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Chief Exam > Chief Exam > Flashcards

Chief Exam Flashcards

1
Q

The steps in an elevator rescue are:

A
  1. Locate the car and gather info
  2. Attempt Phase 1 recall
  3. Hard reset (90 seconds/lock out & tag out if unsuccessful)
  4. Use drop key for hoistway door and possibly remove occupants
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2
Q

KCKFD will upgrade to an elevator technical rescue response in the folowing situations:

A
  1. Fire

2. Rescue requiring hoistway entrance

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3
Q

Wednesday work schedule activity

A

Bay floors and poles

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4
Q

The ability to effectively mitigate a MAYDAY situation, and to account for all personnel at incidents, is the responsibility and priority of the:

A

Incident Commander

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5
Q

At a structure fire, the first arriving company will do the following 3 things:

A
  1. Give a size-up, determine actions, initiate ICS
  2. Establish command and act as IC until relieved
  3. Maintain command at command post, or by radio when the company officer is mobile
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6
Q

The actions of the first arriving truck company at a structure fire are:

A

INVESTIGATION:

  1. Position apparatus
  2. Investigate

ATTACK

  1. Get the EMS crew attached
  2. Forcible entry
  3. Search and rescue
  4. Ventilation
  5. Deploy ladders
  6. Shut off gas

DEFENSIVE

  1. Exposure protection
  2. Master streams
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7
Q

The standby EMS unit at a structure fire will do the following:

A
  1. Stage in an appropriate location away from the scene for medical support
  2. Notify command of their location
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8
Q

A regular 1st Alarm consists of:

A 
3 pumpers
2 trucks
2 EMS
1 B.C.
1 Safety Officer
1 Fire Investigator
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9
Q

In an emergency recall, members shall be notified by what 2 means?

A
  1. News media

2. Electronic media (cell, email, Telestaff, etc.)

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10
Q

Emergency recall does not apply to KCKFD members that are on:

A

Any scheduled or unscheduled leave

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11
Q

Emergency recall can be implemented for the following reasons:

A
  1. Severe weather events
  2. Multiple large fires
  3. Civil disorders
  4. Any other event deemed an emergency by the Fire Chief/designee
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12
Q

When an assembly area is established, companies shall be dispatched to the assembly area and not the:

A

zone of concern

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13
Q

Assembly areas will be established by the __________ ____________ when an emergency situation is declared.

A

Incident commander

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14
Q

Any operation on the surface of non-moving water is:

A

Static

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15
Q

Saturday’s work schedule activity

A

Yardwork, ramps, and apparatus floor

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16
Q

Thursday’s work schedule activity

A

Appliances (Stove, oven, refrigerator, freezer)

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17
Q

Tuesday’s work schedule activity

A

Fire/EMS inventory
Compartment cleaning
Clean cab

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18
Q

If the senior House Captain is absent, the Senior Ranking Captain of _______ _______ _______ _______ _______ shall assume the responsibilities.

A

the other unit housed in their quarters.

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19
Q

The Senior _______ Captain is the assigned captain with the greatest amount of time in grade, on the apparatus over _____ _____ _____.

A

Ranking

all 3 shifts

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20
Q

The Senior ______ Captain is subordinate to a B.C. and superior to a Senior _______ Captain

A

House

Ranking

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21
Q

Members being relieved must have their fire and EMS reports _______ __________ before leaving the station.

A

accurately completed.

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22
Q

Should the extra driver candidate fail, they must wait ____ _____ and complete an additional ____ training sessions.

A

6 months

20

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23
Q

The minimum score for the ____ question extra driver test is ____%

A

50

90%

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24
Q

The purpose of effective management during cardiac arrest is to provide ______ ______ _________ during the resuscitation

A

high quality compressions

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25
Q

The 2 criteria to consider for Ebola exposure are:

A
  1. Travel to Africa within last 30 days

2. Contact with people who have traveled to region of exposure.

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26
Q

Universal Precaution calls will get a minimum of:

A
  1. Car 41
  2. HazMat response
  3. Special response ambulance via Safety Officer
  4. Additional resources as necessary
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27
Q

True/False - On-duty personnel may take photographs and recordings at incidents

A

True, but they must be authorized individuals

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28
Q

In regard to blood-borne pathogens, contamination of clothing is considered to be:

A

wet dripping

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29
Q

Under no circumstances will _____, _____, or ______ be used for decon or storage of patient care equipment.

A

Kitchens
Bathrooms
Living areas

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30
Q

During large-scale events, the Deputy Chief will contact PD to figure out PD’s role and set up ______ ______ as needed.

A

Unified Command

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31
Q

An _______ _________ is the minimum form of official discipline.

A

Oral reprimand

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32
Q

__________ is a significant and substantial form of discipline.

A

Suspension

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33
Q

The intent of counseling is to _______ _______ so that the member can participate as a productive member.

A

adjust behavior

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34
Q

When a violation of rules and regulations has occurred, the member shall be notified and the initial supervisor will inform _______ ________ of the violations and subsequent investigation.

A

their supervisor

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35
Q

In the event of a policy violation, a copy of the conduct memorandum will be given to the employee and they will be advised that they have ____ hours to complete a written statement on KCKFD Form #1.

A

72

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36
Q

T/F Witnesses are limited to the members listed on the conduct memorandum

A

False

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37
Q

After ____ months, a conduct memorandum shall only be utilized progressively for the ______ or ______ ______ violation of the rules/regs

A

12
identical
closely related

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38
Q

Every attempt will be made to obtain witness statements during the _____ ___ _____ on which the violation has occurred.

A

tour of duty

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39
Q

All employees must possess and maintain a ____ ____ license with the exception of _______ and ___=____ personnel.

A

Class B
Dispatchers (communications)
Non-sworn

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40
Q

Indicators for determining residency are:

A 
Driver's license
Auto registration 
Voter's registration
Address on bank account
School enrollment of kids
Address where employee can routinely be reached in case of emergency
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41
Q

Any employee who changes residency must provide ___ forms of evidence, such as:

A

2

Driver's license
Auto registration 
Voter's registration
Address on bank account
School enrollment of kids
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42
Q

The operations corps consists of:

A

Suppression
EMS
Special Ops

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43
Q

T/F Cell phone use is permitted in city vehicles

A

True, but the member must be conducting official business and must also follow the rules regarding hands-free operations.

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44
Q

When a rig indicates they are utilizing the Knox Box, dispatch will:

A

attempt to contact a property representative

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45
Q

Things to document in the PCR about suspected abuse are:

A

Why you suspect

Who (the identity) you notified or when DCF was notified

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46
Q

If abuse is suspected, immediately report any suspicious findings to:

A

Department of Children and Families

Receiving hospital

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47
Q

Requested changes to the Knox Box IDs will be done

A

Semi annually

When a breach is suspected

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48
Q

If a violation of the Workplace Violence policy occurs, the supervisor or manager must turn an ______ ______ ______ to HR within ______ hours

A

Incident Report Form

24

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49
Q

The Knox Box requires a ___ digit code to access.

A

6

Fire ID, and remaining from UG

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50
Q

The dedicated position and identification of radios is necessary to facilitate identification in the event of an

A

Emergency Alert Activation

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51
Q

A recruits Fire Department’s ID # will be based solely on their _____ ______ ______.

A

Initial exam scores

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52
Q

All academy retests will be taken within ___ ____ of the initial attempt.

A

one week

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53
Q

Successful completion of the 2 sections (suppression/EMS) requires an average grade of ____ %

A

True Also includes ANY written exam.

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54
Q

Access by recruits, to any location other than the classroom, is permitted only when ___ ____ ____ ______ ______ ____ or a command officer.

A

they are accompanied by academy staff.

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55
Q

Phase 3 for elevators is:

A

“Alarm Phase Operation”

The fire alarm senses fire/smoke in the lobby and the cars go to a predetermined floor.

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56
Q

A recruit that is unable to report for duty due to illness, injury, death in the family, or other difficulties will notify training no later than ___ minutes prior to the start of the session.

A

60

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57
Q

If the employee is unable to conceal carry in the course of their duties, they must:

A

Secure the firearm in their personal vehicle

Not have brought it into a UG vehicle because it is prohibited to leave unattended.

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58
Q

Concealed firearms carried by the employee must be:

A

Concealed at all times

In the immediate control of the employee and may not be left unattended.

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59
Q

Are guns allowed in UG buildings?

A

Only for those that must possess as a condition of employment.

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60
Q

When available, additional information to obtain for a PCR should include

A 
SSN
Phone
Insurance info
Next of kin/guardian
Ambulance membership #
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61
Q

If the patient is critical, or the medic is unable to get the info, the medic MUST get a _____ ______ ______ from the receiving facility.

A

medical record number

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62
Q

The remote mics on the radios _____ _____ to be removed or clipped to the antenna.

A

ARE NOT

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63
Q

Missing radios must be reported by what time?

A

0815

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64
Q

The responsibility to account for radios on suppression or EMS units falls on

A

Company officer

The driver of the ambulance.

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65
Q

Each individual is responsible to have their radio in their possession on _____ ______

A

every alarm

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66
Q

Radios are identified by their location how?

A

A=Captain
B=Driver
C= Behind Captain
D=Behind Driver

EMS
A=Medic
B=Driver

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67
Q

According to SOP, no interior structural firefighting may commence without a minimum of _____ or more properly equipped and trained firefighters present on scene.

A

4

2 in/2 out

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68
Q

In high-rise fires, the RIT should familiarize themselves with the floor layout by _____ ______ ______ ______ _____.

A

examining the floor below the fire.

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69
Q

T/F The RIT company officer may work with the safety officer to conduct recon regarding egress/ingress and alternative exit points.

A

True

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70
Q

T/F A RIT member is not permitted to take on other roles like safety officer or equipment operator.

A

True

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71
Q

RIT will be established anytime:

A

Firefighters are on air inside a structure

Anytime the IC deems it necessary

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72
Q

The objective of a RIT is to have

A

A fully-equipped rescue team on site

Have that team in a ready state to immediately respond to rescue firefighters

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73
Q

T/F The IC may deploy RIT for search and rescue in certain situations.

A

False. The IC can only order this non-RIT deployment for a visible civilian victim.

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74
Q

Once the RIT has been deployed in a MAYDAY, the IC will _______ assign a secondary RIT as on scene resources allow.

A

immediately

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75
Q

When lost on a fire, calling a MAYDAY is not a sign of _______, but one of _________.

A

Weakness

Intelligience

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76
Q

When initiating a MAYDAY, pressing the red emergency button on the radio will give ______ seconds of radio priority.

A

10

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77
Q

The 3 corps of the KCKFD are:

A

1st Deputy
Operations
Fire Prevention

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78
Q

How many sick days do permanent employees earn per month?

A

1 1/4

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79
Q

Who is the Knox Box program coordinator?

A

The fire marshal

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80
Q

When may an IC release information or designate another command officer to do so?

A

When the PIO is not available.

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81
Q

Any member returning to work following an injury must be cleared by

A

The FD’s designated physician

The designated Infection Control Officer

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82
Q

If the RIT is deployed by the IC for the purpose of civilian rescue:

A

The IC will escalate to the next level of alarm (a regular becomes a general and a general becomes a 2nd alarm)

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83
Q

In a large-scale event, the ____ ____ _____ will be notified during ‘after hours’

A

duty deputy chief

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84
Q

The one exception to the RIT assignment at a structure fire is:

A

When there are civilians “visible, in clear and present danger, and immediate action could prevent the loss of life”

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85
Q

In a MAYDAY situation, dispatch will automatically send:

A 
1 pumper
1 truck
2 EMS
1 Safety Officer
1 B.C.
1 Air/Rehab 
Command staff  ALL-Page
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86
Q

The Safety Officer at a structure fire will do the following:

A 
ATTACK:
360 of incident
Ensure formation of RIT 
Monitor safety and collapse zones
Report the conditions, hazards, risks to IC
Ensure rehab area is readied
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87
Q

For CO calls, crews are not to _______ until monitoring is completed to isolate the cause.

A

ventilate

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88
Q

Who makes the decision on establishing command?

A

The first arriving unit

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89
Q

_____ ___ _____ eliminates the potential for individuals receiving conflicting orders from a variety of supervisors.

A

Unity of command

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90
Q

The first Chief Officer at a structure fire will do the following:

A

Consult the IC regarding the status of the incident
Acknowledge, via radio, that command has been transferred.
Initiate and monitor personnel accountability
Consider additional resources
Direct/redirect actions of scene
Ensure a 360 is completed.

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91
Q

The primary focus for the TIC is:

A

search and rescue

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92
Q

People with an elevated risk of CO poisoning include:

A

Elderly
Children
People with chronic diseases

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93
Q

SENSIT readings above 100% LEL will read:

A

OL

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94
Q

The actions of the 3rd arriving pumper at a structure fire will include:

A 
ATTACK
Secure water, if needed
Assist with advancement of hose lines
Deploy backup or third lines for exposure
DEFENSIVE
Secure water, if needed
Assist with advancement of hose lines
Deploy backup or additional exposure lines
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95
Q

During an inside gas leak, if feasible, no more than ___ personnel should enter the building at one time.

A

2

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96
Q

The point of a formal debrief is to:

A

Identify exceptional effort

Identify training needs or SOG revisions

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97
Q

Firefighters are responsible for the safety of ________ and their _____.

A

themselves

crew

98
Q

Confidential information is to be kept confidential, unless _______ ___ ______ or _______ ________ requires otherwise.

A

performance of duty

legal provision

99
Q

Discipline exists in 4 forms:

A

Oral reprimand
Written reprimand
Suspension
Termination

100
Q

All conduct memorandums can be used to determine severity or a pattern of behavior for ____ months from the original sanction.

A

12

101
Q

The actions of the 2nd arriving pumper at a structure fire will include:

A

ATTACK
Establish water supply, if needed
Assist with advancement of interior attack line
Provide staffing assistance to companies already committed
Deploy secondary or backup line, as needed
DEFENSIVE
Establish water supply, if needed
Deploy hand lines
Deploy master stream
Provide staffing assistance

102
Q

When forcing OT, the ____ ______ on the appropriate list who is working the shift prior will be held over.

A

last employee

103
Q

CO LEL

CO UEL

A

12.5%

74%

104
Q

An employee who has used ____ leave or _____ leave on the preceding day will not be eligible for OT.

A

injury

sick

105
Q

The UG will not tolerate harassment of employees based on:

A 
sex
race
color
national origin or ancestry
religion or creed
pregnancy
sexual orientation
gender identity
age
disability
protected activity
106
Q

pH neutral wipes are to be used immediately after:

A

doffing structural firefighting gear

107
Q

______ ______ are responsible for ensuring that their crews get their hoods replaced.

A

company officers

108
Q

A minimum of ____ companies will be used for every shift.

A

22

109
Q

OT is called when less than ____ personnel are on shift

A

69

110
Q

The steps of the grievance process are:

A 
Initial grievance
Appeal
Federal mediation
Arbitration
Appeal to district court
111
Q

Smoking is prohibited on:

A

All UG property

In all UG vehicles

112
Q

Accident review board findings must be reported within ____ days of an accident.

A

45

113
Q

The 3 instances which employees may not work for others are:

A

If the employee working the trade is on:
Sick leave
Injury leave
FMLA

114
Q

Trade time requests must be presented to the appropriate Division Chief by at least the _____ _____ _____ to the requested shift.

A

shift period prior

115
Q

A REGULAR 2nd Alarm consists of:

A 
2 pumpers 
1 truck
1 Safety officer
1 Assistant Chief
1 EMS supervisor
116
Q

Mileage reimbursement does not apply when an employee was notified at least ____ hours prior to the transfer.

A

48

117
Q

Employees may report harassment to any level of management, without regard to _____ _____ ______.

A

chain of command

118
Q

Any time an employee has been called to report for duty and has used alcohol within ____ hours of the call, they must turn down the work.

A

4

119
Q

The grievance procedure must be started within ____ calendar days from the events causing the grievance to become known.

A

7

120
Q

A 24-hour employee absent without leave for ___ consecutive shifts, or a 40-hour employee absent for ___ consecutive work days will be considered a voluntary resignation.

A

3

7

121
Q

When dealing with seniority, if department seniority is equal, then ____ ___ _____ will be used to break a tie. If that is equal, the employee’s ____ ____ will be used.

A

time in grade

Fire ID number

122
Q

The substances the UG tests for are:

A 
Amphetamines
Cocaine
Opiates
Phencycladine
THC
123
Q

Employees are ________ to be in uniform at all _______ _____ while on duty.

A

required

appropriate times

124
Q

All uniforms, protective ______, or protective _____ required of employees shall be furnished by the UG.

A

clothing

devices

125
Q

A drug test will be administered if the traffic citation is issued within ___ hours of the accident.

A

32

126
Q

Follow up testing requires a minimum of ____ unannounced tests in the first ____ months following the return to duty.

A

6

12

127
Q

An employee that tests positive for alcohol and has a BAC between ____ and ____ may return the next regularly scheduled work day or 24 hours following the test.

A

.02

.04

128
Q

Employees are subject to discipline, including termination, for the following substance violations:

A

BAC at or above .02
Positive drug test
Refusal to test

129
Q

Violation of the substance policy will require a probation period of ____ months and, if the SAP recommends a longer period, it can be extended to ____ months.

A

24

60

130
Q

The interaction between the KCKFD and public will always be one that emphasizes:

A 
Respect
Understanding
Diversity
Compassion
Trust
131
Q

Being a role model is a privilege and all members will be held to a standard of behavior, ____ _____ ____ ____, which reflects positively on themselves and the department.

A

on and off duty.

132
Q

The 3 most common reasons for an elevator becoming stuck are usually one of the following:

A

Electrical power failure
Malfunction of a mechanical component
Activation of safety devices

133
Q

_____ is not based upon rank. It is shown through initiative, responsibility, accountability, behavior, high standards, and performance.

A

Leadership

134
Q

The KCKFD may use scientific laboratory analysis, such as ____, _____, or ______ ______ from an employee to detect the presence of controlled substances.

A

breath, urine, or blood sample

135
Q

Post-accident testing will occur within what time frame?

A

2 hours

136
Q

Only after _______ _______ will we jeopardize our safety to protect savable property.

A

calculated consideration

137
Q

What happens if a civilian is riding in a take-home vehicle and an emergency response is initiated?

A

The civilian is to be dropped off in a safe and responsible manner and in a safe location.

138
Q

All uniforms required of the employees in the performance of their duties shall be furnished by the _____.

A

UG

139
Q

Calling off sick ____times in ANY ____ ____ period allows the department authorization to medical records.

A

3

12 month

140
Q

Employees on injury leave are prohibited from being gainfully employed by an employer other than ____ _____ or being ____ _______.

A

the UG

self employed

141
Q

At the end of 12 months of injury leave, the employee must:

A

Report to duty
Apply for disability
Resign
Be terminated

142
Q

Death in the family leave is:

A

40 hour: 3 consecutive work days
24 hour: 1 shift day
Not to exceed beyond the day after the funeral

143
Q

The employer (UG) recognizes the union as the bargaining agent for all sworn employees of the rank of ______ and below.

A

captain

144
Q

The maximum general leave of absence is _____ days, but may be extended another _____ days per the UG governing body.

A

30

30

145
Q

_____ _____ shall be considered self-rescinding within the time frame referenced in the document.

A

department memos

146
Q

What can rescind ANY department or electronic communication?

A

a general order

147
Q

Action levels for CO
< 10 ppm
10 - 50 ppm
> 50 ppm

A

< 10: No action required
10-50: Suggest evacuation and investigate further
> 50: Evacuate, don SCBA, and investigate further.

148
Q

Outline style will follow the MLA format to look like:

A 
I.  Capital Roman numerals
  A. Capital letters
    1.  Arabic numerals
       a. Lower case letters
          i.  lower case roman numerals
149
Q

Departmental written communications shall be written in a _____, _____, and ______ style.

A

clear, concise, and direct

150
Q

Formatting guidelines for departmental written communications will be:

A

Times New Roman or Calibri
11 or 12 point font size
Single spacing
Full justification

151
Q

Departmental communications will be prepared in _____ _____, with sections clearly indicated for ______ ______.

A

outline style

rapid reference

152
Q

The purpose of safety bulletins are to:

A

cover various topics of safety and health issues for department members.

153
Q

The purpose of training publications is to

A

cover various training topics

154
Q

The purpose of a Corps order/memo is to:

A

establish policies and disseminate information relevant to a particular corps

155
Q

The purpose of a department memo is to

A

convey information of general interest to department employees

156
Q

T/F All written communications can be rescinded by the same type of written communication.

A

True

157
Q

Any information regarding the cause and/or origin of a fire will only be released by the _____ _______.

A

fire marshal

158
Q

When participating in interviews, all KCKFD members will:

A

Have permission from the PIO
Be briefed
Appear in uniform

159
Q

The KCKFD will _______ _______ with the news media.

A

cooperate impartially

160
Q

Reasons for a mandatory post-MVA drug test are:

A

Fatality
Injury requiring treatment off scene
> $5000 damage (determined by FD representative)
At the discretion of the Chief, BC, or designee

161
Q

A positive hit is a BAC equal to or greater than:

A

.02

162
Q

The two kinds of employees that are drug tested are:

A

Those that operate commercial machinery

Those in safety sensitive positions.

163
Q

With regard to trading time, if an employee is on ____, _____, or ______ leaves, they are not allowed to work for other employees.

A

sick
injury
FMLA

164
Q

When delegated by the chief, officers within the rank of _______ may be given permission to discipline employees.

A

captain

165
Q

OT lists for captains and drivers are arranged and called according to ____ ____ _____.

A

time in grade

166
Q

EMT and Medic OT lists are arranged and called according to ______ _______.

A

departmental seniority

167
Q

Prior to the release of information to the media, the ranking supervisor will contact the _____ _____ or on duty _____ for assistance.

A

fire chief

on duty PIO

168
Q

An employee that doesn’t satisfactorily complete the probationary period for promotion shall:

A

be returned to their last permanent rank

169
Q

In CO calls, if there are no signs/symptoms of exposure, SCBA is not required unless:

A

monitor readings exceed 50 ppm at any time

170
Q

The PIO reports directly to the:

A

Fire Chief

171
Q

The actions of the 1st arriving pumper at a structure fire are:

A

ATTACK:
Establish water when signs of fire/smoke are visible while responding
Stretch lines for attack
DEFENSIVE
Establish water when signs of fire/smoke are visible while responding
Stretch lines for attack

172
Q

In the DEFENSIVE mode of command, crews will:

A

Consider escalating the alarm
Communicate and direct the actions of on-scene and incoming companies
Consider apparatus placement
Attempt to complete a 360

173
Q

In the ATTACK mode of command, crews will:

A

Develop a fire suppression plan
Initiate suppression activity appropriate to apparatus
Initiate search and rescue
Complete a 360

174
Q

In the INVESTIGATION mode of command, the company officer will:

A 
Investigate
Consider escalating the alarm
Communicate and direct the actions of on-scene and incoming companies
Consider apparatus placement
Attempt to complete a 360
175
Q

In CO incidents, bunkers and SCBA are required for readings over ___ ppm

A

50

176
Q

For CO calls, if anyone shows signs of CO poisoning:

A

don SCBA immediately

177
Q

Phase 1 for elevators is:

A

Emergency recall (cars return to the lobby with the doors open)

178
Q

If CO levels are greater than 50 ppm, crews should:

A

don SCBA
Shut off gas
Request gas company
Give report on gas company arrival

179
Q

Phase 2 for elevators is:

A

Fire Service Control

do not use an elevator without Phase 2 in a high rise fire

180
Q

A hard reset is defined as cycling off the power for ____ seconds and restoring power.

A

90

181
Q

A GENERAL 2nd Alarm consists of:

A

2 pumpers
1 truck
1 Safety Officer
1 EMS Supervisor

182
Q

The 4 goals at a structure fire are:

A

Save and protect lives
Minimize fire, heat, smoke, and water damage by containing the fire to the smallest possible area
Mitigate any hazardous conditions
Determine the cause of the fire

183
Q

T/F A MAYDAY can be called by anyone on the fireground

A

True

184
Q

Responding to a PAR sounds like:

A

(Unit #) x (the number of personnel I can actually see/hear including myself)

Also, denote the number of people on the rig that day

185
Q

The person initiating the MAYDAY should do the following 3 things:

A

MAYDAY x 3
CAN report
Activate emergency button on radio and PASS

186
Q

A staging area manager will generally only be utilized when ______ _____ staging is implemented.

A

Level 2

187
Q

________ are used to create geographical locations in an incident.

A

Divisions

188
Q

How many safety officers are assigned to additional alarms?

A

1 per alarm

189
Q

The IC can maintain span of control by appointing staff to help on an ____ _______ basis

A

as needed

190
Q

_______ ______ allows multiple agencies to work together on major incidents.

A

Unified command

191
Q

Command of a scene remains the responsibility of the ____ ______ ______ until the next unit arrives and acknowledges the transfer.

A

first arriving company

192
Q

In order of importance, incident priorities are:

A
  1. Life safety
  2. Incident stabilization
  3. Property conservation
193
Q

The first arriving unit will make a decision on establishing command and the _______ ______ will serve as IC

A

ranking officer

194
Q

ICS is an _____ _______ ________ because it has a wide range of applicable uses.

A

all hazards system

195
Q

The EEOC states that harassment occurs when:

A

The conduct is explicitly/implicitly a term or condition of employment
The response by the individual affects employment decisions
The conduct interferes with work performance by creating offensive work environment

196
Q

If someone uses terms that indicates that they are in trouble, that is to be interpreted as a:

A

MAYDAY

197
Q

Harassment is prohibited in any location that can be reasonably regarded as an extension of the work place, such as:

A

any customer location
off-site social business function
other non-UG facility where UG business is conducted

198
Q

The SCBA back plate, harness, and air bottle can be cleaned using a _____ ______ _______

A

mild soap solution

199
Q

The two things that can inhibit mercaptan in natural gas are:

A

Soil

New pipe

200
Q

For natural gas, evacuate, if necessary, to a minimum of _____ feet in all directions

A

300

201
Q

When shutting off a gas leak, the personnel involved in shutting the leak:

A

will be protected with a charged 1 3/4” handline

202
Q

For gas calls, the HOT ZONE is considered to be wherever the _____ ____ ____ is present

A

smell of gas

203
Q

Natural gas is ______ than air

A

lighter

204
Q

The purpose of an administrative order is to:

A

establish or reaffirm placement of companies, company response boundaries, department identification numbers, organizational charts, etc.

205
Q

Notifications of high-profile events will not be made ____ _____

A

by radio

206
Q

If the PIO isn’t available, the _____ ______ may release information or designate another command staff officer to do so.

A

incident commander

207
Q

The Fire Chief is the official spokesperson for the KCKFD on matters of _______ ________ unless they specifically designate a subordinate for this purpose.

A

department policy

208
Q

Formal debrief among command staff officers who have IC responsibilities will occur after the following:

A 
Exceptional company valor
MAYDAY
PAR was ordered because of a significant event
Fires with significant injury/fatality
2nd alarms or greater
Any incident that may be learned from
209
Q

A post-MVA drug test will be waived under the following conditions:

A

The FD vehicle was not in motion
AND
It is abundantly clear the FD employee was not at fault

OR

The vehicle was unoccupied at the time

210
Q

Any KCKFD member involved in an accident must notify their ________ __________ of the accident and remain on scene.

A

immediate supervisor

211
Q

Following an accident, the employee must wait how long before consuming alcohol?

A

8 hours, or until they do a post accident test

212
Q

When discipline arises from employee activities outside the scope of employment, no discipline will be implemented until when?

A

until charges are filed…unless the Chief decides that behavior has brought discredit to the UG or FD

213
Q

All grievances relating to discipline or discharge begin at Step ____

A

2 (the appeal step)

214
Q

Requests for granting ____ or _____ days may be denied if fusch granting would render the department unable to operate a shift or station.

A

Kelly or Holidays

215
Q

People covered under the death in the family leave provision are:

A 
Spouse
Children
Parents
Step-parents
Brother
Sister
Grandparents (Employee or spouse)
Grandchildren
Brother/Sister in law
Son/Daughter in law
OR
Any relative living in employee's house
216
Q

Unless there is an emergency, the FD will operate with no less than ____ employees

A

73

217
Q

While on injury leave, can the UG require an employee to be examined by a physician of the department’s choosing to determine the capability of returning to work?

A

Yes

218
Q

Handguns left in a personal vehicle must be _______ and _______.

A

Concealed

Secured

219
Q

If Knox Box Keys go missing during an emergency call, who must dispatch notify?

A

Police

District B.C.

220
Q

A supervisor that receives a written complaint, allegation, or notice whatsoever of harassment will notify the Director of HR no later than _____ _____ after receiving it.

A

1 business day

221
Q

What is the official and appropriate response document pertaining to all incidents for the KCKFD?

A

The KCKFD Incident Command System

222
Q

Transferring command may be done by ______, but should be done _____ _____ _____.

A

radio

face to face

223
Q

The SENSIT gas meter reads from 10 ppm to 990 ppm. Above 990 ppm, the meter converts to _____.

A

% of LEL

224
Q

PASS alarm batteries may be changed by

A

Safety Officers

Battalion Chiefs

225
Q

_________ _________ is the foundation for managing behavior.

A

Self-discipline

226
Q

To be a good leader, you must be a good ________

A

follower

227
Q

A ______ _______ is an intermediate form of official discipline.

A

written reprimand

228
Q

__________ is the decisive and final form of discipline

A

termination

229
Q

The conduct memorandum prepared by the initial supervisor will contain the following information:

A 
Who
What
Where 
When 
Witnesses
230
Q

If the initial supervisor cannot serve the conduct memorandum to the member, the paperwork will be handled by:

A

the corps deputy chief

231
Q

When possible, the member shall be notified _____ ______ ______ in advance of a conduct review meeting.

A

one shift day

232
Q

Recruits have _____ _____ to obtain their Fire 1/2/Hazmat Ops certs.

A

one year from hire date

233
Q

Change of address must be filed within ____ workdays

A

30

234
Q

A company logo (decal) can be no more than ____ square inches

A

144

235
Q

The 1st Deputy Corps consists of:

A

Training
Communications
Support Services

236
Q

The Fire Prevention Corps consists of:

A 
Investigations
Inspections
NFIRS
Plans review
Subpoenas, summonses, warrants
237
Q

If the Knox Box is used, dispatch will be made aware of the following:

A

Removal of key from key secure
Removal of key from Knox Box
Replacement of key to Knox Box
Replacement of key to key secure

238
Q

Required observation for reasonable suspicion for drug/alcohol testing shall be made by a ________ or _________ who is trained to do so.

A

supervisor or UG official

239
Q

The criteria for “actual knowledge” is based upon:

A

Direct observation of the employee
Information from previous employer
A traffic citation for driving commercial vehicle under the influence
Employee’s admission of use

240
Q

During emergency recall, the FD Ops Center will be staffed by:

A 
1st Deputy
Deputy of Emergency Ops
Asst Chief of Support Services 
PIO
Additional staff as needed
241
Q

In a large scale event, command staff shall report as follows:

A 
HQ:
Chief
1st Deputy
Deputy of Ops
PIO
Support Services
EMS

Dispatch:
Communications Chief

242
Q

In a large scale event, a Response Task Force will consist of:

A

2 pumpers
1 truck
1 EMS
1 Chief Officer

Chief Exam (1 decks)

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