dx: nasal-swab

-mycin ABX

170
Q

how do you differentiate between septic arthritis and transient synovitis of the hip

A

CRP is norm in TS

171
Q

management of neonatal sepsis

A

IV Benzyl-penicillin + gentamicin

2nd year (9 decks)

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