CHH Flashcards

1
Q

Development - 6 weeks

A

Head control – 45⁰ when prone
Stabilises when sitting

Follows object to midline

Startles to loud noise

Social Smile

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2
Q

Development - 3 months

A

Head steady when in sitting position

Follows past the midline

Vocalises, coos and laughs

Spontaneous smile

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3
Q

Development - 6 months

A

Rolls front to back

Palmar Grasp/Transfers

Turns to loud sound, Babbles

Mouths objects, Holds a bottle

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4
Q

Development - 9 months

A

Stands with support

Pincer Grip
Bangs cubes

Responds to own name

Play’s Peek-a-boo
Holds/Bites food

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5
Q

Development - 12 months

A

Stands independently

Casts bricks

Mama/Dada

Waves/Claps
Drinks from a beaker with a lid

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6
Q

Development - 18 months

A

Walks (9-18 months)

2 Cube tower, scribbles

Vocab: 3-6 words, Understands nouns

Imitative play

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7
Q

Development - 24 months

A

Run, Kicks Ball

4 Cube Tower
Draws a vertical line

Vocab: 50 words
2 Words Together
Understands Verbs

Removes a garment

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8
Q

Development - 2.5 years

A

Jumps
Throw Ball over head

6 Cube Tower
Draws a Horizontal Line

Vocab: 6 Body parts
3-4 word sentences
Understands prepositions

Eats well with a spoon

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9
Q

Development - 3 years

A

Balance 1 foot, 1 second

8 cube tower, 3 brick bridge
Draws a circle

Uses Adjectives
Understands negatives
½ understandable speech

Eats with a fork/spoon
Puts on a t-shirt
Takes turns

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10
Q

Development - 4 years

A

Balance 1 foot, 3 seconds
Hops

Builds Steps (6 bricks) 
Draws a Cross 

Understands Comparatives
Knows 4 colours

Sympathy, imaginative play
Dresses alone

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11
Q

Development - 5 years

A

Balance 1 foot 5 seconds
Heel-toe walk
Skips

Draws a Triangle & Person 6 parts

Understands Complex (3 part) instructions 
Counts to 5 

Can play a board game
Brushes teeth
Uses a knife

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12
Q

Use of anti-pyretics

A

Either paracetamol or ibuprofen, but not normally both simultaneously

Generally only used if the child is distressed

Anti-pyretics will not prevent febrile convulsions

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13
Q

Febrile convulsions - when and why?

A

Ages 6 months to 5 years.

Usually due to infection or inflammation outside the CNS in an otherwise well child

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14
Q

Simple febrile convulsion

A

isolated, generalised, tonic-clonic seizure

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15
Q

Complex febrile convulsion

A

Complex if 1+ of:

  • Focal onset/focal features
  • Duration >15 minutes
  • Recurs within 24h/same illness
  • Incomplete recovery after 1 hour.
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16
Q

Febrile convulsions - management

A
  • If cease before presentation – do not give drug treatment.
  • If >5 mins – rectal diazepam/buccal midazolam.

Always check blood glucose if child is unconscious/is convulsing

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17
Q

How is suspected meningitis managed in the community?

A

Single dose of benzylpenicillin IV/IM and immediate transfer to hospital (call 999)

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18
Q

Abx in meningitis - <3 months

A

IV cefotaxime and IV amoxicillin (to cover listeria meningitis) and IV gentamicin

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19
Q

Abx in meningitis - >3 months

A

IV ceftriaxone

also IV gentamicin (only if probable sepsis)

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20
Q

Management of meningitis

A

Ideally blood cultures and LP before Abx (unless significant delay)

Start Abx

If probable or confirmed bacterial meningitis – dexamethasone, ideally with first dose of antibiotics

Supportive therapy - high flow O2, fluids, antipyrexials

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21
Q

Why is dexamethasone used in bacterial meningitis?

A

Decreased sequelae in pneumococcal meningitis and Haemophilus Influenzae meningitis.

No evidence of improved outcome or harm in meningococcus/viral meningitis.

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22
Q

UTI in children

A

= commonest bacterial infection of children.

Most commonly caused by E. coli.

Urgently admit if <3 months and UTI is suspected.

Older children may also need admission if at risk of serious illness.

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23
Q

When should a UTI be treated?

A

If leucocytes and nitrites (or just nitrites) are positive on urine dip

If good clinical suspicion of UTI

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24
Q

What should be done if only leucocytes or neither leucocytes/nitrites are raised on a urine dip?

A

Potentially look for other focus of infection.

Only treat UTI if high clinical suspicion

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25
Q

Follow-up for UTI

When is it appropriate to refer to a specialist?

A

If not improved after 24-48 hours, review treatment and diagnosis

Follow up result of any urine sent for culture and review antibiotics

Refer urgently to specialist if:

  • Poor response to appropriate treatment
  • History/clinical features suggest urinary tract obstruction
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26
Q

What age group is affected by bronchiolitis?

A

Birth – 2 years

BUT most common in 1st year

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27
Q

What causes bronchiolitis?

A

Viral cause - ~75% RSV

Can be bacterial superinfection in more severe cases

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28
Q

Management of bronchiolitis

A
  1. Close fluid management (IV/NG/oral)
  2. Oxygen to maintain sats
    => may need CPAP/high flow nasal cannula oxygen

~15% of patients will require admission to intensive care for intubation/ventilation

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29
Q

What groups of children are typically affected by viral-induced wheeze?

A

Age 6 months – 5 years
=> Most will “grow out of it” before school

Association between passive smoking and severe disease.

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30
Q

What can cause viral induced wheeze?

A

All respiratory viruses

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31
Q

Management of viral-induced wheeze?

A

Fluids
Oxygen to maintain sats

Salbutamol (10 puffs MDI or nebuliser):
=> Hourly or back-to-back initially
=> Stretch to 2-hourly as tolerated
=> Can discharge when at 3-4 hourly

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32
Q

What is more likely with an older child presenting with viral-induced wheeze?

A

The child is more likely to present with asthma later on

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33
Q

What age group is affected by croup?

A

6 months – 6 years

most common age 2-3

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34
Q

what causes croup?

A

Parainfluenza most common cause, but possible with all respiratory viruses.

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35
Q

Management of croup

A

Fluids, antipyretics
Aim to keep child calm
Oxygen to maintain sats

Single dose of oral dexamethasone (or nebulised budesonide)

Nebulised adrenaline if inadequate response to steroids

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36
Q

What age group is affected by pneumonia?

A

All paediatric age range

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37
Q

What causes pneumonia?

A

Strep. pneumoniae,
Staph. aureus,
H. influenzae,

Some cases are likely to be viral, but cannot be distinguished clinically

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38
Q

Management of pneumonia

A

Fluids, oxygen to maintain sats.

Amoxicillin 1st line if uncomplicated CAP (5-7 days)

Benzylpenicillin/Cefuroxime if IV treatment needed

Consider macrolide if no response to 1st line treatment at 48h

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39
Q

What causes otitis media?

A

50% viral cause

Bacterial causes include:

  • S. pneumoniae
  • H. influenzae
  • S. pyogenes
  • M. catarrhalis
  • S. aureus
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40
Q

Management of otitis media

A

80% of cases resolve without treatment in ~4 days (regardless of cause)

Delayed Abx may be considered as this is as effective as immediate treatment
=> Amoxicillin – 5 days (clarithromycin if pen allergy)

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41
Q

when might immediate antibiotic treatment be considered in otitis media (instead of delayed Abx)?

A

in a systemically unwell child with fever, vomiting, pain for >48h and otorrhoea, and those with other comorbidities

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42
Q

What is the most common chronic illness affecting children?

A

Asthma

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43
Q

What is asthma?

A

An inflammatory condition, leading to reversible airway obstruction causing intermittent wheeze.

The airways narrow due to smooth muscle contraction and mucous hypersecretion

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44
Q

Symptoms of asthma

A

Cough, Wheeze, Breathlessness, Chest tightness

AND evidence of variability in airway obstruction

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45
Q

What are signs of poorly controlled asthma?

A

Increase in cough, SoB, wheeze
Difficulty walking/talking/sleeping
Reduced relief from/frequent use of SABA

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46
Q

What clinical features would increase the probability of a diagnosis of asthma?

A

Symptoms - frequent, worse at night/early morning, occur in response to triggers

Personal or family Hx of atopy

Widespread wheeze heard on auscultation

History of improvement of lung function in response to adequate therapy

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47
Q

What clinical features would decrease the probability of a diagnosis of asthma?

A

Symptoms with colds only, no interval symptoms

Isolated cough in the absence of wheeze/SoB

Dizziness/light-headedness/peripheral tingling

Normal PEF when symptomatic

No response to trial of asthma therapy

Clinical features pointing to alternative diagnosis

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48
Q

What PMHx may be relevant for asthma?

A

Atopy - hay fever, eczema

Recent URTI

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49
Q

What FHx may be relevant for asthma?

A

Atopy

Asthma

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50
Q

What SHx may be relevant for asthma?

A

Impact on daily activities/hobbies
Pets
Smoking
Parental smoking

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51
Q

Diagnosis of asthma

A

Normally based on history and examination

  • PEF - looking for reversibility/diurnal variation
  • Spirometry (only really from age 6+ due to technique)
  • ?IgE/skin prick tests for allergens
  • ?CXR to r/o other conditions
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52
Q

Non pharmacological management of asthma

A

trigger avoidance, breathing exercises

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53
Q

Pharmacological management of asthma

A

Step-wise approach - start with most appropriate therapy based on presenting severity

SABA as required, plus:

  1. very low dose ICS (or LTRA if <5 years)
  2. very low dose ICS plus LABA/LTRA
  3. consider increasing to low dose ICS
  4. Refer to specialist care for further therapies

Step up if using SABA >3 times per week.

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54
Q

What is defined as complete control of asthma?

A
  • No daytime symptoms
  • No night-time waking due to asthma
  • No need for rescue medication
  • No asthma attacks
  • No limitations on activity, including exercise.
  • Normal lung function (FEV1 and/or PEF >80% predicted)
  • Minimal side effects from medication
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55
Q

Actions of Salbutamol

A

Relieve acute breathlessness by relaxing bronchial smooth muscle

Duration of action = 3-6 hours (maximum effect at 30mins)

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56
Q

Side effects of salbutamol

A

Palpitations, tremor
Vasodilatation,
Hypokalaemia,
Muscle cramps

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57
Q

What would you expect to see on the U&Es of a patient on back-to-back salbutamol nebs?

A

hypokalaemia

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58
Q

Actions of inhaled corticosteroids

A

Provide control of the disease by reducing airway inflammation

Symptoms alleviated after ~3-7 days from initiation

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59
Q

When are ICS considered in asthma?

A

Any child who is:

  • Using SABA ≥3 times/week
  • Symptomatic ≥3 times/week
  • Waking one night a week
  • Aged 5-12 years with an exacerbation requiring oral steroids in the last 2 years
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60
Q

Adverse effects of ICS

A

Local - oral candidiasis, hoarseness, infections

Systemic - growth restrictions, osteoporosis, acute adrenal crisis

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61
Q

Use of LABAs in asthma

A

Limited evidence for use <5 years, and not licensed for <4 years

Added on to therapy with ICS (not used alone)

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62
Q

Why should a LABA only be used alongside inhaled steroids?

A

LABA alone causes increased risk of asthma-related death

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63
Q

Use of LTRAs (e.g. montelukast) in asthma

A

Reduce inflammation and hyper-responsiveness

Regular preventative therapy – alternative to/in addition to ICS

Less effective than ICS alone or ICS plus LABA in children >5

Rare adverse event: Churg-Strauss syndrome

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64
Q

Churg-Strauss syndrome

A

= a rare form of systemic vasculitis:

eosinophilia, 
vasculitic rash, 
worsening pulmonary symptoms, 
cardiac complications
peripheral neuropathy
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65
Q

What are the issues around using aminophylline/theophylline in managing asthma?

A

Narrow therapeutic range – target plasma levels between 10-20mg/L.

Side effects within therapeutic range – nausea, headache, insomnia, palpitations, arrythmias

At toxic levels – arrythmias and seizures

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66
Q

Indications for use of oral steroids in asthma

A
  1. Acute exacerbation – 3-5 days short course

2. Chronic severe asthma – when response to other drugs is inadequate (high dose ICS continued to reduce oral dose).

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67
Q

Stopping oral steroids used for asthma

A

can be stopped abruptly, UNLESS:

  • Course >3 weeks
  • Already on maintenance oral corticosteroids
  • Repeated short courses.
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68
Q

Use of monoclonal antibody (e.g. Omalizumab) in asthma

A

s.c. injection every 2-4 weeks depending on the patient’s IgE level and weight

Reduces the steroid burden for the patient, without increasing the risk of adverse events

mAb forms complexes with free IgE and prevents its interaction with these receptors

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69
Q

What is important to remember when prescribing salbutamol

A

State the dose, frequency, and max number of doses in 24h explicitly to the child/parents

“as required drug” in a hospital drug chart

route - inhaled or via nebuliser

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70
Q

What is important to remember when prescribing ICS

A

Prescribe by BRAND!
Important to put brand name and dose

regular prescription on drug chart

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71
Q

What is important to remember when prescribing a LABA

A

regular prescription on drug chart

Often in combination inhalers (e.g. seretide)

Do not initiate in rapidly deteriorating asthma

Initiate at a low dose and check effect before increasing – review effect regularly

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72
Q

Benefits of using a spacer in asthma

A
  • Remove the need for coordination – tidal breathing is effective.
  • Reduce risk of oral infection from ICS
  • Suitable for managing mild/moderate exacerbations.
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73
Q

Stepping down asthma treatment

A

Review regularly and titrate steroids down if possible.

Do not step-down treatment if ongoing symptoms and needing reliever, or if they have had a recent exacerbation

If there is symptom control - reduce ICS dose slowly
(e.g. by 25-30% every 3 months)

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74
Q

Severe asthma exacerbation

A
SpO2 <92%
PEF 33-50%
Tachypnoea
Tachycardia
Audible wheeze
Accessory muscle use
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75
Q

Signs/symptoms suggesting a life-threatening asthma attack

A
SpO2 <92%
PEF <33%
RR reduced (exhaustion)
Tachycardia
Silent chest
Cyanosis
Altered consciousness/confusion
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76
Q

Life-threatening asthma exacerbation - “CHEST”

A
Cyanosis
Hypotension
Exhaustion
Silent chest
Tachycardia
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77
Q

Mild-moderate Asthma exacerbation - management

A

Admission if poor response
SABA via spacer (up to 10 puffs every 2 mins)
Consider PO prednisolone

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78
Q

Moderate-severe Asthma exacerbation - management

A

Admission
O2 via mask (if sats <94%)
SABA via nebuliser (if on O2)
PO prednisolone 20mg

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79
Q

life-threatening Asthma exacerbation - management

A

Initially

  • Urgent admission
  • O2 (if sats <94%)
  • SABA + ipratropium via nebuliser (every 20-30 minutes)
  • PO prednisolone / IV hydrocortisone

If no improvement:

  • Contact PICU for review
  • IV treatments – magnesium, aminophylline
  • Blood gases
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80
Q

When can a patient be discharged after admission for an asthma exacerbation?

A

May be discharged when off nebulisers and >4 hours between inhalers:

  • Continue SABA PRN
  • Continue prednisolone PO for 3-5 days.

GP follow-up in 48 hours

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81
Q

What is the difference between normal saline and Hartmann’s solution?

A

Hartmann’s is considered to be more “physiological” than Normal Saline as it contains other electrolytes in concentrations similar to plasma.

Both are distributed in the intra-vascular and interstitial spaces, making them useful for both resuscitation and fluid maintenance.

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82
Q

How to calculate fluid requirements in children?

A

First 10kg weight => 100 mL/kg OR 4 mL/kg/hour

Second 10kg weight => 50 mL/kg OR 2 mL/kg/hour

All additional Kg weight => 20 mL/kg OR 1 mL/kg/hour

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83
Q

Which solutions should be used for maintenance fluids in children?

A

Isotonic crystalloids that contain sodium in the range 131-154 mmol/L must be used as first line maintenance fluids and for resuscitation, commonly used with 5% glucose

AVOID fluids with low/no saline

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84
Q

Why should fluids with no/low saline be avoided for maintenance fluids in children?

A

Children are more prone to dilutional hyponatraemia than adults

Increased ADH production during illness causes retention of water, and thereby increased risk of dilutional hyponatraemia

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85
Q

Monitoring for IV fluids

A

Check U&Es at least daily (every 4-6 hours if abnormal)

Assess fluid balance (input vs output) and hydration status

Check blood glucose at least every 12 hours

If hyponatraemia symptoms – check U&Es, glucose and serum osmolality immediately

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86
Q

Dilutional Hyponatraemia

A

the most common electrolyte abnormality seen in patients on IV fluids

Predominantly neurological symptoms – seizures, drowsiness, confusion.

Hyponatraemic seizures (usually generalized tonic-clonic) are a medical emergency

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87
Q

Recognising hyponatraemia

A

Na+ of 130-135 is often asymptomatic

Na+ <130 is mainly neurological symptoms:

  • Headache
  • N+V
  • Lethargy, irritability
  • Hyporeflexia
  • Decreased conscious state
  • Seizures
  • Dry, inelastic Skin
  • Apnoea
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88
Q

How much potassium should be added to IV fluids?

A

If K+ serum level is in range when starting fluids, aim to give about 1mmol/kg/day
=> split across fluid bags and then adjust according to U&Es

If K+ serum level is unknown when starting fluids – give with caution/avoid until serum level known and urine output established

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89
Q

How can you recognise dehydration in a child?

A

Gold standard = acute weight loss

Normally just estimated clinically:

3 groups to consider:

  1. No clinically detectable dehydration
  2. Clinical Dehydration
  3. Clinical Shock – ~10% dehydrated.
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90
Q

What features might suggest clinical dehydration?

A

Tachycardia
CRT >2s
Decreased skin turgor
Tachypnoea

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91
Q

What features might suggest clinical shock in a dehydrated child?

A
Weak pulses
CRT >3s
Decreased skin turgor
Hypotension
Decreased consciousness
Very tachycardic
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92
Q

Management of a child who is clinically dehydrated

A

ORT 50ml/kg over 4 hours PLUS maintenance fluid (via NG tube if needed)

Use IV fluids if child deteriorates despite ORT/persistent vomiting of anything given PO or NG tube

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93
Q

Management of a child who is clinically shocked

A

Sodium chloride 0.9% 20mL/kg IV bolus
=> repeat if remains shocked
=> refer to PICU if shocked after 2nd bolus

One shock resolved, commence IV deficit replacement

Attempt to stop IV fluids early, with gradual introduction of ORT during IV fluids.

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94
Q

What is the size of an IV fluid bolus in a child?

A

20 mL/kg

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95
Q

Oral Rehydration Therapy

A

Dioralyte – 1 sachet in 200ml.

  • Under 5 years – aim for 50mL/kg over 4 hours, plus maintenance volume.
  • Over 5 years – 200mL after each loose stool (in addition to normal fluid intake)
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96
Q

How to calculate IV fluid replacement

A

if shocked, then add 100 ml/kg to maintenance and give over 24 hours

if not shocked, add 50 mL/kg to maintenance and give over 24 hours

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97
Q

Fluid choice for resuscitation vs replacement

A

Resuscitation – isotonic crystalloid without glucose.

Replacement – isotonic crystalloid with glucose.

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98
Q

HYPERtonic dehydration

How is this caused?
Presentation?
How is it corrected?

A

Na+ >150

Can occur through severe, acute water loss.
More commonly occurs by parents making up feeds incorrectly

Child often hungry, but few signs of dehydration. Skin can be “doughy” and metabolic acidosis present.

Aim for correction over 48 hours and fall of <0.5 mmol/L Na+ per hour.

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99
Q

HYPOtonic dehydration

A

Na+ <130

Usually dilutional
Child lethargic and skin dry/inelastic

Give maintenance fluids plus deficit as calculated, checking U&Es every 4 hours.

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100
Q

how should hypertonic dehydration NOT be managed?

A

DO NOT manage hypertonic dehydration with fluid with no sodium – rapid drops in serum sodium causes a relatively high CSF sodium, attracting water into the CSF (can be fatal).

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101
Q

How is the foetal circulation different to “normal” circulation?

A
  • Left atrium pressure is low, as little return from the lungs
  • Right atrium pressure is high, as it receives all systemic blood (including from placenta).
  • RA pressure keeps foramen ovale open, and blood flows from RA to LA.
  • Blood also bypasses lungs by flowing through the ductus arteriosus.
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102
Q

How does the foetal circulation change at birth?

A

Decreased pulmonary resistance => more blood into LA => increased LA pressure

Loss of placental circulation => decreased RA pressure

Foramen ovale closes

Ductus arteriosus closes within the first few hours/days

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103
Q

What are “duct-dependent lesions?”

A

In severe left-sided obstructions, blood flow through the ductus arteriosus is critical for survival.

There will be a dramatic deterioration when the duct closes

=> Tetralogy Of Fallot, TGA, HLHS, aortic stenosis/coarctation

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104
Q

Congenital heart disease - Holes

A

atrial septal defect (ASD)
ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD)

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105
Q

Congenital heart disease - pipes/valves

A

Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
Aortic/pulmonary stenosis
Coarctation of the aorta

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106
Q

Congenital heart disease - CYANOTIC diseases

A
Transposition of Great Arteries (TGA)
Tetralogy of fallot
Hypoplastic left heart
Tricuspid Atresia
Pulmonary Atresia
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107
Q

How can congenital heart conditions present?

A
  1. Antenatal cardiac USS diagnosis (at 20 weeks)
  2. Detection of a heart murmur
  3. Heart failure
  4. Cyanosis
  5. Shock and collapse
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108
Q

Innocent heart murmurs

A

30% of children will have at some point (often during febrile illness/anaemia)

= Soft, Systolic, Sternal Edge, Asymptomatic, No thrills and normal CXR/ECG

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109
Q

Presentation of atrial septal defect

A

Child will generally be fairly well

Often presents when the child visits the GP for another reason and a murmur is heard = EJECTION SYSTOLIC murmur (split S2)

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110
Q

Why are ASD/VSDs and PDA not cyanotic diseases?

A

Left-to-right shunt => no cyanosis

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111
Q

Atrial septal defect - Investigations

A

ECG - potentially partial RBBB/right axis deviation

CXR - pulmonary oedema, cardiomegaly

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112
Q

Is patent foramen ovale an ASD?

A

It is a normal variation of the anatomy

Fairly common and goes unnoticed.

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113
Q

Atrial septal defect - Management

A

Usually no urgent treatment required

Can close spontaneously
Keyhole or surgical procedure to close it at ~4 years

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114
Q

What is the most common congenital heart defect?

A

VSD

2nd most common = coarctation of aorta

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115
Q

When is a VSD normally found?

A
  1. Identified as incidental finding at 6-week baby check (by that point the right-sided pressure has come down and the murmur will be audible)
  2. Failure to thrive.
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116
Q

What type of murmur occurs with a VSD?

A

= Pansystolic

The volume of the murmur does not correlate well with the size

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117
Q

Ventricular septal defect - Investigations

A

ECG – Right axis deviation and biventricular hypertrophy.

CXR – pulmonary oedema, cardiomegaly

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118
Q

Ventricular septal defect - Management

A

Can resolve spontaneously

Surgery to fix at <1 year.

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119
Q

What is Maladie de Roger ?

A

A very small VSD

=> High pitched squeaking sound

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120
Q

What is Eisenmenger’s Syndrome?

A

Long standing left-to-right shunt (e.g. untreated VSD) causes right ventricular hypertrophy

Eventually this leads to reversal of the shunt to a cyanotic right-to-left shunt.

Incidence of Eisenmenger’s is decreasing - earlier diagnosis and management

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121
Q

What genetic condition is strongly associated with AVSD?

A

Trisomy 21

90% of AVSDs will be in children with Down’s

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122
Q

What type of murmur occurs with an AVSD?

A

= Pansystolic murmur

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123
Q

Atrioventricular septal defect - Investigations

A

ECG – superior (north-west) axis

CXR – pulmonary oedema, cardiomegaly

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124
Q

Atrioventricular septal defect - Management

A

Surgery <6 months

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125
Q

Patent Ductus Arteriosus

A

= Failure of duct closure by 1 month after estimated date of delivery (not pathological if pre-term).

Blood flows from the aorta to the pulmonary artery (i.e. a left-to-right shunt)

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126
Q

Presentation of PDA

A

Normally asymptomatic

Can have heart failure and pulmonary hypertension if duct is large

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127
Q

What type of murmur occurs with PDA?

A

A continuous, “machinery-like” murmur

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128
Q

Patent Ductus Arteriosus - Investigations

A

Echo – shows patent duct

CXR and ECG – usually normal

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129
Q

Patent Ductus Arteriosus - Management

A

Ibuprofen
Surgical tying
Closure with coil/occlusion device

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130
Q

What is aortic Stenosis?

What can it be associated with?

A

= Narrowed/deformed aortic valve

Can be associated with bicuspid aortic valve, Turner’s Syndrome

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131
Q

When does aortic stenosis normally present?

A

If Critical – shortly after birth with collapse

If Mild – chest pain on exercise

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132
Q

Presentation of aortic stenosis

A

Inadequate cardiac output leads to shock presentation:

  • Globally poor peripheral pulses
  • Tachypnoea
  • Mottled/grey appearance
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133
Q

Aortic stenosis - on examination

A

loud ejection systolic murmur,

Right sternal edge (2nd ICS) radiates to the carotid arteries

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134
Q

Aortic stenosis - Investigations

A

ECG – left axis deviation, left ventricular hypertrophy

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135
Q

What is pulmonary stenosis?

What can it be associated with?

A

= Narrowed/deformed pulmonary valve.

Can be associated with Noonan’s Syndrome and William’s syndrome

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136
Q

Pulmonary stenosis - on examination

A

Murmur – ejection systolic murmur at left sternal edge

RV heave

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137
Q

Pulmonary stenosis - Investigations

A

ECG – RV hypertrophy

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138
Q

What is coarctation of the aorta?

What can it be associated with?

A

= narrowing of the aorta,
usually distal to the branches supplying the upper limbs

Can be associated with bicuspid aortic valve and Turner’s syndrome

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139
Q

How does coarctation of the aorta present?

A

Affects lower limbs, not upper limbs – Absent femoral pulses

Lack of blood flow to the rest of the body => renal failure/gut ischaemia

Can cause back up of flow into LV, eventually causing cardiac failure

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140
Q

Coarctation - on examination

A

ejection systolic murmur, heard between shoulder blades

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141
Q

Coarctation - management

A

Resuscitation

Cardiac catheterisation – balloon or stent

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142
Q

What is transposition of the great arteries?

A

Aorta connected to the RV, and pulmonary artery connected to the LV.
=> Incompatible with life, unless blood can mix.

There will be CYANOSIS when ductus arteriosus closes (around day 2)

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143
Q

transposition of the great arteries - on examination

A

Cyanosis without tachypnoea.

One loud, single 2nd heart sound.

May be a murmur if another defect is present, but often no murmur.

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144
Q

transposition of the great arteries - Investigations

A

Echo – visualise abnormalities

ECG – usually normal

CXR – “egg on a side” outline of heart, increased pulmonary markings

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145
Q

transposition of the great arteries - Management

A

Maintain duct patency – prostaglandin analogue

Balloon atrial septostomy – create hole in atrial septum to allow blood mixing.

Arterial switch procedure – pulmonary a. and aorta transected and switched, performed <4 weeks.

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146
Q

What are the four cardinal features of Tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  1. Large VSD
  2. Aorta overriding the ventricular septum (receives blood from both ventricles)
  3. Sub-pulmonary stenosis (= RV outflow obstruction)
  4. RV hypertrophy (as a result of RV outflow obstruction)
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147
Q

what genetic condition can Tetralogy of Fallot be associated with?

A

DiGeorge Syndrome

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148
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot - On Examination

A

CYANOSIS in 1st week
=> Variable – can have pink/blue fallot

Loud, harsh ejection systolic murmur (VSD and PS)

Clubbing (older children)

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149
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot - Investigations

A

Echo – shows cardinal features
CXR – small, “boot-shaped” heart
ECG – RV hypertrophy

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150
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot - Management

A

Maintain duct patency

Surgery at 6 months – close VSD, relieve RV outflow obstruction.

Treatment of hyper-cyanotic “TET spells”

  • Knees to chest, sedation, pain relief (morphine)
  • O2 +/- ventilation
  • IV propranolol (to relax RV)
  • IV fluids
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151
Q

What are TET SPELLS?

A

= worsening of right-to-left shunt

During exertion/crying/agitation causing increased pulmonary resistance

Causes cyanotic episodes

If severe = drowsy, seizures, death.

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152
Q

What is hypoplastic left heart and how does it present?

A

= underdeveloped left heart (including aorta).

Often detected antenatally so symptoms are prevented, but symptoms can be:

  • Profound acidosis and CV collapse
  • Weakness of all peripheral pulses
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153
Q

Hypoplastic Left Heart - management

A

Norwood procedure (3-stage surgery)

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154
Q

Cardiac Failure in children - signs and symptoms

What is an important differential to consider?

A

Signs and symptoms:

  • Failure to thrive
  • Breathlessness (especially when feeding)
  • Sweating when feeding
  • Ventricular Heave
  • Backlog of pressure – crackles on lungs, big liver

Differential – SEPSIS!

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155
Q

Management of cardiac failure

A

Diuretics, inotropes, treat cause

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156
Q

Supraventricular Tachycardia - signs/symptoms

A

= HR 250-300bpm

Signs/Symptoms:

  • Dizziness, palpitations, chest pains, SoB
  • Tachyarrhythmia (abnormal, fast HR)
  • Heart failure (pulmonary oedema, increased RR)
  • Hydrops fetalis (abnormal fluid accumulation), causes intrauterine death.
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157
Q

Supraventricular Tachycardia - Investigations

A
  • ECG – 250-300bpm and narrow QRS (P-waves often hidden)

- Echo – to r/o structural problem

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158
Q

Supraventricular Tachycardia - Management

A
  1. Acute:
    • Circulatory and respiratory support
    • Carotid sinus massage/ice pack on face (successful in ~80%)
    • IV adenosine (induces AV block)
    • Electrical cardioversion with synchronised defib shock.
  2. Maintenance:
    • Flecainide or Sotalol
    • Radiofrequency ablation/cryoablation
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159
Q

What is myocarditis?

What causes it?

A

= Inflammation of the myocardium

Usually due to infection, but also drug reaction/ chemicals/ radiation

Common viral causes = parvovirus, influenza, adenovirus, rubella, HIV

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160
Q

Myocarditis - signs/symptoms

A

Fever/malaise

Non-specific Sx of heart failure: SoB, cough, chest pain, oedema, pallor

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161
Q

Myocarditis - Management

A

Usually resolves spontaneously

Diuretics, ACEi, Beta blocker (carvedilol)

Severe cases may need heart transplant

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162
Q

What is Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis?

Most common cause in children?
Biggest risk factor in children?

A

= Slowly developing infection of the endocardium.

Alpha-haemolytic strep is the most common cause in children

Congenital heart defects are a BIG risk factor (especially VSD, PDA, coarctation)

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163
Q

Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis - symptoms

A

Fever, malaise and a NEW murmur

Also:

  • Anaemia/pallor
  • Arthritic/arthralgia
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164
Q

Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis - signs

A

Microscopic haematuria

+/- splinter haemorrhages

+/- Osler’s nodes, Janeway lesions, Roth spots

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165
Q

Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis - Investigations

A

Blood cultures (before starting Abx)

Echo – visualise vegetations

Bloods – anaemia, increased ESR/CRP

Urine dip – microscopic haematuria.

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166
Q

Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis - Management

A

Abx

=> high dose IV penicillin + gentamicin for 6 weeks

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167
Q

when is the neonatal period?

A

<28 days

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168
Q

When is a child considered pre-term?

A

Born <37 weeks

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169
Q

When is a child considered post-term?

A

Born >42 weeks

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170
Q

What is considered low birthweight?

A

<2500g

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171
Q

What is considered very low birthweight?

A

<1500g

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172
Q

What is considered extremely low birthweight?

A

<1000g

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173
Q

Respiratory Transition in the newborn

A

Alveoli will transition from fluid-filled to air-filled in order to survive without the placenta.

  1. Fluid resorption starts before birth through lymphatics and circulatory system.
  2. Some fluid is squeezed out during labour.
  3. Breathing is stimulated by cold/touch/light and loss of placental gas transfer.

Babies take large, deep breaths (crying).

To keep the lungs open, you need to overcome the surface tension in the alveoli (surfactant is needed for this).

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174
Q

Positive end-expiratory Pressure (PEEP)

A

= the pressure in the lungs (alveolar pressure) above atmospheric pressure, that exists at the end of expiration

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175
Q

Extrinsic/Applied PEEP

A

applied by a ventilator

= used for most mechanically ventilated patients to prevent end-expiratory alveolar collapse

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176
Q

Intrinsic/Auto PEEP

A

caused by incomplete exhalation
=> causes air trapping (hyper- inflation).

Develops commonly in hyperventilation, obstructed airway or increased airway resistance

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177
Q

What are causes of respiratory distress in neonates?

A

Respiratory Distress Syndrome

Meconium aspiration Syndrome

Infection

Pneumothorax

Congenital Causes

Transient tachypnoea of newborn (TTN)

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178
Q

Meconium aspiration Syndrome

A

Distress causes the baby to inhale meconium, which is toxic to the lungs.

Meconium is present at delivery

RFs - post-term delivery

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179
Q

What are the potential issues associated with prematurity?

A

Respiratory Distress Syndrome
Chronic lung disease

Retinopathy of prematurity
Intracranial haemorrhage
Long-term neurodisability

Temperature control (hypothermia)

Infection

Hypotension
Patent Ductus Arteriosus
Bradycardia

Metabolic problems (Hypoglycaemia, Hypocalcaemia, Metabolic bone disease of prematurity)

Feeding difficulties
Necrotising Enterocolitis
GORD

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180
Q

why is intracranial haemorrhage a problem in pre-term infants?

A

The pre-term brain is very susceptible to bleeding

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181
Q

What is early-onset sepsis?

What organisms usually cause it?

A

Sepsis that starts near the time of delivery

Group B Streptococcus (Strep agalactaie)
E. coli
H. influenzae
Listeria monocytogenes

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182
Q

Group B strep infection of the newborn

A

= most common cause of neonatal infection (sepsis/meningitis/pneumonia)

Infection is prevented by giving antibiotics >2 hours before delivery

Infection is treated with benzylpenicillin and gentamicin

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183
Q

Investigations in suspected sepsis in a newborn

A

The “sepsis screen”:

  • Blood culture
  • Urine – SPA/clean catch
  • Lumbar puncture
  • CXR
  • FBC, CRP
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184
Q

Why would a child need IV maintenance fluids?

A

if NBM or not taking enough orally

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185
Q

What is a risk with 0.9% saline that is less of a risk with Hartmann’s solution

A

0.9% saline has increased risk of hyperchloraemia

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186
Q

How do you calculate a child’s fluid deficit ?

A

Deficit (mL) = % dehydration x bodyweight (kg) x 10

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187
Q

“Bottom shufflers”

A

replacement for crawling

Child may not have tolerated tummy time therefore less development of arms, neck and back.

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188
Q

what are the developmental red flags?

A

No responsive smile by 8 weeks

Not achieved good eye contact by 3 months
Not reaching for objects by 5 months
Not sitting unsupported by 9 months

Not walking unaided by 18 months
Not saying single words with meaning by 18 months

No two/three word sentences by 30 months

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189
Q

What are the neurodevelopmental conditions?

A
  • ADHD
  • ASD
  • Intellectual disability
  • Cerebral palsy
  • Attachment disorders
  • Mood disorders
  • Anxiety Disorders
  • Impulse control disorders
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190
Q

What is ADHD?

What factors are needed for a diagnosis?

A

Inattention and hyperactivity/ impulsivity

Occurring <12 years and lasting >6 months
Occurring in 2 settings (e.g. home and school)

Interfering with social, academic or occupational functioning

Not explained by another disorder (e.g. oppositional defiant disorder)

Often also difficulties with emotional regulation and executive function

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191
Q

Epidemiology of ADHD

A

M>F 4:1 in childhood

50% of children with ADHD will have ADHD as an adult
=> M:F 1:1 in adulthood

Strong genetic component (multiple genes)

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192
Q

What FHx of ADHD increases the risk of a child having it?

A

1st degree relatives 4-5x more likely to have ADHD

10-fold risk among siblings of individuals with combined type

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193
Q

ADHD - pathophysiology

A

Linked to dysregulation of dopamine + noradrenaline in the brain

=> Dopamine involved in reward, risk-taking, impulsivity, mood.

=> NA involved in attention, arousal, mood

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194
Q

Pharmacological Rx of ADHD

A

1st line = methylphenidate (Equasym/Concerta/Ritalin)

=> MOA: blocks dopamine and noradrenaline transporters to increase the concentration within synapse

Taken around breakfast time; covers school hours

Prolonged action preparations available for home symptoms later in the day

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195
Q

What are the side effects of methylphenidate used in ADHD?

How are these prevented/managed?

A
  • Suppression of appetite, causing impaired growth (good breakfast, 3 meals + snacks; monitor weight + height)
  • Hypertension (monitor BP)
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196
Q

Non-pharmacological Rx of ADHD

A

ADHD medication is unlikely to have significant impact on behaviour without parenting support and access to behavioural management advice

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197
Q

What 3 areas are impaired in autistic spectrum disorder?

A
  1. Social & emotional interaction
  2. Imagination and flexibility of thought
  3. Social communication and language

May also have sensory difficulties (inc. touch, noise, light, smell, movement, food textures)

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198
Q

Autistic Spectrum Disorder - epidemiology

A
  • Incidence – 1 in 100
  • M>F 4:1 (but may be under-recognised in girls)
  • Strong genetic component
  • Can be a component of other conditions (e.g Rett syndrome, Fragile X, tuberous sclerosis, Down Syndrome, William Syndrome and many others)
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199
Q

Autistic Spectrum Disorder - management

A

No pharmacological Rx for autism itself (though melatonin may help with sleep disturbance)

Management centred around behavioural strategies, parental support and optimising environment to allow development

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200
Q

Intellectual disability

A

Affects ~1% of population

Variable severities of disability

Characterised by deficits in intellectual functioning (e.g. communication, learning, problem solving) and adaptive behaviour (e.g. social skills, routines, hygiene)

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201
Q

IQ testing to quantify intellectual impairment

A

Mild <70
Moderate <50
Profound <35
Severe <20

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202
Q

Intellectual disability - management

A
  • Identification of co-existing medical conditions
  • Family support
  • Behavioural support
  • Educational support
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203
Q

Educational, Health and Care Plans

A

A legal document

Describes a child’s educational, health and social care needs.

Details extra help that will be provided to meet those needs and how that help will support the child to achieve what they want to in their life.

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204
Q

Normal Pubertal Onset in F and M?

A

Girls – before age 8 is early, after 13 is late

Boys – before age 9 is early, after 14 is late.

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205
Q

How is bone age classically identified?

A

By an X-ray of the left wrist

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206
Q

Surgical assessment of acute abdominal pain

A

All patients require a full history and examination.

Girls - include a gynae history and pregnancy test if pubertal.

Boys - requires a testicular examination as it is a source of referred pain.

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207
Q

Management of acute abdominal pain

A

Most management plans will include analgesia, nil by mouth, IV access, bloods, fluids and imaging if necessary

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208
Q

Idiopathic abdominal pain

A

accounts for 30-40% of referrals to paediatric surgery,

It is a diagnosis of exclusion and requires careful review

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209
Q

Very common causes of acute abdominal pain

A
Gastroenteritis
Acute appendicitis
UTI
Constipation
Mesenteric Adenitis
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210
Q

Less common causes of acute abdominal pain

A
Strangulated Hernia
Intussusception
Pancreatitis
Intestinal Obstruction 
Lower Lobe pneumonia
DKA
Henoch-schonlein Purpura
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211
Q

Rare causes of acute abdominal pain

A
Haemophilia
Lead poisoning 
Acute porphyria
Sickle-cell anaemia
Herpes Zoster
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212
Q

What is the most common reason for acute surgical intervention?

A

Appendicitis

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213
Q

What is the typical presentation of appendicitis if the appendix is located in RIF, anterior to bowel?

A
  • obvious RIF tenderness, guarding, rebound tenderness.
  • In this position the diagnosis is typically easy to make and made early as it is the anterior peritoneum that is inflamed, and the symptoms localised.
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214
Q

What is the typical presentation of appendicitis if the appendix is located in RIF, posterior to bowel?

A
  • Vague deep tenderness, can have guarding, may develop mass or perforation before diagnosis.
  • This is a hard diagnosis to make and often delayed in presentation.
  • The posterior peritoneum is inflamed and/or psoas muscle (giving the child the desire to limp to alleviate the pain).
  • Few anterior abdominal wall signs.
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215
Q

What is the typical presentation of appendicitis if the appendix is located in the pelvis?

A
  • Vague suprapubic tenderness, with no guarding.
  • PR exam may illicit tenderness or a mass.
  • Possible to have urinary/bowel symptoms due to irritation of these structures.
  • Commonly perforated as it is hardest to diagnose and present late.
  • Few anterior abdominal wall signs.
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216
Q

Management of suspected appendicitis?

A

Bloods and IV fluids,

Urine dip,
Good analgesia - Paracetamol and IV morphine if needed.

Consider NG tube,
Consider antibiotics

Contact the relevant on call surgical team.
=> the mainstay of treatment is surgery

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217
Q

What is the average morbidity from appendicitis?

A

10%

due to post operative collections, prolonged stay, wound infections, adhesional obstruction.

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218
Q

when are most abdominal wall defect discovered?

A

in antenatal scans

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219
Q

What is gastroschisis?

A

A congenital defect of the abdominal wall, usually to the right of the umbilical cord insertion.

Abdominal contents herniate into the amniotic sac, usually just involving the small intestine but sometimes also the stomach, colon and ovaries.

There is no covering membrane.

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220
Q

What is a risk factor for gastroschisis?

Any associated conditions?

A

More commonly seen with younger maternal age

Commonly an isolated anomly however, it may be associated with Arthrogryposis

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221
Q

Gastroschisis - acute management

A

careful fluid balance, IV antibiotics and placing lower half of body in a protective bag.

=> Prevent temperature and fluid losses as well as reducing infection risk.

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222
Q

What is Exomphalos?

A

A congenital abnormality in which the contents of the abdomen herniate into the umbilical cord through the umbilical ring.

The viscera, which often includes the liver, is covered by a thin membrane consisting of peritoneum and amnion

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223
Q

Are any conditions associated with exomphalos?

A

Commonly associated with other abnormalities, therefore examination and investigation for genetic abnormalities may be required.

=> Associations with trisomy 13, 15 and 18 as well as Beckwith Wiedemann syndrome are well documented.

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224
Q

Exomphalos - acute management

A
  • Careful fluid balance

* IV antibiotics.

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225
Q

What is the estimated blood volume of a child?

A

= 80 mL/kg

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226
Q

What is the estimated weight of a child?

A

< 9 years = 2 x (age +4)

> 9 years = 3 x age

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227
Q

What might be considered a better fluid bolus in trauma?

A

10 mL/kg as there is a risk of disturbing a potential clot and exacerbating further bleeding.

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228
Q

Managing blood loss

A

Blood replacement:

  • give type specific blood as a bolus and then reassess to see if more is required.
  • When type specific blood isn’t available then O negative blood is adequate.

Before blood products are available then saline 0.9% is a good resuscitation fluid

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229
Q

What is intussusception?

Where does it normally occur?

A

= a type of bowel obstruction, normally occurs in the ileocaecal region

occurs when one segment of the bowel invaginates into another segment just distal to it, the venous blood flow is restricted, swelling occurs and it becomes stuck. This causes obstruction.

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230
Q

Intussusception - presentation

A

Pain (80-90%):
- Often colicky in nature

Vomiting (90%):
- Will often progress to becoming bile stained.

Abdominal mass (70%)
-	Sausage shaped mass in RUQ

Lethargy/hypotonia (70%)
- a non-specific symptom.

Shock

Altered Stool (55%):
- “Redcurrant jelly” stools (a late sign)
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231
Q

What are the 3 “food signs” of intussusception?

A

Sausage-shaped mass in RUQ
Donut sign on USS
Redcurrent jelly stools

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232
Q

Causes of intussuception

A
Idiopathic, 
Meckel's diverticulum, 
Polyps, 
Peutz-Jegher's, 
Tumours, 
Inflamed appendix, 
Foreign body, 
Peyer's patch hypertrophy.
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233
Q

Intussuception - management

A

A-E Assessment – stabilise the child.

Surgical involvement is necessary – air reduction enema +/- laparotomy.

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234
Q

Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia

A

when the normal diaphragm process is incomplete and the bowel herniates through and into the thoracic cavity.

This pressure can then stop the lung buds from being able to form into normal lungs (the earlier it occurs, the more impact it has on the developing lung)

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235
Q

When is the diaphragm normally fully formed during foetal development?

A

by 20 weeks, along with gut and lung formation

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236
Q

Do left or right sided diaphragmatic hernias have a better prognosis?

A

Left sided have a better prognosis than right sided (due to the solidity of the liver on the right side preventing the development of lung).

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237
Q

Can a congenital diaphragmatic hernia be detected on antenatal scans?

A

Mostly, yes

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238
Q

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia - management

A

Early recognition

intubation without bag and mask ventilation (to not inflate the stomach) and to watch and wait for the first 48 hours.

If the child is stable enough after this period of time then they will have the defect repaired surgically through either a lateral thoracotomy of through an abdominal approach.

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239
Q

Oesophageal Atresia / TOF

A

= incorrect development of the oesophagus so that the lumen is no longer patent.

As part of this anomaly the oesophagus can make an incorrect attachment to the trachea and create a tracheo-oesophageal fistula.

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240
Q

Can oesophageal atresia / TOF be identified antenatally?

A

Less well identified antenatally

often suspected when a newborn child either wont feed, vomits, has lots of salivary secretions and/or respiratory distress

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241
Q

Management of oesophageal atresia / TOF

A

Surgical intervention is performed to reconnect the two ends of the oesophagus and allow feeding to commence,

However when a child is unstable the most pressing issue is to disconnect the fistula.

=> Both procedures are typically performed through a right lateral thoracotomy.

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242
Q

Common causes of Neonatal Bowel Obstruction

A

Hirschsprung’s Disease

Necrotising enterocolitis

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243
Q

Less common causes of Neonatal Bowel Obstruction

A
Small bowel atresia
Imperforate anus
Duodenal atresia/stenosis
Malrotation with volvulus
Meconium Ileus
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244
Q

Duodenal atresia

A

= narrowing of duodenum

Can have different types ranging from a narrowed lumen to several discrete atretic segments with separated blood supply.

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245
Q

bile stained vomit in duodenal atresia

A

If the atresia occurs prior to the midpoint of the second part of the duodenum then the vomiting won’t be bile stained.
=> This can sometimes delay the diagnosis by several days and result in a very sick child.

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246
Q

Duodenal atresia - management

A
  1. resuscitate the child

2. intervene to remove the atretic segment and try and restore bowel continuity

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247
Q

Small Bowel Atresia

A

= narrowing of small bowel

This can be caused by thrombo-embolus, volvulus or intussusception

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248
Q

Small Bowel Atresia - management

and outcome?

A
  1. resuscitate the child
  2. intervene to remove the atretic segment and try and restore bowel continuity.
    => Sometimes this isn’t possible and a stoma is formed.

If the child loses a significant portion of bowel then they may never be able to absorb enough nutrients and have a life dependant on total parenteral nutrition

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249
Q

what is necrotising enterocolitis?

A

Inflammation and necrosis of intestinal tissue

More common in premature babies

Results from immature guts not being able to stop translocation of gut flora.

Can cause sudden and dramatic deterioration and death

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250
Q

Necrotising enterocolitis - management

A

Early recognition => triple antibiotic therapy and NBM

Surgical intervention may be required to remove non-functional bowel and restore continuity or create a stoma.

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251
Q

what is Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

Caused by defective nerve growth into the myenteric plexi of the bowel.

It can effect a small section of the bowel or the whole of the digestive tract.
=> the extent of the disease has a direct effect on severity of symptoms and time of diagnosis

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252
Q

How does Hirschsprung’s disease present?

How is it diagnosed and managed?

A

delayed passage of meconium and episodes of enterocolitis.

Dx is made via a rectal biopsy.

Mx - often requires removal of the non-functional bowel and to restore continuity prior to potty training age

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253
Q

Meconium ileus

A

born with very thick meconium and are unable to pass it

Commonly the child will pass the meconium (sometimes requiring a washout) and the symptoms will resolve.

One must think about the possibility of cystic fibrosis as a cause of thickened meconium and consider testing for it.

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254
Q

Where can testicular pain be referred to?

A

the abdomen

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255
Q

Testicular Torsion

A

Occlusion of the testicular blood vessels will affect the viability of the testis unless prompt action is taken.

It is more frequently seen in the left testis

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256
Q

Torted Hydatid of Morgagni

A

A small embryological remnant at the upper pole of the testis.

Torsion of the hydatid is of no consequence in itself except that it presents a similar picture to torsion of the testis.

The pain is usually less severe and of a longer duration than a torted testis.

Occasionally the torted hydatid may be palpable or visible as a ‘blue dot’ in the scrotum.

If in doubt, then one must explore surgically.

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257
Q

Torted Epididymal Cyst

A

This is a smooth, small fluid filled swelling that slowly develops in the epididymis.

They are often painless, but the affected testis sometimes ache or feel heavy.

It is not clear what causes cyst development, but they tend to be more common in middle aged men.

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258
Q

Epididymo-Orchitis

A

Inflammation of the epididymis and/or testis.

It is usually due to infection, most commonly from a urinary tract infection or a sexually transmitted infection.

A course of antibiotics will usually clear the infection. Most people make a full recovery without complication.

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259
Q

Idiopathic Scrotal Oedema

A

A self-limiting condition characterised by marked oedema +/- erythema.

Important to recognise to prevent unnecessary surgical exploration.

Most common under the age of 10.

Unknown aetiology.

Tends to resolve in 3 - 5 days.
Reassurance and analgesia are the mainstays of treatment

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260
Q

Trend of eGFR in children

A

Low in newborns

Rises rapidly in 1-2 years.

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261
Q

Trend of plasma creatinine in children

A

Increases throughout childhood with height and muscle

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262
Q

DMSA scan

A

Static scan of renal cortex

Shows functional defects (e.g. scars), can help to give differential function between the two kidneys.

!! Can give false positives if done within 3 months of UTI.

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263
Q

What are congenital abnormalities of the kidneys?

A
  1. Renal Agenesis
  2. Multicystic Dysplastic Kidney (MCDK)
  3. Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD)
  4. Horseshoe/Pelvic Kidney
  5. Duplex Kidney
  6. Posterior Urethral Valves
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264
Q

What is bilateral renal agenesis?

What does this lead to?

A

= absence of both kidneys

Results in oligohydramnios, due to no foetal urine.

Complications: FATAL potter syndrome.

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265
Q

What is Potter Syndrome?

A

= physical characteristics that can occur due to oligohydramnios

  • distinctive facial features
  • skeletal abnormalities
  • lung hypoplasia
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266
Q

What is Multicystic Dysplastic Kidney (MCDK)?

What are the complications and management?

A

Caused by failed union of ureteric bud and renal mesenchyme.

Results in non-functioning kidney with variably sized fluid-filled cysts and narrow ureter.

Complications: Potter syndrome if bilateral.

Management: often no Tx needed, sometimes nephrectomy if remain large.

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267
Q

What is Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD)?

How is it inherited?

What are the complications?

A

Always bilateral, but some/normal renal function is maintained.
Results in enlarged kidneys with separate, discrete cysts.

Either autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive.

Complications – HTN, haematuria, renal failure.

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268
Q

What is Horseshoe Kidney?

What are the complications?

A

Lower poles of the kidney are fused at the midline.

Complications – increased risk of obstruction/infection

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269
Q

what is Duplex Kidney?

what are the complications of this?

A

Either 2 renal pelvises or 2 complete ureters for 1 kidney

Complications – reflux in lower ureter, ectopic drainage/prolapse of upper ureter

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270
Q

What are Posterior Urethral Valves?

What are the complications?

How is this managed?

A

Abnormal flaps of tissue/membranes grown in the urethra, obstructing drainage from the bladder.

Complications:

  • Hydronephrosis
  • Small, dysplastic, non-functioning kidney
  • Reduced amniotic fluid leading to Potter Syndrome

Mx: cystoscopic ablation of valves

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271
Q

What is the most common cause of bladder outlet obstruction in male newborns?

A

Posterior urethral valves

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272
Q

How might UTI present in an infant?

A

NON-SPECIFIC

Fever
Vomiting
Lethargic/irritable
Poor feeding/FTT
Jaundice
Sepsis
Offensive urine
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273
Q

How might UTI present in a child?

A
Fever
Abdo/loin pain
Frequency/accidents
Dysuria/haematuria
Lethargic
Vomiting/anorexia
Offensive urine
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274
Q

Pyelonephritis/upper UTI in children

A

Fever >38o
+ bacteriuria
+/- loin pain

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275
Q

Cystitis/lower UTI in children

A

bacteriuria WITHOUT systemic Sx

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276
Q

“Atypical” UTIs in children

A
  • Severely ill/sepsis
  • Poor urine flow
  • Abdo/bladder mass
  • No Tx response within 48h
  • Increased creatinine
  • Non-E.coli organism
  • FHx of urinary tract abnormality
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277
Q

UTI - important points to gather from Hx?

A
  • Exact symptoms
  • Antenatal scan results
  • What is the urinary stream like?
  • Voiding history in general
  • Bowel habit
  • Drinking habits
  • Previous episodes?
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278
Q

UTI - important points to gather from examination?

A
  • Appears well/unwell?
  • Fever?
  • Any spinal lesion/ lower limb neurology?
  • Any palpable bladder or kidneys?
  • Is blood pressure normal?
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279
Q

Urine dip specificity/sensitivity for UTI

A

Nitrites = specific (+ve result = likely UTI)

Leucocytes = sensitive (-ve result = unlikely UTI, but +ve result may be other cause [e.g. other febrile illness or balanitis/vulvovaginitis])

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280
Q

When is urine MC&S required in children with ?UTI ?

A

ALWAYS required unless nitrites AND leucocytes are negative on urine dip

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281
Q

UTI - when are further investigations required?

A

Only if recurrent/atypical UTIs

USS – shows structural abnormalities, renal defects, obstruction

DMSA – for scarring/VUR/obstruction

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282
Q

UTI - Management

A

If <3 months – URGENT HOSPITAL ADMISSION
=> IV Abx

If >3 months with upper UTI/pyelonephritis:
=> PO Abx for 7-10 days

If >3 months with lower UTI/cystitis:
=> PO Abx for 3 days

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283
Q

Causes of vesicoureteric reflux

A

Familial – 30-50% risk if 1st degree relative

Bladder pathology – neuropathic bladder, urethral obstruction, post-UTI

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284
Q

Types of vesicoureteric reflux and their management

A

Mild – reflux into ureter only
=> usually resolves within the first few years of life

Severe – reflux into kidney
=> prophylactic Abx, surgery

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285
Q

vesicoureteric reflux - investigations

A

MCUS – shows dilated ureters and direction of flow (diagnostic – shows grade of reflux)

MAG3 – shows direction of flow.

USS – shows abnormalities/obstruction

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286
Q

Complications or presentation of vesicoureteric reflux

A

Incomplete bladder emptying = risk of UTI

Intrarenal reflux = risk of pyelonephritis

High voiding pressures = transmitted back to kidneys, damaging renal papillae.

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287
Q

What is enuresis?

A

= involuntary micturition

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288
Q

Primary nocturnal enuresis

A

= “Bed wetting”

  • Common – 10% at 5 years, 5% at 10 years.
  • Need to R/o underlying cause
  • Mx – encourage child/reward system, etc.
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289
Q

Daytime enuresis

A

= Lack of bladder control during the day in a child old enough to be continent (3-5 years)

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290
Q

Causes of daytime enuresis

A
Lack of attention to bladder sensation
Detrusor instability
Bladder neck weakness
Neuropathic bladder
UTI
Constipation
Ectopic ureter
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291
Q

Daytime enuresis - Ix

A

Neuro exam (gait, sensation, reflexes)
Spinal X-ray
Urine MCS
Bladder USS/urodynamic studies

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292
Q

Daytime enuresis - Mx

A

Treat underlying cause.

Anti-cholinergics (to decrease bladder contractions)

Star charts, bladder trainings, “damp alarms”, etc.

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293
Q

Secondary/onset Enuresis

A

= Loss of previously achieved continence.

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294
Q

Causes of Secondary/onset Enuresis?

A
Emotional upset (most common)
UTI
Osmotic diuresis (DM, sickle cell, chronic renal failure)
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295
Q

Secondary/onset Enuresis - Ix

A

Urine dip - ?DM, ?UTI
Urine osmolality
USS renal tract

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296
Q

Nephrotic Syndrome

A

= Inflamed basement membrane allows passage of proteins into nephron.

  1. Heavy proteinuria (>200mg/day)
  2. Hypoalbuminaemia (<25g/L)
  3. Oedema – periorbital, legs, scrotal/vaginal

Can be either Steroid-sensitive or Steroid-resistant (rare)

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297
Q

Cause of nephrotic syndrome?

A

The cause is unknown, but may be 2o to systemic disease (e.g. HSP, SLE, infections, etc)

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298
Q

Clinical features of nephrotic syndrome

A
  • Periorbital oedema – especially on waking
  • Leg, ankle, scrotal/vulval oedema
  • Ascites
  • Breathless (due to pulmonary oedema)
  • Frothy urine (proteinuria)
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299
Q

Nephrotic Syndrome - investigations

A
  • Urine dip – protein
  • FBC, ESR/CRP
  • U&Es, creatinine, albumin
  • Urine MCS
  • Complement levels
  • Throat swab/anti-strep
  • Hep B & C Screen
  • Malaria screen
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300
Q

Management of steroid-sensitive nephrotic syndrome

A

Corticosteroids (8 weeks PO prednisolone)
• Tx resistant cases need renal biopsy
• Frequent relapses need high maintenance dose steroids

Fluid balance

Abx Prophylaxis (loss of Ig leads them susceptible to infection)

Refer to specialist if atypical features

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301
Q

Management of steroid-resistant nephrotic syndrome

A

Fluid Balance
• Restrict intake of water and salt
• Diuretics, ACEI, NSAIDs

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302
Q

Haematuria - glomerular

A

Brown Urine, deformed RBCs, protein

CAUSES:

  • Acute/chronic glomerulonephritis
  • IgA nephropathy
  • Familial nephritis
  • Goodpasture’s Syndrome (anti-basement membrane)
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303
Q

Haematuria - non-glomerular

A

Red urine, no protein

CAUSES:
Infection
Trauma (to genitals/urinary tract/kindeys)
Stones
Tumours
Renal vein thrombosis
Sickle cell disease
Bleeding disorders
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304
Q

Haematuria - investigations

A

For all patients with haematuria:

  • Urine dip & MCS
  • FBC, ESR/CRP, platelets, clotting screen
  • Sickle cell screen
  • U&Es, creatinine, calcium, phosphate, albumin
  • USS KUB

For suspected glomerular haematuria:

  • Complement levels (often low)
  • Anti-DNA antibodies (present in vasculitis)
  • Throat swab + Antistreptolysin O/ Anti-DNAse B
  • Hep B/C Screen
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305
Q

What is Nephritic Syndrome?

What are the clinical features?

A

Inflammation causes increased glomerular cellularity, which restricts blood flow and decreases filtration.

  1. Haematuria (>10 red cell casts)
  2. Oliguria (<0.5-1 mL/kg/hour)
  3. Proteinuria (>3.0g/day)

Clinical features:

  • Oedema (especially periorbital)
  • HTN, causing seizures.
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306
Q

Causes of Nephritic Syndrome

A
Post-infection (often streptococcal)
Vasculitis (HSP, SLE, Wegener granulomatosis)
IgA nephropathy
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
Goodpasture Syndrome
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307
Q

Nephritic Syndrome - management

A

Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance

Treat infection if present

If rapid decrease in renal function – renal biopsy, immunosuppression, plasma exchange.

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308
Q

Post-infective Nephritis

A

Occurs 7-21 days after a sore throat or skin infection

Low complement, raised ASO/Anti-DNAse B

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309
Q

Henoch-Shonlein Purpura - pathophysiology

A

= Increased circulating IgA and IgG form complexes that deposit in organs (e.g. kidneys, skin, joints)

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310
Q

Henoch-Shonlein Purpura - Clinical Features

A
  • Palpable purpuric rash – symmetrical over buttocks and extensor surfaces/ankles
  • Arthralgia and periarticular oedema
  • Colicky abdominal pain
  • Glomerulonephritis – micro/macroscopic haematuria
  • +/- fever and malaise
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311
Q

Henoch-Shonlein Purpura - risk factors

A
  • 3-10 years
  • M>F (2:1)
  • Winter
  • Preceding URTI
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312
Q

Henoch-Shonlein Purpura - Management:

A
  • Normally self-resolved in 6 weeks
  • Analgesia
  • Corticosteroids – only if severe gut/joint involvement
  • Follow-up for 1 year if renal involvement to ensure no CKD
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313
Q

IgA Nephropathy

A

“Berger’s Disease”

Similar pathology to HSP (IgA vasculitis), but ONLY affects the kidneys.

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314
Q

Glomerulonephritis

A

= Group of diseases causing immune-mediated inflammation of the glomerulus (increased permeability)

Causes nephrotic/nephritic syndrome

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315
Q

SLE - cause, RFs, Sx

A

involves dsDNA autoantibodies, decreased complement

Risk factors – adolescent girls/young women, Asian/afro-Caribbean

Symptoms - haematuria and proteinuria, malar rash, malaise, arthralgia

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316
Q

What is AKI?

What are the causes?

A

= a sudden, potentially reversible drop in renal function.
= Oliguria <0.5 mL/kg

PRE-RENAL
=> hypovolaemia, circulatory failure

RENAL
=> vascular/tubular/glomerular/interstitial

POST-RENAL
=> congenital/acquired obstruction

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317
Q

AKI - management

A
  1. Correct fluid and electrolyte balance / any metabolic acidosis
  2. TREAT CAUSE:
  • Pre-renal - Urgent IV fluids and circulatory support
  • Renal - depends on cause
  • Post-renal - urine drainage
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318
Q

AKI - indications for dialysis

A
  • Failed conservative Mx
  • Hyperkalaemia or hypo/hypernatraemia
  • Severe acidosis
  • Pulmonary HTN/oedema
  • Multi-system failure
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319
Q

What is Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS)?

A

A triad of:

  1. Renal Failure
  2. Thrombocytopaenia
  3. Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (damaged RBCs due to small vessel occlusion)
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320
Q

Typical vs. non-typical Haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A

95% “typical” (diarrhoeal) – good prognosis

5% “atypical” (non-diarrhoeal) – poor prognosis

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321
Q

Pathogenesis of Haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A

Secondary to gastroenteric infection (diarrhoeal prodrome) with verocytotoxin-producing E. coli 0157:H7

Toxin causes intravascular thrombogenesis in renal endothelial cells

Clotting cascade becomes activated.

Platelets are consumed and haemolytic anaemia occurs.

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322
Q

Haemolytic uraemic syndrome - investigations

A
  • FBC – low Hb, low platelets, fragmented blood film
  • U&Es
  • Stool culture
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323
Q

Haemolytic uraemic syndrome - management

A
  • Supportive – manage fluid balance
  • Dialysis and plasma exchange
  • Follow-up – for persistent proteinuria, HTN, progressive CKD
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324
Q

CKD in children

A

CKD = progressive loss of renal function

Very rare in children (~10 in 1 million)!

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325
Q

Causes of CKD in children

A
  • Structural malformation
  • Glomerulonephritis
  • Hereditary neuropathies
  • Systemic diseases
  • Unknown
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326
Q

Clinical features of CKD in children

A
  • Anorexia, lethargy
  • Polydipsia & polyuria
  • Hypertension
  • Bone deformities
  • FTT, poor/delayed growth (despite high GH levels)
  • Anaemia (unexplained, normocytic)
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327
Q

CKD - management

A

Management with specialist paediatric nephrologist and MDT

Aim = to prevent metabolic complications and allow normal growth & development.

  1. Diet – supplements, ?NG tube/gastrostomy
  2. Prevent renal osteodystrophy – calcium and phosphate restriction, vitD supplements
  3. Fluid and electrolyte balance
  4. Anaemia – recombinant EPO
  5. Hormone abnormalities – recombinant human GH.

Dialysis and transplantation for end-stage CKD.

Ideally child gets transplant before dialysis is needed.

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328
Q

Normal RR, HR, SBP in neonates <28 days

A

RR - 50-60

HR - 110-160

SBP - 50-70

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329
Q

Normal RR, HR, SBP in infants <1 year

A

RR - 30-40

HR - 110-160

SBP - 70-90

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330
Q

Normal RR, HR, SBP in children <5 years

A

RR - 25-35

HR - 95-140

SBP - 80-100

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331
Q

Normal RR, HR, SBP in children >12 years

A

RR - 20-25

HR - 80-120

SBP - 90-110

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332
Q

Normal RR, HR, SBP in children >12 years

A

RR - Adult

HR - Adult

SBP - 100-120

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333
Q

Paediatric A-E Assessment

A
  • General condition
  • Airway
  • Breathing
  • Circulation
  • Disability
  • Exposure/ENT
  • Temperature

Need to assess systems for:

  1. Effort
  2. Efficacy
  3. Effects on other systems
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334
Q

A-E Assessment - airway and breathing

A
  1. Effort – RR, WOB, accessory muscles, recessions, added sounds, respiratory distress
  2. Efficacy – talking, air entry, SaO2 (>92%)
  3. Effects – skin colour, conscious level

Mx - Open and maintain airway, 5 initial rescue breaths, 100% high flow O2, Anaesthetist involvement for intubation

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335
Q

A-E Assessment - circulation

A
  • Heart – rate, rhythm, pulse
  • Blood pressure – hypotension (late sign)
  • Capillary refill (<2 seconds)
  • Peripheral temperature, colour

Mx - Chest compressions if needed, IV access, bloods,, catheterise, consider inotropes

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336
Q

A-E Assessment - disability

A
  • Level of consciousness (AVPU / GCS)
  • Pupils – size, reactivity
  • Posture and tone
  • Blood glucose!
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337
Q

A-E Assessment - exposure/ENT

A
  • Rash, injuries, bruises
  • Pain
  • ENT exam
  • Temperature
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338
Q

Causes of shock

A

Hypovolaemic
=> Bleeds, burns, fever, V&D, urinary losses

Distributive
=> Sepsis, intestinal obstruction

Obstructive
=> Cardiac tamponade, PE, tension PTX

Cardiogenic (rare)
=> Myocarditis, congenital heart disease)

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339
Q

Clinical signs of shock

A
Early:
•	Tachypnoea, tachycardia
•	Cap refill >2s
•	Decreased skin turgor, sunken eyes/fontanelles
•	Mottled, pale, cold skin
•	Oliguria (<0.5 – 1 mL/kg/hour)

Late:
• Hypotension, bradycardia
• Metabolic acidosis
• Depressed cerebral state

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340
Q

Shock - management

A
  1. FLUID RESUSCITATION = priority
    - 0.9% saline bolus (20 mL/kg)
    - 2nd bolus if necessary
  2. If no improvement, then involve PICU
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341
Q

Septic Shock

A

Features of shock, plus:

  • Fever, lethargy
  • Poor feeding
  • +/- purpuric rash (meningococcal sepsis)
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342
Q

Septic Shock - management

A
  1. Fluid resuscitation
  2. IV Abx ASAP (Ideally after cultures)

Keep reassessing, further support if needed

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343
Q

what is Anaphylaxis?

What are the causes?

A

= life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction (IgE) with rapid onset airway and circulatory problems.

Food allergy (85%), Insect stings, Drugs, Latex

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344
Q

Features of anaphylaxis

A
Difficulty breathing/swallowing
Stridor +/- wheeze
Swollen face/tongue
Urticaria
Pale, clammy

SHOCK may develop

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345
Q

What are some differentials of anaphylaxis?

A

DDx – asthma, panic attack, septic shock

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346
Q

Anaphylaxis - management

A
  1. IM ADRENALINE 1:1000 – repeat in 5 mins if no improvement.
    => Adult and child >12 years = 0.5 mL
    => Child 6-12 years = 0.3 mL
    => Child <6 years = 0.15 mL
  2. A-E assessment
  3. Steroids and Antihistamines
    => Hydrocortisone and Chlorpheniramine
  4. Monitor - pulse oximetry, ECG, BP
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347
Q

What is the dose of adrenaline used in anaphylaxis ?

A

IM ADRENALINE 1:1000

Adult and child >12 years = 0.5 mL
Child 6-12 years = 0.3 mL
Child <6 years = 0.15 mL

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348
Q

DKA - clinical features

A
  • Polyuria & Polydipsia
  • Weight loss
  • Abdominal pain
  • Vomiting
  • Tachypnoea
  • Confusion
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349
Q

DKA - management

A
  1. A-E Assessment
    => Severity of dehydration
    => Evidence of acidosis (e.g. hyperventilation/Kussmaul breathing)
    => Assessment of conscious level
  2. Initial investigations
    => Blood gas (pH), blood glucose, ketones, U&Es, ECG
  3. IV fluid resuscitation and ongoing rehydration
    => Estimate dehydration and slowly rehydrate
    => 0.9% saline (10 mL/kg over 1 hour)
  4. Insulin therapy and potassium replacement
    => 0.1 unit/kg/hour of insulin
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350
Q

Why is potassium replacement given alongside insulin therapy in DKA?

A

Insulin therapy causes a shift in potassium, which can cause hypokalaemia, so KCl given to replace potassium

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351
Q

What is the rate of insulin infusion for DKA?

A

0.1 unit/kg/hour of insulin

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352
Q

What is there a risk of when correcting fluids/sugar too rapidly?

How would you recognise this?

A

Risk of CEREBRAL OEDEMA

Sx:
headache, convulsions, abnormal posture, rising BP/falling pulse, poor respiratory effort, irritability/drowsiness, focal neurological signs, falling GCS, papilloedema, falling O2 sats.

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353
Q

How is cerebral oedema managed?

A

Inform senior immediately

Check blood glucose and r/o hypoglycaemia as a cause of neurological symptoms.

Mx: hypertonic saline/mannitol, reduce IV intake, transfer to PICU

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354
Q

Alcohol poisoning - effects

A

Hypoglycaemia
Coma
Respiratory Failure

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355
Q

Alcohol poisoning - management

A

Check blood alcohol levels
Monitor blood glucose
Ventilatory support

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356
Q

Acid/alkali poisoning - effects and management

A

Inflammation and ulceration of GI tract

Mx - Early endoscopy

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357
Q

Ethylene Glycol (anti-freeze) poisoning - effects

A

Tachycardia
Metabolic acidosis
Renal failure

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358
Q

Ethylene Glycol (anti-freeze) poisoning - management

A

Antidote – Fomepizole

Haemodialysis

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359
Q

Paracetamol poisoning - effects

A

24-48 hours: abdo pain, vomiting

3-5 hours: liver failure

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360
Q

Paracetamol poisoning - management

A

Measure plasma paracetamol conc.

IV N-acetylcysteine

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361
Q

NSAID poisoning - effects

A

N&V, drowsiness, blurred vision, tinnitus
Hyperventilation
Acute renal failure

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362
Q

NSAID poisoning - management

A

Measure plasma conc.
Rapid BM, blood gas, creatinine, FBC, ECG
Supportive Tx (fluids, dialysis, etc.)

There is no antidote!

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363
Q

Iron poisoning - effects

A

Initial: V&D, haematemesis, melaena, gastric ulcers

Latent period

6 hours later: drowsy, coma, shock, convulsions, liver failure

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364
Q

Iron poisoning - management

A

Measure serum iron levels

IV Deferoxamine (acts by chelating the iron)

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365
Q

Methadone poisoning - management

A

Activated charcoal within 1 hour

IV Naloxone

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366
Q

Methadone poisoning - effects

A

Drowsiness, mitosis, vomiting

Tachypnoea/apnoea leading to respiratory acidosis

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367
Q

TCA poisoning - effects

A

Tachycardia, arrythmias
Dry mouth, blurred vision
Agitation, confusion, convulsions
Respiratory Depression

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368
Q

TCA poisoning - management

A

Ventilatory support

IV Sodium bicarbonate (if arrythmia / severe metabolic acidosis)

Diazepam (if convulsions)

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369
Q

General management of overdose/poisoning

A
  1. Identify agent and amount taken
  2. Can activated charcoal be used to decrease absorption?
    => Only if <1 hour
    => Ineffective for iron and pesticides
  3. Investigations:
    => FBC, renal and liver function, ECG, ABG
  4. Administer antidote:
    => If available/toxicity high enough
  5. Supportive Tx:
    => Ventilatory support, IV fluids, etc.
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370
Q

What is Status epilepticus?

A

Seizure >30 minutes

OR

Successive seizures over 30 minutes with no recovery in between

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371
Q

Status epilepticus - management

A
  1. A-E Assessment
    - Open and maintain airway
    - High flow oxygen
    - Glucose to r/o hypoglycaemia
    - Confirm it is an epileptic seizure (Hx, features, etc.)
  2. Manage Convulsions
    - IV lorazepam (again 5 mins later if no improvement)
    - IV phenytoin
    - Anaesthetist - intubation and PICU
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372
Q

what is an Apparent Life-Threatening Event?

A

= a frightening combination of symptoms (most common in <10 weeks).

  • Apnoea
  • Colour change
  • Altered muscle tone
  • Choking/gagging
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373
Q

Causes of Apparent Life-Threatening Event

A
  • No cause identified (50%)
  • Upper airway obstruction
  • Infections (URTI)
  • Seizures
  • GORD
  • Cardiac arrythmia
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374
Q

Apparent Life-Threatening Event - management

A
  1. Detailed Hx and examination
  2. Admission to hospital (basic investigations and overnight monitoring)
  3. Discharge if normal and no high risk features.
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375
Q

What is sudden infant death syndrome?

What are the risk factors?

A

= sudden, unexplained death of an infant with no identifiable cause.

RFs:
Infant – age 1-6 months, preterm/LBW, Male

Parents – low income, poor/overcrowded housing, Parental smoking, unsupported single mum, maternal age <20 years.

Environment – co-sleeping, overheated baby, baby sleeping on tummy.

376
Q

what is the most common cause of death/serious injury in childhood?

A

road traffic accidents

377
Q

Complications of head injury

A
  • Hypoxia – airway obstruction/decreased ventilation
  • Hypo/hyperglycaemia
  • Decreased cerebral perfusion – raised ICP/ decreased BP from bleed
  • Haematoma
  • Infection – open wound, CSF leak
378
Q

Head injury - red flags

A
  • LOC >5 mins
  • Amnesia >5 mins
  • Seizure
  • ≥3x vomiting
  • GCS <15
  • Signs of fracture
379
Q

How to assess surface area of burn?

A

Patient’s palm = 1% of body SA

Add 0.5% to each leg with every year >1 year old
Subtract 2% from head with every year >1 year old

380
Q

Burns/scald - management

A
  1. Burns first aid – cold water for 20 minutes and clingfilm
  2. Analgesia – e.g. IV morphine
  3. Fluid resuscitation – if shock/>10% SA
  4. Wound care
381
Q

Near drowning - management

A

Mouth-to-mouth resuscitation and CPR

Cover and keep warm

Hospital admission – monitor for resp. distress, pulmonary oedema, development of pneumonia

382
Q

Choking/Aspiration - management

A

Unconscious – paediatric BLS

Conscious and ineffective cough – 5 back blows, 5 abdo thrusts (chest thrusts if <1 year)

383
Q

what is the most common cause of death/serious injury in childhood?

A

road traffic accidents

384
Q

Risk factors for infection

A
  • Illness of family members
  • Unimmunised/immunodeficient
  • Recent travel abroad/contact with animals
385
Q

Red flags in febrile child

A
  • Fever >38oC and <3 months
  • Fever >39oC and 3-6 months
  • Pale/mottled/blue
  • Cap refill >3 seconds
  • Altered consciousness, seizures
  • Stiff neck, bulging fontanelle
  • Significant respiratory distress
  • Bilious vomiting
386
Q

Management of Febrile Child

A
  • Not seriously ill – at home, clear instructions/safety netting, (+/- PO Abx)
  • Significantly ill – further Ix (septic screen) and monitoring/treatment in hospital
  • Seriously ill – immediate IV Abx (cefotaxime/ceftriaxone)
387
Q

Safety netting for febrile child

A
Come back if:
•	Poor oral intake
•	Signs of dehydration
•	Abnormal movement
•	Breathing difficulties 
•	Rash
•	Rigors/seizures.
388
Q

Septic Screen

A

Blood cultures
FBC, CRP, VBG
Urine MC&S

Also consider - CXR, LP, antigen screen, U&E, LFT, PCR

389
Q

Contraindications for Lumbar Puncture

A

CV shock
Focal neurological signs or seizures
Signs of raised ICP
Thrombocytopaenia

390
Q

Indications for Lumbar Puncture in febrile child

A

Febrile and <1 year

Suspected meningitis

391
Q

Where is a LP performed in children?

A

Performed at or below the L4 level

392
Q

Sudden onset purpura in a febrile child

A

Should be assumed to be meningococcal sepsis

(however, any severe sepsis can cause a non-blanching rash due to DIC).

393
Q

Causes of meningitis in children

A
  1. Viral Meningitis
    - 2/3 of cases
    - Less severe than bacterial
    - Enterovirus, EBV, adenovirus, mumps
  2. Bacterial Meningitis
    - 10% mortality, 10% morbidity
    - <3 months – GBS, E. coli, Listeria
    - 1 month to 6 years – N. meningitidis, S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae
    - >6 years – N. meningitidis, S. pneumoniae
  3. TB Meningitis
    - Rare in countries with low TB prevalence.
394
Q

Symptoms of meningitis

A
FEVER
Non-blanching purpura (meningococcal)
Neck stiffness, bulging fontanelle
Arched back
Focal neuro signs, seizures
Altered consciousness
Signs of shock
\+ve Brudzinski sign	
\+ve Kernig Sign
395
Q

Positive Brudzinski sign

A

Flexion of neck causes hip and knee flexion

396
Q

Positive Kernig Sign

A

With hips and knees flexed, there is pain extending the knees.

397
Q

Meningitis presentation in infants

A

symptoms are often non-specific – e.g. poor feeding, vomiting, irritable, crying.

398
Q

Complications of meningitis

A
  • Sepsis
  • Hearing impairment
  • Cranial nerve palsies
  • Seizures/epilepsy
  • Hydrocephalus
  • Cerebral abscess
399
Q

Investigations in ?meningitis

A
  • Lumbar puncture
  • FBC, CRP, U&Es, LFTs, clotting
  • Blood glucoses and gases (for pH and lactate)
  • Blood, urine, stool, throat swab culture
  • Rapid antigen test (on CSF or blood)
  • PCR (of blood or CSF)
  • If TB suspected – Mantoux, sputum, urine
400
Q

What is the purpose of a LP in ?meningitis

A

To confirm Dx, also identify organism and sensitivity.

401
Q

Normal CSF values

A

Clear Appearance

WCC <5/mm3

Protein - 0.15-0.4 g/L

Glucose - >50% that of blood level

402
Q

What is Kawasaki Disease?

A

A rare disorder involving systemic small-to-medium vessel vasculitis (due to immune hyperactivity).

403
Q

What should be suspected in children with prolonged fever?

A

Kawasaki Disease

404
Q

Symptoms of Kawasaki Disease

A
Fever ≥38oC for >5 days PLUS 4 of:
•	Non-purulent conjunctivitis
•	Red mucous membranes
•	Red/swollen/peeling skin (cracked lips, strawberry tongue) 
•	Rash 
•	Cervical lymphadenopathy

Infants may not present with all symptoms so must maintain high suspicion if prolonged fever.

405
Q

Where is the rash normally located in Kawasaki Disease?

A

usually genital area, lips, palms, or soles of the feet,

406
Q

Kawasaki Disease - Risk factors

A
  • 6 months – 4 years old
  • Asian or Afro-caribbean
  • Covid-19
407
Q

Kawasaki Disease - Investigations

A

History and Examination

Bloods – raised CRP, ESR, WCC and platelets

Echo – shows coronary aneurysms

408
Q

What is the most important thing to rule out/identify in Kawasaki Disease?

A

Coronary Aneurysms

409
Q

Kawasaki Disease - Initial Management

A

IV Immunoglobulin within 10 days – reduce risk of aneurysms

Aspirin
=> High dose until fever subsides, then low dose for 6 weeks.
=> Decrease risk of thrombosis

410
Q

Kawasaki Disease - Management of long-term aneurysms

A

Long-term warfarin

411
Q

Kawasaki Disease - Management if recurrence

A

Monoclonal antibodies/steroids/ciclosporin

412
Q

What is infectious mononucleosis?

A

= a syndrome of symptoms maily caused by the host response to EBV.

413
Q

Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis

A

• Fever, malaise
• Tonsillopharyngitis
=> Cannot eat/drink
=> Breathing may be compromised.

  • Cervical lymphadenopathy
  • Hepatosplenomegaly/jaundice
  • Petechiae on soft palate
  • Maculopapular rash (if <4 years).
414
Q

infectious mononucleosis - investigations

A

Blood film – atypical lymphocytes

Monospot test – heterophile antibodies (may be negative in young children)

EBV antibodies – IgM and IgG

415
Q

infectious mononucleosis - management

A

= self-resolving in 1-3 months

  1. Symptomatic relief
  2. Corticosteroids – if airway compromise
  3. Abx ONLY if confirmed tonsilitis (but NOT AMOXICILLIN)
416
Q

What treatment should be avoided in infectious mononucleosis?

A

AMOXICILLIN - causes rash

417
Q

How quickly does infectious mononucleosis resolve?

A

self-resolving in 1-3 months

418
Q

HIV in children - cause, presentation

A

Affects ~2 million children (mainly in sub-saharan Africa).

Majority occurs by transmission from mother (transplacental, at birth, breast-feeding).

Presents as opportunistic infections
=> Bacterial, candida, diarrhoea, PCP

419
Q

Long-term problems of HIV infection in children

A

Failure to thrive, encephalopathy, malignancy

420
Q

HIV in children - management

A

ART – based on clinical status, viral load, CD4 count
=> Infants start ART ASAP

Infection prophylaxis
=> co-trimoxazole for PCP
=> Vaccinations – flu, hep A/B, VZV

Regular follow-up – weight, neurodevelopment, signs of infection, adherence to Tx.

421
Q

Cause of malaria infection

A

Caused by plasmodium falciparum parasite, which is transmitted by the female Anopheles mosquito.

422
Q

Malaria - symptoms

A

occur ~7-10 days post-infection

  • Fever, malaise, myalgia
  • V&D, abdo pain
  • Jaundice
  • Anaemia
  • Thrombocytopaenia
423
Q

What is a very common feature of malaria in children?

A

Anaemia

424
Q

Malaria - diagnosis

A

thick blood film

425
Q

Malaria - management

A

Quinine

426
Q

Malaria - prevention

A

Insect nets
Insect repellent
Abx prophylaxis

427
Q

Cause of typhoid infection

A

Caused by salmonella typhi or paratyphi parasite

428
Q

Typhoid - symptoms

A

occur ~7-10 days post-infection

  • Worsening fever
  • Headaches, malaise, myalgia
  • Cough
  • Abdo pain
  • Anorexia, diarrhoea, constipation
429
Q

Typhoid - signs

A
  • Rose-coloured spots on trunk
  • Splenomegaly
  • Bradycardia
430
Q

Typhoid - complications

A
  • GI perforation
  • Myocarditis
  • Hepatitis, nephritis
431
Q

Typhoid - management

A

Azithromycin or Ceftriaxone

432
Q

What nutrients are required in children and why?

A

Protein - growth, repair, enzymes, antibodies

Energy - growth, moving, developing
=> Carbohydrate
=> Fat

Vitamins - metabolism, cell structure, defence
=> Water soluble, needed daily
=> Fat soluble, can be stored

Minerals - blood, bones, enzymes, compete for absorption

Water - metabolism, homeostasis, fluid balance

433
Q

How much breast milk is needed to meed nutritional requirements of a child?

A

need 300mL/kg/day of Mature Breast milk

434
Q

Advantages of breast milk

A
Ideal nutritional composition
Greater bioavailability of nutrients
Antibodies
Promote gut health
Lower rates of NEC  in pre-term infants
435
Q

How is faltering growth defined?

A
  1. Weight deviating from usual centile/ falling through 2 centiles
  2. Weight persistently more than 2 Centiles below height?
436
Q

Which children are more at risk of faltering growth?

A

• Premature Infants

  • Chronic Lung disease , cardiac problems
  • Cleft Palate
  • Cystic fibrosis
  • Developmental delay
  • ADHD
  • Cerebral Palsy
  • Coeliac Disease
  • Cow’s milk protein Allergy
437
Q

Faltering Growth - assessment

A

Nutrient intake compared to estimated requirements.

Feeding behaviour and feeding patterns.

Activity.

438
Q

Faltering Growth - treatment

A

Dietary Manipulation

  • Food fortification (FOOD FIRST)
  • Milky drinks
  • 2 course meals

Dietary Supplements

Tube Feeding

  • NG
  • Gastrostomy, PEG, Button, Jejenostomy
439
Q

When is a jejunostomy used?

A

Only if need post-pyloric feeding.

440
Q

what is cow’s milk protein allergy ?

A

= an immune reaction to the protein in milk

441
Q

Cow’s milk protein allergy vs lactose intolerance

A

A food allergy, such as cow’s milk allergy, is an immune reaction to the protein in milk.

A lactose intolerance is caused by the inability to break down lactose (the sugar in milk).

Lactose intolerance tends to be just uncomfortable, while cow’s milk protein allergy can have dangerous symptoms.

442
Q

Symptoms of cow’s milk protein allergy

A
Failure to thrive
Frequent regurgitation
Vomiting, Diarrhoea
Refusal to feed
Blood in stools

Rash
Respiratory Sx

443
Q

Symptoms of lactose intolerance

A

Diarrhoea
Abdominal pain
Reducing substances in stools
Small amounts usually tolerated.

444
Q

What is coeliac disease?

A

When gluten is provoking a damaging immunological response in the proximal small intestine mucosa, causing loss of villi.

445
Q

Coeliac disease - Sx

A

occur after introduction of wheat to diet

  • FTT +/- weight loss/wasted buttocks
  • Diarrhoea
  • Abdo pain/distension
  • Irritability/fatigue
  • Anaemia
446
Q

Coeliac disease - investigations

A
  • Serological testing – IgA transglutaminase, anti-endomysial
  • Small intestinal biopsy = diagnostic
447
Q

Coeliac disease - management

A
  • Gluten free diet for life.

* If diagnosed <2 years, need gluten challenge later on to confirm Dx.

448
Q

Severe combined immunodeficiency

A

= A group of rare disorders caused by mutations in different genes involved in the development and function of immune cells.

Infants with SCID appear healthy at birth but are highly susceptible to severe infections.

449
Q

Primary immunodeficiency

A

= an intrinsic defect of the immune system.

Often X-linked or autosomal recessive.

Should be suspected in children with Severe, Prolonged, Unusual or Recurrent infections (SPUR)

450
Q

Immunodeficiency - investigations

A
  • FBC (including WCC breakdown)
  • Immunoglobulins
  • Complement proteins
  • Specific genetic/molecular tests
451
Q

Secondary immunodeficiency

A

= due to another disease or treatment.

E.g.:
•	Concurrent bacterial/viral illness
•	HIV
•	Malignancy
•	Malnutrition
•	Immunosuppressive therapy
•	Splenectomy
•	Nephrotic Syndrome

More common than primary immunodeficiency.

452
Q

Immunodeficiency - management

A
  • Antimicrobial prophylaxis
  • Prompt treatment of infection (longer Abx course)
  • Ig-replacement therapy
  • Bone marrow transplant
  • Gene therapy (for SCID)
453
Q

What are the ages of the Primary Series of vaccinations in the UK?

A

8 weeks old
12 weeks old
16 weeks old

454
Q

What immunisations are given at 8 weeks?

A

= 1st set of vaccinations

6 in 1 - 1st dose

MenB - 1st dose

Rotavirus - 1st dose

455
Q

What immunisations are given at 12 weeks?

A
  • 6-in-1 2nd dose
  • Pneumococcal (13 serotypes)
  • Rotavirus 2nd dose
456
Q

What immunisations are given at 16 weeks?

A
  • 6-in-1 3rd dose

* MenB 2nd dose

457
Q

What immunisations are given at 1 year old?

A
  • Hib and Men C
  • Pneumococcal 2nd dose
  • MMR 1st dose
  • MenB 3rd dose
458
Q

What immunisations are given yearly from 2 - 10 years old?

A

Influenza (every Winter)

459
Q

What immunisations are given at 3 years 4 months old (or soon after)?

A
  • Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio booster

* MMR 2nd dose

460
Q

What immunisations are given in secondary school age children?

A

12-13 years old
• HPV – two doses 6-24 months apart

14 years old (school year 9)
• Tetanus, diphtheria, polio booster
• Men ACWY

461
Q

What vaccines are offered to pregnant women and when?

A
  • Influenza (during flu season, at any stage of pregnancy)

* Pertussis (from 16 weeks gestation)

462
Q

Vaccines for Babies born to HepB +ve mother

A

HepB vaccine at birth, four weeks, 12 weeks

463
Q

Which children are offered vaccines for TB?

A

Infants born in/with:

  • areas of high TB incidence
  • parent/grandparent born in area of high TB incidence

Receive BCG vaccine at birth.

464
Q

Contraindications to Vaccines

A

Anaphylaxis

  • To previous dose
  • To a component of vaccine (neomycin, polymyxin B)
  • Latex allergy

No live vaccines in certain groups

465
Q

What groups are considered unable to receive live vaccines?

A
  • Pregnancy
  • Primary immunodeficiency
  • Malignancy and solid tumour treatment
  • Bone marrow transplant
  • High-dose steroids / immunosuppressant drugs
  • HIV
466
Q

Egg Allergy and immunisation

A

Yellow fever vaccine is contraindicated in confirmed anaphylaxis to eggs.

Egg-free or low albumin Inactivated influenza vaccines are available – safe to give

MMR can safely be given to most children with egg allergy.

467
Q

Vaccine hesitancy

A

= a delay in acceptance OR refusal of vaccines despite availability of vaccination services.

468
Q

What is an allergy?

A

= an inappropriate, potentially harmful reaction by the immune system to a harmless stimulus

469
Q

What is atopy?

A

personal or familial tendency to become sensitised and produce IgE antibodies in response to ordinary exposure to allergens.

470
Q

What is an allergen?

A

= an antigen responsible for producing allergic reactions by inducing IgE antibody formation.

471
Q

What is urticaria?

A

= an unexplained raised, itchy rash that appears spontaneously and responds to antihistamines.

Often no obvious cause can be found.

472
Q

What is the prevalence of allergy in the UK?

A

~40% of all UK children have an allergic diagnosis

473
Q

Pathogenesis of allergy

A

Mostly IgE-mediated

  1. Allergen sensitisation - B-cells produce IgE specific to the allergen.
  2. Upon re-exposure of allergen, stimulation of plasma cells causes release of the allergen specific IgE.

=> IgE stimulates mast cells, which degranulate and release histamine

474
Q

What does a skin-prick test show?

A

shows the tissue release of histamine in response to allergens

475
Q

Risk factors for allergy

A
  • Hygiene Hypothesis
  • FHx
  • ?Caesarean birth/smoking in pregnancy/reduction in breast feeding
  • ?In-utero exposure to maternal diet/late weaning to solids
  • Childhood obesity
  • Air pollution
476
Q

Hygiene hypothesis

A

Suggests that the post-natal period of immune response is derailed by extremely clean household environments often found in the developed world.

This means failure to provide the necessary exposure to germs required to “educate” the immune system so it can create a response against infectious organisms.

477
Q

How do Th1 and Th2 cells work in relation to infection and allergy in developed vs. developing countries?

A

Th1 cells help to fight infection – they are stimulated by viral/bacterial infection
=> in a developing country, children will have high Th1 cells, which suppresses Th2 cells.

Immunisation and clean environment mean that Th1 cells do not increase, so Th2 cells are not suppressed
=> in developed countries, Th2 cells are higher and this causes more allergies

478
Q

Airborne allergens

A

Dust mites
Grass/tree/weed pollen
Pet dander/hair
Mould

479
Q

Dust mite allergy

A

Causes perennial allergic rhino-conjunctivitis (present throughout the year).

Management:
=> antihistamines
=> regular hoovering/prevention of dust mites.

480
Q

Grass/ tree/ weed pollen allergy

A

Causes seasonal allergic rhino-conjunctivitis (= hay fever)

Management – antihistamines, LTRAs, sometimes immunotherapy (Grasax).

481
Q

Pet allergy

A

Dander, hair and saliva may induce an allergic reaction.

Tend to not be life-threatening reactions, and over prolonged exposure can develop tolerance.

In some children, it can trigger asthma

482
Q

Common food allergens

A

Infants – cow’s milk, egg, peanut

Older children – peanut, tree nut, fish, shellfish

483
Q

Non-allergic food hypersensitivity

A

Experience discomfort after certain food.
=> D&V, abdo pain, failure to thrive

e.g. lactose intolerance

484
Q

Food allergy

A

The immune system is specifically involved, and the immune responses can be measured.

Immediate onset of symptoms (10-15 mins after ingestion)
=> Rash, itching, swelling, etc.
=> Severe – wheeze, stridor, abdo pain, shock, collapse.

Responds to antihistamines.

485
Q

Food allergy - Investigations

A
  • History and examination
  • Total and specific IgE antibodies
  • Skin-prick test
  • Exclusion of food (and careful reintroduction – “food challenge”)
486
Q

Food allergy - Management

A
  1. Avoid food triggers
  2. Mild reaction = antihistamines
  3. Severe reaction = IM adrenaline
487
Q

Food allergy - when should a GP refer to allergy specialist?

A
  • FTT/GI symptoms of food allergy
  • No response to single elimination diet
  • > 1 systemic reaction
  • > 1 severe delayed reaction
  • IgE associated food allergy & asthma
  • Significant eczema – multiple food allergies suspected
488
Q

Multi-system nature of allergy

A
  • Respiratory symptoms – asthma, hoarseness
  • Skin/mucous membrane symptoms – urticaria, angio-oedema, rhinitis, conjunctivitis
  • CV symptoms – anaphylactic shock
  • GI symptoms – abdominal pain, V&D
489
Q

Acute Urticaria/angioedema

A

Acute (<6 weeks)

usually caused by food allergy, drug reactions (especially Abx), infection

490
Q

Chronic Urticaria/angioedema

A

lasts >6 weeks

usually non-allergic (cold, heat, water, sunlight, sweating).

491
Q

what is Tarsal Coalition ?

How can it present?

A

= lack of segmentation of small bones of feet => rigid and limited motion

presents as recurrent strains in adolescence.

492
Q

“Normal” flat feet

A

<4 years old = normal
=> Due to flat medial longitudinal arch
=> Standing on tip-toe/extension of big toe demonstrates arch

493
Q

“Abnormal” flat feet - presentation, Ix and Mx

A

Often painful, stiff and no arch on tip-toeing

Ix = X-ray, MRI/CT

Mx = specialised footwear/arch support, surgery for tarsal coalition.

494
Q

DDx for flat feet

A

Achilles contracture,
tarsal coalition,
idiopathic juvenile arthritis,
infection.

495
Q

Forefoot adduction

A

= “in-toeing”
Usually resolves by age 5.

Causes:
1. Metatarsus varus = highly mobile foot causes adduction deformity.

  1. Medial tibial torsion = lack of lateral rotation of tibia.
  2. Anteverted femoral neck = at hip => twisted forward more than normal.
496
Q

What is Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip ?

Why does it occur?

A

= a spectrum from dysplasia of the joint, to subluxation (partial dislocation) to frank dislocation.

Occurs due to shallow acetabulum.

497
Q

What conditions are often associated with DDH?

A

Talipes equinovarus

Torticollis

498
Q

Risk factors for DDH

A
  • Female
  • Breech
  • FHx
  • 1st born
  • Oligohydramnios
499
Q

When is DDH most often identified?

A

At the Newborn examination / 6-8 week post-natal check

500
Q

DDH - Diagnosis

A
  1. Newborn examination / 6-8 week post-natal check - identifies most cases
    => Barlow and Ortolani test
    => If suspected or high-risk, refer to orthopaedics for USS of hip.
  2. Later presentation with abnormal limp/gait
    => +/- shortened leg (Galeazzi’s sign) or limited abduction
    => +/- asymmetrical skin folds
    => needs X-ray to confirm diagnosis
501
Q

Barlow and Ortolani tests

A
Barlow = posterior dislocation out of acetabulum
Ortolani = abductive relocation into acetabulum

After 2-3 months of age, the Ortolani test and Barlow manoeuvres are less sensitive

502
Q

How can and degree of hip instability be described?

A
  1. Dislocated and reducible (+ve Ortolani)
  2. Dislocated and irreducible (-ve Ortolani)
  3. Dislocatable (+ve Barlow)
  4. Subluxed (a hip with mild instability or laxity with a -ve Barlow manoeuvre)
503
Q

DDH - management

A

<6 months – Pavlik Harness
=> Maintains hip flexion and abduction until 12-18 months old
=> Monitor progress with USS/X-ray

> 6 months or Tx failure – surgery (open reduction and 3 months in a cast).

504
Q

What is Structural Scoliosis?

What are the causes?

A

= lateral curvature of the spine.

  1. Idiopathic (85%) – most often starts in girls at pubertal growth spurt.
  2. Congenital – spinal defect (e.g. VACTERL, spina bifida)
  3. Secondary – to cerebral palsy, muscular dystrophy, neurofibromatosis, Marfan’s, IJA
505
Q

What is the most common cause of scoliosis?

A

idiopathic

506
Q

Scoliosis - investigations

A
  1. Examination of back
    => Irregular skin creases, different shoulder heights
    => If scoliosis disappears on leaning forwards = postural scoliosis
  2. X-ray if more severe
    => To assess and monitor progression.
507
Q

Scoliosis - management

A
  • Mild – asymptomatic, resolves spontaneously.
  • Severe – bracing
  • Very severe or associated complication (e.g. chest deformity causing cardiorespiratory failure) – surgery.
508
Q

what is Torticollis?

A

“wry neck”

= tilted head/neck position towards the affected muscle.

509
Q

Causes of torticollis?

A

ACUTE
Sleep in unusual position
Neck sprain

CHRONIC
SCM tumour (most common cause in infants)
Muscle spasm
ENT infection
Spinal tumour
Cervical spine arthritis
510
Q

SCM tumour

A

benign, mobile, non-tender nodule

resolves in 2-6 months.

511
Q

Management of torticollis

A

= treat underlying cause!

Analgesia, heat packs, passive stretching. 
Muscle relaxants (e.g. diazepam)
512
Q

What is a skeletal dysplasia?

A

= genetic mutation (inherited or de novo) causing generalised developmental disorder of bone.

513
Q

Types of skeletal dysplasia

A
  1. Achondroplasia (Dwarfism)
  2. Thanatophoric Dysplasia
    => Causes stillbirth of infant with large head, short limbs, small chest.
  3. Cleidocranial Dysostosis:
    => Absence of part/all clavicles
    => Short stature
  4. Osteogenesis Imperfecta (brittle bone disease)
514
Q

What causes Osteogenesis Imperfecta ?

A

= disorders of collagen metabolism, causing bone fragility

515
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta - symptoms

A

bowing, frequent fractures

516
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta - management

A

bisphosphonates,

splinting of fractures

517
Q

Type 1 vs Type 2 Osteogenesis Imperfecta

A

Type 1 = most common
=> blue sclera, hearing loss

Type 2
Multiple fractures before birth => often stillborn

518
Q

Causes of bone/joint infection

A

haematogenous spread,
spread from adjacent soft-tissue infection,
penetrating wound

519
Q

bone/joint infection - risk factors

A
immunosuppressed, 
DM, 
extremes of age, 
recent operation/injection, 
wounds
520
Q

bone/joint infection - complications

A

bone/cartilage necrosis,
chronic infection,
limb deformity,
amyloidosis

521
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

= infection of the long bones.

522
Q

Osteomyelitis - Sx

A
PAIN
Immobile limb
Fever
Swelling, tender, warmth
Erythema over bone

15% have co-existing septic arthritis

523
Q

Osteomyelitis - Ix

A

Bloods – increased WCC, CRP, ESR
Blood cultures

X-ray – radiolucent area with hypodense border (due to new bone formation)
USS – ?co-existent joint effusion
MRI – subperiosteal pus
Bone scintigraphy – increased radionucleotide uptake

524
Q

Osteomyelitis - Mx

A
  1. IMMEDIATE IV ABX
    => Minimum 4 weeks.
    => IV initially then switch to PO
  2. Supportive
    => Analgesia, bedrest, immobilise/splint then physio
  3. Surgical
    => Decompression/aspiration or subperiosteal space if abscess or Tx failure.
525
Q

What is septic arthritis?

A

= infection of the joint space

526
Q

Septic arthritis - Sx

A
PAIN (on passive movement)
Immobile limb
Fever
Swelling, tender, warmth
Erythema over joint
\+/- joint effusion
\+/- limp
527
Q

Septic arthritis - Ix

A

Bloods – increased WCC, CRP, ESR
Blood cultures

JOINT ASPIRATION & CULUTRE = DIAGNOSITIC

X-ray – normal
USS – shows joint effusion
MRI/Bone scintigraphy – show any co-existent osteomyelitis

528
Q

Septic arthritis - Mx

A
  1. IMMEDIATE ABX
    => Minimum 2 weeks.
    => IV at first then switch to PO
  2. Supportive
    => Analgesia, bedrest, immobilise/splint then physio
  3. Joint Drainage and Washout (lavage)
    => If deep-seated or Tx failure.
529
Q

Limping Child - acute causes

A
Infection (OM/SA)
Transient synovitis (irritable hip)
Trauma/overuse injury
Malignancy 
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis 
Reactive arthritis/JIA
530
Q

Limping Child - chronic causes

A
Congenital problem (DDH, talipes)
Tarsal coalition
Neuromuscular
JIA
Perthes Disease
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
531
Q

Likely Dx of limping child aged 0-2?

A

DDH

532
Q

Likely Dx of limping child aged 2-4?

A

Transient synovitis (irritable hip)

533
Q

Likely Dx of limping child aged 5-10?

A

Perthes Disease

534
Q

Likely Dx of limping child aged 10-15?

A

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

535
Q

What is the #1 cause of hip pain in children?

A

Transient Synovitis (Irritable Hip)

536
Q

Transient Synovitis - presentation

A

Follows/accompanies viral infection.

Symptoms:

  • Pain on movement (not at rest)
  • Decreased ROM (especially internal rotation)
  • Afebrile/not ill
537
Q

Transient Synovitis - investigations

A

Important to differentiate from septic arthritis => need bloods, blood cultures, normal X-ray

538
Q

Transient Synovitis - management

A

Improves in 1 week => Bed rest and analgesia

Safety net – fever, unwell, non-weight bearing.

(3% develop Perthes’ Disease)

539
Q

What is Perthes Disease?

A

Idiopathic interruption of the blood supply to the femoral head,
=> causes avascular necrosis of capital femoral epiphysis, then revascularisation and re-ossification.

540
Q

Perthes Disease - Sx

A
  • Insidious onset (days)

- Limp or hip/knee pain

541
Q

Perthes Disease - Ix

A
  • X-ray (AP and frog lateral) – femoral epiphyseal head flattened and fragmented, increased density.
  • Bone scan
  • MRI
542
Q

Perthes Disease - Mx

A

Early/mild – AVOID INTENSIVE EXERCISE, bed rest, traction, analgesia.

Late/severe – plaster/calipers to maintain hip in abduction, femoral/pelvic osteotomy.

543
Q

Perthes Disease - Prognosis

A

Poor prognostic factors - >5 years old, >50% epiphysis involved, deformed femoral head

=> Can cause later complication of osteoarthritis

544
Q

what is Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis ?

A

Postero-inferior displacement of epiphysis

545
Q

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis - Risk factors

A

Adolescent males (growth spurt)
Obesity
Hypothyroidism
Hypogonadism

546
Q

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis - Sx

A
  • Acute (post-trauma) or insidious
  • Limp or hip/knee pain – often bilateral
  • Restricted abduction and internal rotation of hip
547
Q

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis - Ix

A

X-ray (AP and frog-lateral) => lost Klein’s line, widened growth plate.

548
Q

Klein’s Line

A

= an arbitrary line drawn along the superior edge of the femoral neck

should normally intersect the lateral aspect of the superior femoral epiphysis

549
Q

Trethowan sign

A

when the line of Klein passes above the femoral head.

indicates slipped capital femoral epiphysis

550
Q

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis - Mx

A

needs to be treated ASAP to prevent avascular necrosis

Conservative – analgesia, crutches
Surgical – pin fixation in situ.

551
Q

Common pathogens in bone/joint infections

A

Staph. Aureus,
streptococcus,
H. influenzae,
TB (rare)

552
Q

Incomplete Fractures

A

Common in children due to softer/ more flexible bones – the bones compress/bend rather than break.

Include:

  1. Greenstick Fractures
  2. Buckle/Torus Fractures
  3. Hairline (stress) Fractures
553
Q

Greenstick Fractures

A

= partial break in one side causes other side to bend.

Common in mid-shaft forearm and lower leg.

554
Q

Buckle/Torus Fractures

A

= compression on one side of the bone causing bulging cortex.

Commonly distal metaphysis of radius

Following FOOSH

Appears as “base of pillar” and often no fracture line seen

555
Q

Hairline (stress) Fractures

A

= small “cracks” that do not traverse entire bone.

Usually from overuse/repetitive stress-bearing motions
=>e.g. track runners, gymnasts, dancers.

556
Q

Complete Fractures

A
  1. Communicated Fracture = bone broken into >2 pieces/crushed into fragments.
  2. Bucket-handle Fracture = fragmentation of corner of metaphysis.
    => Indicates non-accidental injury
557
Q

Which type of fracture indicates non-accidental injury?

A

Bucket-handle Fracture

558
Q

Growth Plate Fractures

A

Unique to children (common in growth spurt when physes are the weakest).

Typically caused by great force during sports or playground accidents.

Classified by Salter-Harries System

559
Q

Salter Harris Fracture Type I

A

Straight across the growth plate.

Tx - Splinting or Casting

560
Q

Salter Harris Fracture Type II

A

Into and above growth plate.

Tx - Splinting or Casting

561
Q

Salter Harris Fracture Type III

A

Into and lower than growth plate

Tx - Open reduction and Internal Fixation

562
Q

Salter Harris Fracture Type IV

A

Through growth plate

Tx - Open reduction and Internal Fixation

563
Q

Salter Harris Fracture Type V

A

Erasure of growth plate / Crush

Tx - Surgery

564
Q

Which Salter Harris type is the most common?

A

Type II

565
Q

Which Salter Harris type is the most likely to affect bone growth?

A

Type V

566
Q

What is the definition of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis?

A

= persistent joint swelling (>6 weeks) presenting before 16 years old in the absence of infection or other defined cause

567
Q

How common is Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis?

A

affects 1 in 1000

568
Q

What is the most common subtype of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis?

A

Persistent Oligoarthritis (~50%)

569
Q

What is Chronic anterior uveitis?

A

= inflammation of the uvea (middle layer of the eye).

It can cause eye pain and changes to vision.

570
Q

Monoarthritis

A

Affects 1 joint

e.g. septic arthritis, gout

571
Q

Oligarthritis

A

Affects 4 joints or less

e.g. reactive, psoriatic arthritis

572
Q

Polyarthritis

A

Affects more than 4 joints

e.g. rheumatoid, SLE

573
Q

Symptoms of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

A

Poor mood/decreased activity are indicators in infants

  • Joint gelling – stiffness after rest
  • Joint stiffness/pain – in mornings
  • Joint swelling – may appear later.
574
Q

Complications of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

A

1/3 have active disease into adulthood (may need joint replacements)

  1. Bone/joint deformities
  2. Chronic anterior uveitis
  3. Flexion contractures
  4. Growth failure
  5. Osteoporosis
  6. Amyloidosis – proteinuria and renal failure (rare)
  7. Side effects of Tx – growth suppression, immunosuppression
575
Q

What are the subtypes of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis?

A
Persistent Oligoarthritis
Extended Oligoarthritis
RF -ve Polyarthritis
RF +ve polyarthritis
Systemic Arthritis
Psoriatic Arthritis
Enthesitis-related Arthritis
Undifferentiated Arthritis
576
Q

JIA - Persistent Oligoarthritis

A

Affects max. 4 joints

Can have:

  • Chronic anterior uveitis
  • Leg length discrepancy

May have Antinuclear Antibody on tests

577
Q

JIA - Extended Oligoarthritis

A

> 4 joints
ASSYMETRICAL (large and small joints)

Can have:

  • Chronic anterior uveitis
  • Asymmetric growth

May have Antinuclear Antibody on tests

578
Q

JIA - RF -ve or +ve Polyarthritis

A

SYMMETRICAL
Large and small joints
Marked finger involvement
+/- TMJ or cervical spine

If RF +ve then rheumatoid factor will be present on tests and patient may have rheumatoid nodules

If -ve:
Low grade fever
Chronic anterior uveitis
Late reduced growth

579
Q

What age group is RF +ve polyarthritis likely to affect?

A

10-16 years

580
Q

JIA - Systemic Arthritis

Symptoms and Blood results

A

Oligo/polyarthritis
Arthralgia/myalgia

Can have:

  • Malaise, daily fevers
  • Salmon-pink macular rash
  • Lymphadenopathy

Bloods:

  • Anaemia
  • Raised CRP/ESR and platelets
581
Q

JIA - Psoriatic Arthritis

A

ASSYMETRICAL
Large and small joints
Dactylitis

Can have:

  • Psoriasis
  • Chronic anterior uveitis
582
Q

JIA - Enthesitis-related Arthritis

A

Affects large joints, mainly

There will be enthesitis (inflammation at tendon/ligament insertion)

583
Q

JIA - Undifferentiated Arthritis

A

Overlapping patterns of subtypes

584
Q

JIA - Management

A

MDT with rheumatology specialist.
Prevention and monitoring of complications

  1. NSAIDs – relieve symptoms during flares.
  2. Steroid injections
    - 1st line for oligoarthritis, bridging Tx for polyarthritis
  3. Methotrexate (tablet, liquid, injection weekly)
    - 1st line for polyarthritis
  4. Systemic corticosteroids
    - Life-saving if severe systemic JIA
    - Avoid if can as growth suppression/osteoporosis
  5. Immunotherapy (e.g. anti-TNF)
    - If methotrexate resistant
585
Q

What is 1st line treatment for oligoarthritis?

A

Steroid injections

586
Q

What is 1st line treatment for polyarthritis?

A

Methotrexate

587
Q

What are side effects of methotrexate?

A

nausea, liver damage, bone-marrow suppression

588
Q

What is 1st line treatment for severe systemic JIA?

A

systemic corticosteroids

589
Q

What is the definition of reactive arthritis?

A

= transient (<6 weeks) joint swelling following extra-articular infection.

590
Q

What infections can precede reactive arthritis?

A

Dysentery
STI - chlamydia, gonococcus
Viral illness
Other - mycoplasma, Lyme disease, Rheumatic fever

591
Q

Symptoms of Reactive Arthritis

A

Reiter’s Syndrome
Dactylitis – swollen “sausage” fingers/toes
+/- mild fever

592
Q

Reiter’s Syndrome

A

Consists of:

Joint swelling
Conjunctivitis
Urethritis (dysuria)

593
Q

Reactive Arthritis - Ix

A

To rule out other conditions:

  • Bloods – normal or mild raise in ESR/CRP
  • Rheumatoid factor – negative
  • Urine/stool MC&S – bacterial/viral infections
  • Joint aspiration and culture – no organisms
  • X-ray – normal
594
Q

Reactive Arthritis - Mx

A

NSAIDs – reduce inflammation

Steroids – if severe

595
Q

What are some other causes of Polyarthritis besides JIA?

A
  1. Infection – bacterial, viral, reactive.
  2. IBD – Crohn’s, UC
  3. Vasculitis – HSP, Kawasaki
  4. Haematological – haemophilia, Sickle Cell Disease
  5. Malignancy – leukaemia, neuroblastoma
  6. Connective Tissue Disorders – SLE, dermatomyositis, polyarteritis nododa
  7. Other – Cystic fibrosis
596
Q

Growing Pains

A

Wake in the night with pain (no daytime Sx)
Often worse after activity
Eased with massage
No abnormal physical signs

597
Q

Idiopathic pain syndromes

A
Chronic fatigue Syndrome
Myalgic encephalomyelitis
Fibromyalgia
Diffuse idiopathic pain
Localised idiopathic pain
598
Q

What haematological changes occur at birth?

A

Location of haematopoesis changes
=> from liver to the bone marrow.

Foetal Hb (HbF) is replaced by adult Hb (HbA)

Hb levels are high in newborns
=> Drops over the first few weeks.

599
Q

HbF and HbA

A

HbF = 2alpha and 2gamma – higher oxygen affinity

HbA = 2alpha and 2beta – lower oxygen affinity.

600
Q

what is Anaemia?

A

= Hb below the normal range for age.

  • Neonate: < 14 g/dL
  • 1-12 months: < 10g/dL
  • 1-12 years: <11 g/dL
601
Q

what are the 3 general causes of anaemia?

A
  1. Reduced red cell production
  2. Increased red cell destruction (haemolysis)
  3. Increased red cell loss (bleeding)
602
Q

Anaemia - Sx

A

Anaemia often asymptomatic, Sx normally only present when Hb quite low.

  • Fatigue/weakness
  • Pallor
  • SoB/tachycardia
  • Slow feeding, eating soil or chalk
603
Q

DDx Macrocytic Anaemia

A
Alcohol and liver disease
B12 deficiency
Compensatory reticulocytosis (blood loss)
Drugs (cytotoxic)
Endocrine (hypothyroidism)
Folate deficiency
604
Q

DDx Microcytic Anaemia

A
Thalassaemia
Anaemia of chronic disease
Iron deficiency anaemia
Lead poisoning
Sideroblastic anaemia
605
Q

Anaemia - Ix

A

FBC – MCV (size of RBC) and MHC (Hb per RBC)

Iron studies – serum iron and ferritin

Blood film – size, shape, colour

Serum bilirubin

Hb high performance liquid chromatography or Hb electrophoresis
=> Shows amount of each Hb type (HbS, HbA, HbF)

606
Q

What are causes of reduced RBC production

A

Iron deficiency anaemia
B12/folate deficiency
RBC Aplasia

607
Q

What are causes of increased RBC destruction

A

Intrinsic/extrinsic haemolysis

INTRINSIC - hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency, thalassaemias, SCD

EXTRINSIC - autoimmune, infection, drugs, burns

608
Q

What is the #1 cause of anaemia in children and why?

A

Iron Deficiency Anaemia

Due to high iron requirement of growth

609
Q

Iron deficiency anaemia - Causes

A

Inadequate intake
=> Prolonged breastfeeding (>6 months), iron deficient diet

Malabsorption – Coeliac
Blood loss

610
Q

Iron deficiency anaemia - Diagnosis

A

FBC – decreased MCV and MHC
Iron studies – decreased serum iron and serum ferritin
Blood film – abnormally shaped, small, pale RBCs

611
Q

Iron deficiency anaemia - Management

A

Dietary advice
=> High iron foods
=> VitC helps iron absorption
=> Avoid too much cow’s milk

Oral iron supplements
=> Continue until Hb normal, PLUS 3 months.

NB – if no response to Tx, consider Ix for other causes (especially malabsorption)

612
Q

What foods are high in iron?

A
red meat
pulses, beans, peas
leafy green veg
oily fish
fortified cereals
613
Q

How long are iron supplements needed in iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Taken until Hb returns to normal, PLUS 3 months.

614
Q

what are B12 and folate needed for ?

A
B12 = coenzyme needed for folate conversion
folate  = needed for RBC synthesis
615
Q

Causes of B12 and Folate Deficiency?

A

Low dietary intake
Malabsorption – e.g. Crohn’s
Low intrinsic factor – e.g. autoimmune

616
Q

B12 and Folate Deficiency - diagnosis

A

FBC – increased MCV (= macrocytic)

Iron and B12 studies – decreased B12, decreased serum folate, decreased cobalamin

617
Q

B12 and Folate Deficiency - management

A

Dietary advice
=> B12 – eggs, fortified cereals, dairy
=> Folate – broccoli, peas, brown rice

Oral B12 and folic acid supplements

618
Q

what is RBC Aplasia?

A

= failure of RBC synthesis

619
Q

Causes of RBC aplasia?

A

Diamond-Black anaemia (rare congenital condition)

Transient erythroblastopaenia (triggered by viral infection)

Parvovirus B19 (ONLY causes RBC aplasia in children with inherited haemolytic anaemia)

620
Q

RBC aplasia - diagnosis

A

Decreased Hb
Reduced reticulocytes
Normal bilirubin
Coombs test -ve

621
Q

Haemolysis - clinical features

A
  • Anaemia
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Jaundice
622
Q

Haemolysis - investigations

A
  • FBC – low Hb
  • Blood film – increased reticulocytes
  • Bilirubin – increased unconjugated bilirubin and increased urinary urobilinogen
  • Lactate dehydrogenase – increased LDH
623
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of sickle cell disease?

A

autosomal recessive

624
Q

Pathophysiology of sickle cell disease

A

Caused by a mutation in beta-globin gene causing abnormal HbS chain rather than HbA

= point mutation of glutamine to valine

Sickle-shaped RBCs have a decreased lifespan and also get stuck and occlude vessels.

625
Q

Sickle cell disease - risk factors

A

Black, Afro-Caribbean

626
Q

Sickle cell disease - types

A

Sickle Cell Anaemia (HbSS)

HbSC Disease (HbSC)

Sickle beta-thalassamia (HbSA)

Sickle Cell Trait (HbSA) - no symptoms, carrier

627
Q

Sickle beta-thalassamia (HbSA)

A

1 HbS + beta-thalassaemia trait causing low HbA

628
Q

Sickle cell disease - clinical presentation

A

Moderate anaemia
Jaundice
Infection (increased susceptibility)
Splenomegaly

Painful vaso-occlusive crises
Acute Anaemia

629
Q

Symptoms of vaso-occlusive crises in sickle cell disease

A

Hands and feet – dactylitis and swelling
Bones of limbs – avascular necrosis of femoral head
Lungs – acute chest syndrome = EMERGENCY
Penis – priapism

630
Q

Acute anaemia in sickle cell disease

A

Sudden drop in Hb +/- abdo pain, hepatosplenomegaly, circulatory collapse.

Triggered by infection, accumulation of sickle-cells in spleen

631
Q

Long-term problems in sickle cell disease

A

Short stature and delayed puberty
Stroke and neuro damage
Heart failure and renal dysfunction
Pigment gallstones

632
Q

Sickle cell disease - diagnosis

A
  1. Screening – heel-prick test
  2. Clinical presentation
  3. FBC and iron studies
  4. Blood film – sickle cells
  5. Hb HPLC – HbS
633
Q

Sickle cell disease - management

A
  1. Infection prophylaxis – vaccines and daily PO penicillin through childhood
  2. Daily folate supplements (lifelong)
  3. Decrease risk of VO crises – dress warm, stay hydrated, avoid excessive exercise/stress
  4. Treat VO crises – PO/IV analgesia, Abx and O2 if needed.
  5. Hydroxyurea to increase HbF – if recurrent VO crises/acute chest
  6. BM transplant – only cure
634
Q

what is the only cure for sickle cell disease?

A

Bone marrow transplant

635
Q

Beta-Thalassaemia

A

= autosomal-recessive disorder of beta-globin production, causing decreased HbA.

  • b-thalassaemia major – no HbA = very severe
  • b-thalassaemia minor – some HbA or HbF = mild/asymptomatic
636
Q

Beta-Thalassaemia - prognosis

A

90% live beyond 40 years if treatment compliant

637
Q

Prenatal diagnosis for Beta-Thalassaemia

A

Offered if one/both parents are affected.

if 2 affected parents = ¼ risk child affected

638
Q

Beta-Thalassaemia - clinical features

A

Severe anaemia from 3-6 months – transfusion dependent

Jaundice and pallor

Hepatosplenomegaly (if untreated)
Characteristic facies (if untreated)
639
Q

Beta-Thalassaemia - management

A
  1. Lifelong monthly blood transfusion
  2. Iron chelation (prevent Fe overload from transfusions)
  3. BM transplantation = only cure
640
Q

What is caused by iron deposition in the…

Heart
Liver
Pancreas
Skin

A

Heart – cardiomyopathy
Liver – cirrhosis
Pancreas – diabetes
Skin – hyperpigmentation

641
Q

Alpha-Thalassaemia

A

= autosomal recessive disorder of alpha-globin production causing decreased HbA.

a-thalassaemia major / Hb Barts hydrops fetalis – deletion of all 4 globin genes
=> very severe (no HbA)
=> leads to death in utero

HbH disease – deletion of 3 a-globin genes
=> Some HbA – mild/moderate anaemia
=> May need transfusions

a-thalassaemia trait – deletion of 1 or 2 a-globin genes
=> asymptomatic (some HbA)

642
Q

what is the mode of inheritance of Beta-Thalassaemia?

A

= autosomal-recessive

643
Q

what is the mode of inheritance of Alpha-Thalassaemia?

A

= autosomal-recessive

644
Q

Thalassaemia - investigations

A
  1. FBC and iron studies – microcytic, hypochromic anaemia
  2. Blood film – “target cells” or nucleated RBCs
  3. Hb HPLC – proportions of HbA, HbF, HbA2
645
Q

Hereditary Spherocytosis

A

= autosomal-dominant or de novo mutations for RBC membrane proteins.

Abnormal membrane causes spheroidal-shaped RBCs which are weak and hence destroyed in the spleen.

646
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of Hereditary Spherocytosis?

A

autosomal dominant

OR de novo mutation

647
Q

Hereditary Spherocytosis - clinical presentation

A

Jaundice – may be intermittent
Mild anaemia
Splenomegaly – due to haemolysis
Gallstones – decreased bilirubin excretion

APLASTIC CRISIS – new RBCs not made fast enough
=> Follows parvovirus B19, lasts 2-4 weeks

648
Q

Hereditary Spherocytosis - diagnosis

A

Suspect if FHx

FBC and iron studies – microcytic anaemia

Blood film – microcytic spherical RBCs

649
Q

What can happen in a patient with Hereditary Spherocytosis following parvovirus B19 infection?

A

aplastic crisis (RBC aplasia)

650
Q

Hereditary Spherocytosis - management

A

Oral folic acid – increased demand as increased RBC synthesis

Tx for aplastic crisis – tranfusions until resolves

Splenectomy – if poor growth/troublesome Sx
=> Will need daily prophylactic ABX afterwards

651
Q

G6PD Deficiency

A

= X-linked recessive mutation in G6PD gene – an enzyme involved in preventing oxidative damage to RBCs.

652
Q

What is the mode of inheritence of G6PD deficiency?

A

= X-linked recessive

653
Q

G6PD Deficiency - risk factors

A

African, Mediterranean, Middle Eastern

654
Q

G6PD Deficiency - clinical presentation

A

Asymptomatic between haemolytic episodes

Neonatal jaundice – usually within first 3 days

Acute intravascular haemolysis – fever, pallor, malaise, dark urine
=> Precipitated by infection, certain drugs, fava beans
=> Hb drops <5g/dL within 24-48 hours

655
Q

G6PD Deficiency - diagnosis

A

FBC – decreased Hb, increased reticulocytes

Unconjucated BR raised

LDH raised

Blood film – Heinz body inclusions (only seen during haemolytic crisis)

G6PD activity – reduced

656
Q

Heinz body

A

= rounded structure protruding from the margin of an erythrocyte or as a small somewhat refractile spot within the cell, they are the result of oxidative damage to erythrocyte haemoglobin.

657
Q

G6PD Deficiency - management

A
  1. Safety net for signs of acute haemolysis
  2. Advise on foods/drugs to avoid
    => Quinine, sulphonamides, nitrofurantoin, high dose aspirin, fava beans
  3. May need blood transfusion during haemolytic crisis
658
Q

Bleeding Disorders - History

A

Age of onset

Bleeding Hx/pattern

  • Bleeds with previous surgery/dental work – inherited
  • Mucous membranes – platelet disorder/vWD
  • Haemarthrosis – haemophilia

Drug Hx - Anticoagulants?

659
Q

Bleeding Disorders - Ix

A

FBC and blood film

PT and APTT

Thrombin time

Mixing studies – determine if factor deficient or inhibitor present

D-dimers

660
Q

Inherited Bleeding disorders

A

Haemophilia A + B

vWD

661
Q

Acquired Bleeding disorders

A

Vitamin K deficiency
Thromcobytopaenia (immune thrombocytopaenia (ITP))
DIC

662
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of haemophilia?

A

= X-linked recessive

663
Q

What is haemophilia?

What factors are affected in Haemophilia A and B?

A

= X-linked recessive coagulation disorders.

Haemophilia A = factor VIII deficiency (more common)

Haemophilia B = factor IX deficiency

664
Q

Haemophilia - clinical features

A
  • Mild – bleed after surgery
  • Moderate – Bleed after minor trauma
  • Severe – spontaneous joint/muscle bleeds

40% of cases present in neonates with intracranial haemorrhage/post-circumcision bleed.

Commonly presents when start to crawl/walk.

665
Q

Haemophilia - diagnosis

A

Increased APTT

Low Factor VIII/IX

666
Q

Haemophilia - management

A

Avoid NSAIDs and IM injections

For any acute bleeds – IV recombinant factor 8 or 9 (given ASAP, parents taught to administer at home).

For severe disease/before major surgery – regular prophylactic IV factor

For mild disease – desmopressin (antidiuretic that causes secretion of factor VIII and vWF into plasma)

667
Q

Von Willebrand Disease (vWD)

A

= autosomal dominant deficiency in von Willebrand factor (vWF).

vWF facilitates platelet adhesion and is a carrier protein for factor VIII preventing its degradation.

668
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of vWD?

A

autosomal dominant

669
Q

vWD - clinical features

A
  • Bruising
  • Prolonged bleeding
  • Mucosal bleeding – epistaxis, menorrhagia
670
Q

vWD - diagnosis

A

Increased APTT

Normal platelets and INR

671
Q

vWD - management

A

Avoid NSAIDs and IM injections
Mild – desmopressin
Severe – plasma-derived factor VIII concentrate/vWF

672
Q

Which coagulation factors need vitamin K?

A

factors 2, 7, 9, 10

673
Q

Causes of vitamin K deficiency

A

Caused by inadequate intake, malabsorption, warfarin.

674
Q

definition of thrombocytopaenia

A

= Platelets <150 x10^9 /L

  • Mild = 50-150
  • Moderate = 20-50
  • Severe <20
675
Q

thrombocytopaenia - clinical features

A
  • Bruising, petechiae, purpura
  • Mucosal bleeding

Less common = GI haemorrhage, haematuria, intracranial bleed.

676
Q

what is the most common cause of thrombocytopaenia in children?

A

= immune thrombocytopaenia (ITP)

Caused by destruction of circulating platelets by IgG autoantibodies (following viral infection).
=> Onset 1-2 weeks post viral infection

677
Q

immune thrombocytopaenia (ITP) - investigations

A
  • Careful Hx and examination
  • FBC and blood film
  • BM examination – to exclude leukaemia/aplastic anaemia
678
Q

immune thrombocytopaenia (ITP) - management

A

Benign, self-limiting – resolves in 6-8 weeks
=> If major bleed/persistent minor bleed – oral prednisolone, IV anti-D or IV Ig
=> If life-threatening haemorrhage – platelet transfusion

Chronic ITP – persistently low platelets for >6 months
=> If major bleed/persistent minor bleed – oral prednisolone, IV anti-D or IV Ig
=> If life-threatening haemorrhage – monoclonal antibodies, splenectomy

Avoid contact sports if platelet count is low.

679
Q

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

A

coagulation pathway activation => diffuse fibrin deposition and consumption of coagulation factors and platelets.

680
Q

DIC - causes

A

Severe sepsis
Trauma/burns
Malignancy
Toxins

681
Q

DIC - Sx

A

Bruising
Purpura
Haemorrhage

682
Q

DIC - diagnosis

A

CLOTTING SCREEN

  • Low platelets, fibrinogen
  • Raised D-dimer
  • Low antithrombin
  • Low protein C and S
  • Raised APTT and PT
683
Q

DIC - management

A

Treat underlying cause

Supportive – e.g. FFP, platelets

684
Q

What is a seizure?

What types are there?

A

= a sudden disturbance of neurological function resulting in a change in behaviour.

EPILEPTIC - due to excessive, hyper-synchronous neuronal discharge in the cerebral cortex.

NON-EPILEPTIC - Seizures not involving abnormal electrical activity in the brain

685
Q

Causes of epileptic seizures

A

Idiopathic (70-80%)

Secondary

  • Cerebral dysgenesis
  • Cerebral vascular occlusion
  • Cerebral damage (e.g. hypoxia, infection)
  • Cerebral tumour

Neurodegenerative disorders
Neurocutaneous syndromes

686
Q

Causes of non-epileptic seizures

A

Febrile seizures

Metabolic

Head trauma

Infection - Meningitis/encephalitis

Poisons/toxins

Hypoxia/anoxia
=> Reflex anoxia/Cardiac arrythmia

687
Q

Seizures - Investigations

A
  1. History = MOST IMPORTANT
  2. Examination
  3. EEG
  4. Imaging
  5. Tests to r/o other causes (ECG, bloods)
688
Q

Seizure - Hx

A

Frequency, triggers, length, symptoms

Any impairments, educational/psychological/social impacts

Video of seizure if possible

689
Q

Seizure - Examination

A

CNS and PNS

CVS and resp

Skin markers for neurocutaneous syndromes

690
Q

Seizure - Imaging

A

MRI/CT – if neuro signs between seizures (r/o tumour or CVD)

PET/SPECT – detect areas of hypo/hypermetabolism

691
Q

What is epilepsy?

How common is it?

A

= Chronic neurological disorder, characterised by recurrent, unprovoked seizures.

1 in 200 children affected

692
Q

Types of epileptic seizures

A
  1. Generalised
    - Discharge from both hemispheres
    - No warning
    - Always have LOC
  2. Focal:
    - Discharge from ONE part of ONE hemisphere
    - May have a preceding aura
    - May or may not have LOC
    - May lead to generalised tonic-clonic seizure if LOC
693
Q

Generalised epileptic seizures

A
Tonic-clonic (Grand-mal)
Absence (petit-mal)
Myoclonic
Tonic
Atonic
694
Q

Focal epileptic seizures

A

Temporal
Frontal
Occipital
Parietal

695
Q

Tonic-clonic seizure

A

Tonic phase
=> May fall to ground, hold breath (cyanosis)

Clonic phase
=>	Last seconds to minutes
=>	Rhythmical jerking
=>	Irregular breathing, cyanosis, salivation
=>	Tongue-biting, incontinence

Post-ictal sleep/LOC (up to several hours)

696
Q

absence seizure

A

“Blanking out” / staring
Absence of motor symptoms
Brief onset and termination

697
Q

Myoclonic seizure

A

Repetitive, jerky movements

698
Q

Tonic or atonic seizure

A

Tonic - Generalised increased tone => Fall

Atonic - Loss of muscle tone => fall

699
Q

Complications of epileptic seizures in children?

A

Many have learning difficulties
Continuation into adulthood
Sudden unexplained death in epilepsy (SUDEP)

700
Q

Sudden unexplained death in epilepsy (SUDEP)

A

Rare but must discuss with parents

Decrease risk by minimising seizures.

701
Q

Epilepsy - Ix

A

As per seizure investigations

EEG is always indicated if epilepsy is suspected

702
Q

Epilepsy - Mx

A

Depends on likelihood of recurrence, severity and impact on life of seizures.

  1. Education and Advice
  2. Anti-epileptic Drugs
  3. Rescue Therapy
703
Q

Epilepsy - Education and Advice

A

Lifestyle – avoid deep baths/swimming alone, alcohol/sleep, only drive if no seizures for 1 year.

During seizure:
• DO – place pillow under head, move nearby objects, note time seizure began, place in recovery position afterwards.
• DO NOT – restrict/move child, give food/drink until complete recovery

704
Q

For how long are Anti-epileptic Drugs taken?

A

Until seizure free for 2 years.

705
Q

Principles of Anti-epileptic Drug therapy

A
  • Drug depends on seizure type
  • Aim for monotherapy at lowest effective dose.
  • Must be counselled on side effects
  • A single seizure does not indicate starting AEDs
706
Q

What is the 1st line drug for generalised epileptic seizures?

What are the side effects of this drug?

A

Valproate

Weight gain, Hair loss, TERATOGEN

707
Q

What is the 2nd line drug for generalised epileptic seizures?

What are the side effects of this drug?

A

Lamotrigine

Rash (SJS), Insomnia

708
Q

Indication for Carbamazepine in epilepsy?

What are its side effects?

A

Focal seizures

SEs - Rash, Hyponatraemia, Ataxia, CYP140 inducer

709
Q

Indication for Levetiracetam in epilepsy?

A

Focal seizures

710
Q

Indication for Ethosuximide in epilepsy?

A

Absence seizures

711
Q

Epilepsy - rescue therapy

A

BZDs

=> Given to terminate prolonged seizures (>5 mins)

712
Q

Epilepsy Syndromes of Childhood

A
West Syndrome (Infantile spasms and hypsarrythmia)
Lennox-Gastaut
Benign Occipital
Benign + centrotemporal spikes
Childhood Absence
Juvenile Myoclonic
713
Q

What is West Syndrome?

A

INFANTILE SPASMS

  • violent spasms lasting 1-2s
  • often on waking
  • 4-6 months old

Associated with:

  • Low IQ/developmental regression
  • Poor social interaction
  • Hypsarrhythmia EEG
714
Q

Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome

A
  • Drop attacks
  • T-C
  • atypical absence
  • Neurodevelopmental arrest
715
Q

Juvenile Myoclonic Syndrome

A

Occurs in Adolesence

Myoclonic jerks after waking

716
Q

Definition of febrile seizures

A

= seizure accompanied by fever, caused by infection of extra-cranial origin.

DDx – sepsis, meningitis, brain abscess, gastroenteritis.

Usually occur at 6 months – 6 years old

717
Q

febrile seizures - features

A

Onset = early in viral infection

Brief (<10 mins), generalised tonic-clonic

Rapidly rising temperature +/- other signs of infection

718
Q

febrile seizures - complications

A

Further febrile seizures (30-40%)

Increased risk of epilepsy if complex seizure (>10 mins, focal, recurring in 24 hours, <18 months)

719
Q

What is the chance of a child having further febrile seizures after their first?

A

30-40%

720
Q

febrile seizures - Management

A

Reassurance – usually no long term complications

Education – high chance of another, seizure first aid, rescue Tx.

May give rescue Tx if >5 mins

Manage underlying infection – anti-pyrexials, fluids, etc.

721
Q

What can be used for rescue Tx in seizures in children?

A

diazepam buccal/PR
OR
SL midazolam

722
Q

What are reflex Anoxic Seizures?

What triggers them?

A

Occur due to vagal inhibition caused by temporary cardiac asystole.

Triggers – pain, cold food, fear, fever.

Usually grow out of these by age 4-5

723
Q

How can Cardiac Arrythmias cause seizures?

A

Prolonged Q-T causes collapse/syncope

May be exercise-induced

724
Q

Psychogenic non-epileptic Seizures

A

Triggered by stress/emotions

More common in adolescent girls

725
Q

Benign Sleep Myoclonus

A

Myoclonic jerks during REM sleep, no EEG changes

Typically <6 months old

726
Q

Paroxysmal events

A

= Sudden onset symptoms mimicking seizures (“funny turns”)

Include:

  • breath-holding attacks
  • Neurally mediated Syncope/Faint
  • Migraine
  • Benign Paroxysmal Vertigo
727
Q

Primary Headaches

A
  1. Tension Type
  2. Cluster
  3. Migraine
728
Q

Secondary Headaches

A

Raised ICP/space occupying lesions

Head/neck trauma,
IC haemorrhage,
Toxins (alcohol/drugs, etc),
Acute sinusitis

729
Q

features of tension headache

A

Symmetrical “band” of pressure, gradual onset (usually evening).

730
Q

features of cluster headache

A

One-sided, excruciating attacks of pain, often around one eye

731
Q

features of migraine

A

= Headache associated with other symptoms

Common in children

Triggers – stress, exercise, tiredness, bright lights, cheese/chocolate, hormones.

Without aura (90%) – bilateral, pulsatile headache + N&V, abdo pain, photophobia, phonophobia => 1-72 hours.

With aura (10%) – preceding visual disturbance (hemianopia/scotoma/zig-zag lines) => several hours.

732
Q

Features of raised ICP/space occupying lesions

A

Morning vomiting/headache,
Night-time waking/worse Sx lying down,
Altered mood/behaviour.

Visual field defect,
CN abnormalities,
Abnormal gait,
Papilloedema

733
Q

Headaches- Ix

A

Thorough Hx – triggers, onset, duration, Sx, substance use, analgesia overuse.

Physical Examination – vision, sinus tenderness, pain on chewing, BP, CNS & PNS

734
Q

Headaches - Mx

A

Education & advice:
=> Reassure that recurrent headaches are common and cause no long-term harm
=> No cure, but can relieve Sx.

Prophylaxis (if >2 per month):
=> 5-HT antagonist, beta-blockers, sodium channel blockers.

Rescue Tx:
=> Analgesia, anti-emetics, serotonin agonists (Sumatriptan, if >12 years).

Psychological Support:
=> If headaches triggered by particular stressor – e.g. bullying, exams.

735
Q

What is cerebral palsy?

A

= disorder of movement and posture due to non-progressive disturbance in developing brain <2 years.

Often accompanied by disturbed cognition, communication, vision, perception, sensation, behaviour.

Associated with seizures and secondary MSK problems

736
Q

what is the most common cause of motor impairment in children?

A

cerebral palsy

737
Q

When can the causes of cerebral palsy occur?

A
  • Antenatal (80%)
  • Perinatal (10%)
  • Postnatal (10%)
738
Q

Antenatal causes of cerebral palsy

A

Hypoxia – cord prolapse, APH, maternal shock, rhesus disease, placental insufficiency (pre-eclampsia)

Abnormal development

Congenital infection – e.g. STIs, rubella, CMV

739
Q

Perinatal causes of cerebral palsy

A

Hypoxic-ischaemic injury – prolonged labour/delivery, breech, C-section

740
Q

Postnatal causes of cerebral palsy

A

Prematurity = big risk factor => intraventricular haemorrhage, infection, etc.

Metabolic disturbance – e.g. hyperbilirubinaemia

Head trauma

741
Q

Cerebral Palsy - clinical presentation

A

Although non-progressive damage, Sx often emerge over time during development.

  • Abnormal posture and tone
  • Delayed motor milestones
  • Feeding difficulties
  • Asymmetric hand function
742
Q

Types of cerebral palsy

A
  1. SPASTIC (90%)
  2. DYSKINETIC
  3. ATAXIC/HYPOTONIC
743
Q

Spastic Cerebral Palsy

A
Damaged UMN (corticospinal/pyramidal pathway)
=> causes spastic movements, hyperreflexia, +ve Babinski

Can be Hemiplegic, Diplegic, Quadriplegic

744
Q

Dyskinetic Cerebral Palsy

A

Damaged basal ganglia or extra-pyramidal tracts
=> causes involuntary, uncontrolled movements and dystonia

Chorea = irregular, brief, fidgety movements. 
Athetosis = slow, writhing movements in distal muscles
Dystonia = abnormal tone and muscle contraction causing twisting appearance.
745
Q

Ataxic/hypotonic Cerebral Palsy

A

Damage to cerebellum => causes cerebellar signs

Hypotonia, poor balance, uncoordinated movements, intention tremor, ataxic gait.

746
Q

Management of Cerebral Palsy

A
  1. Therapies – physio, occupational therapy, speech and language therapy.
  2. Medication
    - Botulinum toxin injections – improve specific muscle tightness, stop drooling.
    - Muscle relaxants – baclofen, diazepam (short-term only)
  3. Surgery:
    - Cut nerves to spastic muscles – may cause numbness
    - Orthopaedic surgery – lengthen muscles, correct limb position.
747
Q

Ataxia

A

= incoordination of muscle movement (gait, speech, posture) due to cerebellar/motor pathway problems.

748
Q

Causes of ataxia

A

Medications/Drugs
Infection – varicella
Posterior fossa lesions
Genetic and neurodegenerative disorders

749
Q

Symptoms of ataxia

A

Unsteady, wide-based gait
Dysdiadochokinesia and dysmetria
Intention tremor
Nystagmus

750
Q

Genetic and neurodegenerative disorders causing ataxia

A

Friedrich Ataxia

Ataxic Telangiectasia

751
Q

Friedrich Ataxia

A

Autosomal recessive trinucleotide repeat (frataxin gene)

Diagnosed with genetic testing.

Complications – kyphoscoliosis and cardiomypoathy

752
Q

Ataxic Telangiectasia

A

Autosomal recessive DNA repair disorder (ATM gene)

Diagnosed with genetic testing and raised AFP

Complications – increased risk of infection (IgA defect), malignancy (ALL)

753
Q

Subdural Haematoma - causes

A

Non-accidental Injury (shaking/direct trauma)

Direct trauma to head

754
Q

Subdural Haematoma - symptoms

A

Altered mental state/seizures
Apnoea/breathing difficulty
Retinal haemorrhages often present

=> If a child presents like this consider NAI and safeguarding.

755
Q

Spinal Muscular Atrophy

A

Caused by autosomal recessive degeneration of anterior horn cells.

Sx – progressive weakness and wasting of skeletal muscle.

3 types – type 1 is most severe form which presents in infancy and causes death by 1 year from respiratory failure.

756
Q

Peripheral Neuropathies

A

Guillain-Barre

Chronic Inflammatory Demyelinating Polyneuropathy

Hereditary Motor Sensory Neuropathies

Bell Palsy

757
Q

What is Guillain-Barre?

What are the symptoms?

A

Autoimmune demyelination of peripheral nerves following infection

2-4 weeks after URTI or campylobacter.

Sx:

  • Ascending symmetrical weakness (over days-weeks)
  • Loss of reflexes
  • Distal paraesthesia
  • Difficulty chewing/swallowing
  • Difficulty breathing (if respiratory muscles affected)
  • Autonomic dysfunction – tachy/bradycardia, HTN, urinary retention
758
Q

Guillain-Barre - Ix

A

Lumbar puncture – increased protein, normal WCC

Nerve conduction studies – slowed

+/- spinal cord MRI

759
Q

Guillain-Barre - Mx

A

Supportive – may need artificial ventilation

Reassure 90% recover fully (may take 2 years)

760
Q

Chronic Inflammatory Demyelinating Polyneuropathy

A

Thought to be autoimmune

Sx similar to Guillain-Barre, but slower progression.

Mx – supportive PLUS HIGH DOSE CORTICOSTEROIDS (prednisolone)

761
Q

Hereditary Motor Sensory Neuropathies

A

Demyelination and attempted re-myelination of nerves.

762
Q

What is the most common Hereditary Motor Sensory Neuropathy?

What are the Sx?

How is it managed?

A

Type 1 (CHARCOT-MARIE-TOOTH) = most common (dominant inheritance)

Sx:

  • Progressive symmetrical distal muscle wasting.
  • +/- distal sensory and reflex loss
  • Physical deformities – stork leg, pes cavus, hammer toes.

Mx = long-term physio and OT to improve symptoms/prevent decline (no cure)

763
Q

Bell Palsy

  • Cause
  • Symptoms
  • Complications
  • Managements
A

Isolated LMN paresis of CNVII (facial)
Occurs post-infection

Sx – complete hemiparesis of face

Complications – conjunctivitis as cannot close eye.

Mx –
Usually recover fully in several months
Corticosteroids in first week, eye patch.

764
Q

Muscular Dystrophies

A
  1. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
  2. Becker Muscular Dystrophy
  3. Congenital Muscular Dystrophies
765
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?
What does the mutation lead to?

A

X-linked or de novo mutation – deletion at Xp21

=> Leads to reduced dystrophin protein, resulting in myofiber necrosis

766
Q

What is the most common muscular dystrophy?

A

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

767
Q

DMD - signs/symptoms

A

= Progressive muscular atrophy

Infants – Gower’s Sign, waddling gait, climb stairs 1-by-1, language delay.

Children – slow running, clumsiness, pseudohypertrophy of calves, non-ambulatory by 10-14 years.

768
Q

Gower’s Sign

A

Use of their hands and arms to “walk” up their own body from a squatting position due to lack of hip and thigh muscle strength.

Indicates weakness of the proximal muscles

769
Q

DMD - life expectancy

A

= early 20s

Due to complications - respiratory failure, cardiomyopathy, scoliosis

770
Q

DMD - Ix

A
  • Serum creatine phosphokinase – raised
  • Genetic testing
  • Muscle biopsy.
771
Q

DMD - Mx

A

Corticosteroids – 10 days each month, to delay scoliosis and preserve mobility.

  • Physiotherapy
  • Scoliosis brace, foot and ankle boots/splints
  • Surgery to lengthen Achilles tendon/correct scoliosis
  • Respiratory support
772
Q

How does Becker Muscular Dystrophy differ to DMD?

A

Less common

Some functional dystrophin produced => later onset and slower progression

Longer life expectancy

773
Q

Congenital Muscular Dystrophies

A

Present at birth/early infancy

Mostly autosomal recessive

Caused by lack of extracellular matrix protein

Weakness, hypotonia, contractures +/- learning difficulties.

774
Q

what is Myotonia ?

A

= delayed relaxation after sustained muscle contraction

e.g. difficulty releasing grip after handshake.

775
Q

Myotonic dystrophy

A

Autosomal dominant inherited trinucleotide repeat.

Progressive muscle wasting and weakness.

Symptoms worsen down generations.

Symptoms:

  • Infant – feeding and breathing difficulties
  • Child – myotonia, facial weakness, learning difficulties
  • Adult – cataracts, baldness, testicular atrophy, cardiomyopathy.
776
Q

what is Hydrocephalus ?

what types are there?

A

Accumulation of CSF in the brain

Types:

  • Non-communicating – obstruction in ventricular system
  • Communicating – failure to reabsorb CSF/overproduction
777
Q

Hydrocephalus - presentation

A
  • Disproportionately large and rapidly increasing head circumference
  • Bulging fontanelles, distended scalp veins
  • Fixed downwards gaze
  • Will develop signs of raised ICP
778
Q

Hydrocephalus - investigations

A
  • May be diagnosed on antenatal USS
  • Cranial USS (infants) or CT/MRI
  • Monitor head circumference
779
Q

Hydrocephalus - management

A
  • Ventriculoperitoneal shunt

- Ventriculostomy

780
Q

Definition of macrocephaly and causes?

A

Head circumference >98th centile.

Causes:

  • Tall stature
  • Familial macrocephaly
  • Raised ICP
  • CNS storage disorders
  • Neurofibromatosis
781
Q

Definition of microcephaly and causes?

A

Head circumference <2nd centile

Causes:

  • Familial microcephaly
  • Autosomal recessive condition
  • Congenital infection
  • Acquired after insult to developing brain
782
Q

Craniosynostosis

A

Premature fusion of one or more sutures leading to distorted head shape.

Types – localised / generalised

  • Localised – sagittal suture, coronal suture, lamboid suture
  • Generalised – multiple sutures
783
Q

Trisomies

A

Trisomy 21 - Down’s Syndrome
Trisomy 13 - Patau Syndrome
Trisomy 18 - Edward’s Syndrome

784
Q

Down’s syndrome - diagnosis and prevalence

A

= Trisomy 21

> 50% live to over 50 years
1 in 650

Diagnosis:

  • Antenatal screening – combined/triple test + nuchal translucency
  • Chromosome analysis – blood test

Prevalence increases with maternal age.
- Age 44 – 1 in 37

785
Q

Down’s syndrome - physical features

A

Round face, small mouth/ears, flat nasal bridge, protruding tongue.

Epicanthic folds, brushfield spots

Hypotonia

Single palmar crease

“Sandal gap” between toes

786
Q

Down’s syndrome - associated conditions

A
Congenital heart defects (40%)
Hearing and visual impairments
Leukaemia
Cognitive problems / Early-onset Alzheimer’s 
Epilepsy
Coeliac Disease
Infections
787
Q

Edward’s syndrome

A

Trisomy 18

Physical features:

  • IUGR / low birthweight
  • Prominent occiput, small jaw
  • Overlapping fingers
  • Rocker-bottom feet
  • Cardiac and renal malformations

Most die in infancy

788
Q

Patau Syndrome

A

Trisomy 13

Physical features:

  • Brain defects
  • Microcephaly, Small eyes
  • Cleft lip/palate
  • Polydactyly
  • Cardiac and renal malformations

Most die in Infancy

789
Q

Turner’s Syndrome

A

45, X

Physical Features:

  • Short stature
  • Webbed neck
  • Spoon-shaped nails
  • Lymphoedema of hands/feet

Associated Conditions:

  • Congenital heart defects (aortic coarctation, bicuspid valve)
  • Delayed puberty
  • Ovarian dysgenesis (infertility)
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Renal anomalies
790
Q

Turner’s Syndrome - diagnosis and treatment

A

Investigations:

  • Blood karyotyping
  • Buccal swab (for Barr Body = inactive X chromosome)
  • LH and FSH

Treatment:

  • Growth hormones
  • Oestrogen replacement – develop 2o sexual characteristics but still infertile.
791
Q

Klinefelter’s Syndrome

A

47, XXY
1 in 1000

Physical features:

  • Hypogonadism/small testes (infertility)
  • Gynaecomastia
  • Lack of chest/facial hair
  • Tall Stature

Tx – testosterone therapy may help.

792
Q

examples of autosomal Dominant genetic disorders

A

Tuberous Sclerosis
Achondroplasia (dwarfism)
Marfan Syndrome

Neurofibromatosis (Skin changes and tumours along nerves)

Noonan Syndrome (Similar phenotype to Turner’s Syndrome, also mild learning difficulties)

793
Q

examples of autosomal recessive genetic disorders

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Sickle Cell Disease
Cystic Fibrosis
Tay-Sachs disease

794
Q

examples of X-linked recessive genetic disorders

A

Males are affected, females are carriers (but may show mild disease.

Fragile X
Haemophilia A/B
Colour blindness
DMD/BMD
G6PD deficiency
795
Q

examples of X-linked dominant genetic disorders

A

Very rare.

Both males and females will be affected (males usually die).

e.g. - Rett’s Syndrome
=> Severe speech, learning and coordination problems

796
Q

Prader-Willi Syndrome

A

No paternal copy of chromosome 15q11-13.

Signs:
•	Hypotonia
•	Neonatal feeding difficulties
•	Insatiable appetite later in childhood
•	Narrow forehead
•	Almond-shaped eyes
•	Triangular mouth
Associated conditions:
•	Poor growth
•	Developmental delay
•	Obesity/T2DM
•	Learning difficulties
•	Behavioural problems
797
Q

Angelman Syndrome

A

No maternal copy of chromosome 15q11-13.

Signs:
•	“Coarse” facial features
•	Microcephaly
•	Widely spaced teeth and wide mouth
•	Prominent lower lip
Associated conditions:
•	Intellectual disability
•	Severe speech impairment
•	Hyperactivity
•	Ataxia
•	Seizures
798
Q

Russel-Silver Syndrome

A

Slow growth before and after birth, PLUS dysmorphic features.

Signs:
• LBW/FTT
• Head often disproportionate to small body
• Triangular face (prominent forehead, narrow chin)
• Curved 5th finger

Associated conditions:
• Short stature
• Delayed development
• Learning disabilities

799
Q

William Syndrome

A

May be autosomal dominant or de novo

Signs:
• “Elfin” appearance – wide mouth, small upturned nose, short.
• Outgoing and friendly.

Associated Conditions:
•	Mild learning disabilities
•	Hypercalcaemia
•	ADHD
•	Aortic stenosis
800
Q

Foetal stage of growth

A

30% of eventual height

Dependent on placental nutrition, maternal size/health

801
Q

Infantile stage of growth (birth to age 2)

A

15% of eventual height

Dependent on nutrition, thyroid hormones, genes

802
Q

Childhood stage of growth

A

40% of eventual height

Dependent on Nutrition, Thyroid and growth hormones, genes

803
Q

Pubertal stage of growth

A

15% of eventual height

Dependent on Sex hormones, growth hormones, genes

804
Q

Emotions and growth

A

All stages of growth depend on emotions/happiness as these impact hormone levels.

805
Q

Why do boys end up taller than girls?

A

Girls start their puberty growth spurt ~2 years before boys (i.e. men get an extra 3-4 years of growth).

806
Q

Role of GH in growth

A

Works directly at growth plate and indirectly via IGFs to increase organ size.

Peptide hormone (i.e. cannot be taken orally!)

Positive effect on GH release from catecholamines, serotonin, endorphins.

Negative effect on GH release by somatostatin

807
Q

What is Laron Syndrome?

A

= GH insensitivity

808
Q

Role of thyroid hormones in growth

A

Acts at growth plate.
Have effects on almost every cell in the body

In hypothyroidism, the growth plate is highly disorganised.

809
Q

Role of sex hormones in growth

A

cause growth spurt, bone maturation and fusion of growth plates.

Once the growth plate closes, you will not grow anymore.

810
Q

Measuring a child’s growth

A

Weight, height (length if <2 years), head circumference

Plot serial growth measurements on growth chart

+/- Bone age, pubertal stage, BMI

811
Q

Growth Indications for Urgent Specialist Referral

A

<0.4th centile or >99.6th centile.
Height markedly discrepant from weight.
Measurements cross centile line after 1 year.
Measurements cross 2 centile lines in 1st year.

812
Q

Non-pathological causes of short stature

A
  • Familial – short parents

- Constitutional Delay of growth and puberty – late bone maturation and growth spurt.

813
Q

Pathological causes of short stature

A

IUGR/extreme prematurity

Chromosomal disorders – Downs, Turner’s, Noonan’s, Russel-silver

Endocrine
=> associated with increase in weight
=> e.g. GH deficiency, excess corticosteroids, hypothyroidism

Nutritional/chronic illness
=> Associated with decrease in weight.
=> E.g. Coeliac, Crohn’s, chronic renal failure.

814
Q

Investigations for abnormal growth

A

Height comparison:

  • Against weight
  • Against expected/mid-parental height

Hx, Examination, Hormone screen:

  • Dysmorphic features
  • Features of chronic/endocrine illness
  • Hormones – GH, TFT, cortisol
  • Birth Hx
  • Nutritional Hx
815
Q

Mid-parental height

A

((Father’s + Mother’s Height) / 2 )

+7cm for boys or -7cm for girls.

816
Q

Causes of tall stature

A

Familial

Endocrine
=> Hyperparathyroidism, CAH, excess GH

Precocious puberty

Genetic Syndromes
=> Marfan’s, Klinefelter’s

817
Q

Puberty age in females

A

9-11 years – 2o sex characteristics (breast development, then pubic hair)

10-12 years – growth spurt

11-13 years – menarche

818
Q

Puberty age in males

A

10-14 years – 2o sex characteristics (increase in testicle size, then pubic hair, then dropping of scrotum and growth of penis)

12-14 years – growth spurt

819
Q

Tanner Stage 1

A

= no signs of puberty

820
Q

At what age is puberty considered early?

A

<8 years in girls,

<9 years in boys.

821
Q

At what age is puberty considered delayed?

A

> 13/14 years in girls,

>14/15 years in boys.

822
Q

Causes of early/precocious puberty?

A

True/central – gonadotropin-dependent (premature activation of hypothalamic axis).
=> More common in girls

False/pseudo – gonadotropin-independent (excess sex steroids).

823
Q

early/precocious puberty - investigations

A
  • FHx, Examination, Hormone Screen
  • Growth chart
  • X-ray hand (determine bone-age)
  • Orchidometer (if >4mm puberty has started)
  • USS ovaries/uterus
  • MRI (?tumours)
824
Q

early/precocious puberty - management

A

Aim = prevent negative psychological impacts and conserve height potential (stop premature growth plate fusion).

Central PP – treat with GnRH analogues.

Pseudo PP – identify and treat underlying cause of excess sex hormones

825
Q

Causes of delayed puberty

A

Constitutional delay in growth and puberty

Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (decreased gonadotropins)
• Systemic disease (CF, anorexia, Crohn’s, increased exercise).
• Intracranial tumours/pituitary damage
• Syndromes – Kallman’s

Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism (increased gonadotropins)
•	Syndromes – Turner’s, Klinefelters
826
Q

delayed puberty - investigations

A
FHx, Examination, Hormone Screen (TFT, LH/FSH)
Growth Chart
X-ray hand (determine bone age)
Pubertal staging – testicular volume/USS
Karyotyping
827
Q

delayed puberty - management

A

r/o or treat underlying causes

Reassure puberty will occur (Tx not usually needed)

IM testosterone/oestradiol

828
Q

Cause of T1DM

A

Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.

Genetic with environmental triggers.
=> Environmental triggers – enteroviral infection, cow’s milk, overnutrition.

829
Q

T1DM - Symptoms

A

Polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss, lethargy.

+/- nocturnal enuresis, infections, signs of DKA.

830
Q

Diabetes - diagnosis

A

= diabetes symptoms PLUS:
• Random blood glucose >11.1 mmol/L
• Fasting blood glucose >7.8 mmol/L

(also TFTs, coeliac screen, etc to r/o other causes)

831
Q

T1DM - management

A
  1. Intensive education for child and parents (and school)
    • Injection of insulin and blood glucose monitoring
    • Diet – carb counting, low GI carbs, adjustment for activity, alcohol
    • “Sick-day” rules
    • Signs of DKA/hypoglycaemia
  2. Insulin
    • S.c. pump = continuous infusion of rapid acting insulin (novorapid)
    • Basal-bolus injection regimen = 2x LA at breakfast and night, and 1x SA before each meal.
  3. Monitoring for complications = annual review
    • Growth and pubertal development – risk of obesity/delayed puberty
    • BP, renal function, eyesight, foot health
    • Associated autoimmune conditions
832
Q

Difficulties of glucose control in children

A
  • Sugary foods/eat at odd times
  • Infrequent/unreliable monitoring
  • Poor family support
  • Exercise
  • Illness (increases insulin need)
833
Q

Complications of DKA

A

Cerebral oedema
Hyper/Hypokalaemia
Hyponatraemia
Aspiration

834
Q

Symptoms of hypoglycaemia

A
  • Sweating, pallor, palpitations/tremor
  • Headache, vision changes, confusion
  • Hypotonia, poor feeding
  • Drowsiness, seizures, coma
835
Q

Causes of hypoglycaemia

A
  • Neonatal hypoglycaemia
  • Fasting/missed meals/ increased exercise
  • Increased exogenous insulin dose
  • Tumours (insulinoma)
  • Drug-induced – sulphonyureas, alcohol
  • Liver disease/glycogen storage disorder
  • Addison’s, CAH, GH deficiency
836
Q

Hypoglycaemia - Ix

A
  • Careful Hx
  • Physical Examination
  • Blood glucose and ketones
  • FBC, CRP, U&Es, LFT, TFT, blood gas
  • Hormones – insulin, C-peptide, GH, cortisol
  • Urinalysis – pH, ketones
837
Q

Hypoglycaemia - Mx

A
  • Oral fast-acting glucose – sugary drink/glucogel
  • IV glucose – 2mL/kg dextrose bolus, then 10% dextrose infusion
  • IM glucagon – if unconscious/fail to respond
838
Q

In which situations should a child’s blood glucose always be measured?

A
  • Becomes septic/appears seriously ill
  • Has a prolonged seizure
  • Has an altered state of consciousness
839
Q

Diabetes insipidus

A

= ADH disorder causing polydipsia and polyuria.

  1. Central DI – insufficient ADH production
  2. Nephrogenic DI – lack of kidney response to ADH = more common type in children
840
Q

Diabetes insipidus - risk factors

A

Central:
=> Head injury, brain surgery, brain tumour.

Nephrogenic
=> Kidney disease/genetic mutation
=> Nephrotoxic medications (e.g. lithium)

841
Q

Diabetes insipidus - management

A

Drink more to prevent dehydration, low salt diet.

Medication review (for nephrotoxics)

CENTRAL – manage with desmopressin (nephrogenic does not respond to desmopressin)

842
Q

Congenital hypothyroidism - presentation

A

Initially asymptomatic - Most cases detected with heel-prick test (low T3/T4, high TSH)

Feeding problems, FTT
Prolonged jaundice
Constipation
Pale, cold, mottled skin

843
Q

Why is it important to identify congenital hypothyroidism?

A

It is a preventable cause of severe learning difficulties

844
Q

Acquired Hypothyroidism in children

A

Usually due to autoimmune thyroiditis

Girls > boys

RFs – Down’s, Turner’s, other autoimmine disorders

Presentation:

  • Short stature
  • Bradycardia
  • Dry skin, thin hair
  • Obesity, Constipation, Cold intolerance
  • Delayed puberty
  • +/- goitre
845
Q

How is hypothyroidism managed?

A

Lifelong Levothyroxine

846
Q

What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism in children?

What are the symptoms?

A

Grave’s Disease = most common cause.

Symptoms are similar to in adults, but ALSO:

  • Rapid growth in height
  • Advanced bone maturity
  • Learning difficulties/behavioural problems
  • Eye signs are NOT common in children
847
Q

Cushing’s Syndrome in children

A

Most commonly due to long-term glucocorticoid Tx

Sx – Cushing Syndrome, growth suppression, osteopenia

848
Q

Sx of Cushing’s Syndrome

A
  • Central obesity but short stature
  • “moon face”
  • Hirsutism
  • HTN
  • Depression
849
Q

Definition of overweight/obesity in children

A

<12 years
Overweight = BMI >91st centile
Obese = BMI >98th centile

> 12 years
Overweight = BMI >25
Obese = BMI >30

850
Q

Risk factors for obesity

A
  1. Lack of exercise/poor diet
  2. Endocrine disorder – hypothyroidism, Cushing’s
  3. Genetic syndrome – Prader-Willi
851
Q

Rates of cancer in children

A

1 in 500 children <15 years develop cancer

Leukaemia and brain tumours are most common

852
Q

Side Effects of Chemotherapy

A
  1. Bone marrow suppression
    => Infection, anaemia, bleeding/bruising
  2. GI disturbance
    => N&V, anorexia, undernutrition
  3. Other
    => Hair loss, weight gain, mood
  4. Long-term
    => Decreased fertility, late puberty
853
Q

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia (ALL)

  • Incidence
  • Pathophysiology
  • RFs
  • Prognosis
A
  • 80% of childhood leukaemia
  • Peak age 2-5 years
  • Rapidly proliferating lymphocytes resulting in accumulation of abnormal, immature “blast” cells.
  • RFs – Trisomy 21
  • Prognosis = ~90% cure rate
854
Q

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia - symptoms

A

Onset over several weeks

• General – malaise, anorexia, LYMPHADENOPATHY, hepatosplenomegaly

  • Anaemia
  • Neutropaenia – infections/neutropenic sepsis
  • Thrombocytopaenia – bruising, petechiae, nose bleeds
  • Bone marrow infiltration – bone pain
  • CNS infiltration – headaches, vomiting
855
Q

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia - Ix

A
  1. FBC – low Hb, low platelets, low neutrophils, increased WCC
  2. Peripheral Blood Film – blast cells
  3. Clotting screen – 10% have DIC
  4. Bone Marrow Biopsy = diagnostic and prognostic
  5. CXR – mediastinal mass (characteristic of T-cell disease)
856
Q

What should be avoided in children with a mediastinal mass?

A

NEVER sedate or anaesthetise someone with a mediastinal mass and orthopnoea

857
Q

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia - Mx

A

Before starting Tx – correct anaemia, thrombocytopaenia, treat any infections, renal protection (Allopurinol).

  1. Remission Induction – eradication of blast cells with CHEMOTHERAPY and STEROIDS
  2. Intensification – period of INTENSE CHEMO to consolidate remission (effective, but increased toxicity levels)
  3. Continuation – chemo for 2-3 more years (2 in girls, 3 in boys)
  4. Prophylactic Co-trimoxazole – given routinely to prevent PCP
  5. Relapse – high-dose chemo and BM transplant
858
Q

What forms of chemotherapy are given in ALL?

A

IV and intrathecal

859
Q

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia - poor prognostic factors

A
  • Age <1 or >10
  • WBC >50 x10^9 /L
  • Cytogenic abnormalities in tumour cells
  • CNS involvement
  • Persisting blast cells after initial chemo
860
Q

What is a lymphoma?

A

= solid malignancies of immune system

=> increased lymphocyte proliferation in LNs, spleen, thymus, BM

861
Q

Lymphoma - Ix

A
  • FBC & Blood film
  • Lymph node biopsy – Reed-Sternberg cells in HL
  • Bone marrow biopsy
  • CT/MRI – assess nodal sites
862
Q

Lymphoma - Mx

A
  • Chemotherapy (+/- radiotherapy if HL)

* PET to monitor Tx response

863
Q

Hodgkin Lymphoma

A
  • ~20% of lymphomas
  • More common in adolescents
  • Reed-Sternberg cells on LN biopsy (bi-nucleate “mirror cells”)
  • Slightly better prognosis
864
Q

What is Hodgkin’s Lymphoma often associated with?

A

50% associated with EBV

865
Q

Hodgkin Lymphoma - Sx

A
  • Painless Lymphadenopathy – usually cervical, may cause mass effects (SC/bronchial obstruction)
  • B-symptoms are less common
866
Q

B- symptoms

A

fever,
drenching night sweats,
significant weight loss

Can be associated with Lymphoma
Also non-cancerous states such as TB, various inflammatory/rheumatologic conditions.

867
Q

Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A
  • ~80% of lymphomas
  • NO R-S cells on LN biopsy
  • Slightly worse prognosis
  • Can be high-grade/low-grade depending on speed of onset and symptoms.
868
Q

Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma - Sx

A

Painless Lymphadenopathy – cervical or abdominal, often cause mass effects (mediastinal mass).

Abdominal Symptoms

B symptoms are common

869
Q

Brain tumour - presentation

A

Presentation depends on the location of tumour and will vary greatly during the process of growth and development.

General Sx:

  • Headaches
  • N&V
  • Drowsy/irritable
  • Seizures

If in posterior fossa/brainstem:
- Ataxia, abnormal eye movements

870
Q

Brain tumour - Mx

A

= surgery, chemotherapy and radiotherapy and rehabilitation to:

  • Remove tumour
  • Prevent tumour recurrence
  • Prevent further tumour growth
  • Reverse deficits
  • Minimise side effects
871
Q

Neuroblastoma

A

= tumour arising from neural crest tissue in adrenal gland or SNS

=> 70% abdominal, 50% adrenal 20% thoracic

872
Q

Neuroblastoma - Sx

A
  • Abdominal mass:
    => usually adrenal gland, BUT could be anywhere along sympathetic chain from neck to pelvis
  • Metastatic Sx
873
Q

Neuroblastoma - Complications

A

Spinal cord compression (if paravertebral) – paraplegia, Horner’s syndrome

Adrenal tumour – HTN

Orbital disease – proptosis, “bruises” under eyes

874
Q

Neuroblastoma - Ix

A
  • FBC
  • Urinalysis (increased catecholamines)
  • USS, CT/MRI abdo
  • Biopsy = diagnostic
  • BM biopsy, MIBG scan – detect mets
875
Q

Neuroblastoma - Mx

A
  1. Non-metastatic = surgery
  2. Metastatic = high-dose chemo + stem cell rescue
    => POOR PROGNOSIS
876
Q

Wilm’s Tumour

A

= nephroblastoma - a tumour of embryonal renal tissue.

877
Q

Wilm’s Tumour - Sx

A

Large abdominal mass – often only symptom

\+/- abdo pain, anorexia, anaemia, haematuria, HTN
878
Q

Wilm’s Tumour - Ix

A

USS – intrarenal mass

+/- CT/MRI – assess for mets (esp. lungs)

879
Q

Wilm’s Tumour - Mx

A

Chemotherapy followed by nephrectomy

880
Q

Soft tissue Sarcoma

A

= tumours of connective tissue (muscles, tendons, fat, nerves, etc.)

Rhabdomyosarcoma = most common => highly malignant cancer of skeletal muscle.

881
Q

Soft tissue Sarcoma - Sx

A

depends on site:

Head and Neck – proptosis, nasal obstruction/bloody discharge

Genitourinary – dysuria, urinary obstruction, scrotal mass, bloody PV discharge

882
Q

Soft tissue Sarcoma - Ix

A

Biopsy

CT/MRI to assess metastases

883
Q

Soft tissue Sarcoma - Mx

A

Chemotherapy + radiotherapy + surgery

884
Q

What are the types of malignant bone tumour?

A

Osteosarcoma

Ewing’s Sarcoma

885
Q

Osteosarcoma

A
  • More common
  • Usually affects hip, shoulder, knee
  • Rapid growth and spread
886
Q

Ewing’s Sarcoma

A
  • More common in younger children

- Usually affects legs, back, pelvis, ribs, skull

887
Q

Bone malignancy - Sx

A
  • Persistent, localised bone pain

* Mass on X-ray – often substantial soft tissue mass in Ewing’s

888
Q

Bone malignancy - Ix

A
  1. Bone X-ray
  2. MRI & Bone scan
  3. Chest CT – assess mets
  4. BM sampling – exclude marrow involvement
889
Q

Bone malignancy - Mx

A

= chemotherapy then surgery (avoid amputation where possible)

890
Q

Retinoblastoma

A

= malignant tumour of retinal cells

Usually affects children <3 years

Caused by chromosome 13 mutation
=> All bilateral and 20% unilateral cases are INHERITED (autosomal dominant)

891
Q

Retinoblastoma - Sx

A
  • Strabismus
  • Iris discolouration
  • Leukocoria (white pupillary reflex instead of red)
  • Vision changes
  • Enlarged pupil
  • Red/sore/swollen eye
892
Q

Retinoblastoma - Ix

A

MRI and examination under anaesthetic

DO NOT BIOPSY as want to minimise damage to vision

893
Q

Retinoblastoma - Mx

A

Chemo followed by laser treatment +/- radiotherapy

894
Q

Gastro - HPC

A

Vomiting

  • Colour?
  • How much, how often?
  • When?
  • Projectile?
  • Headaches? (early morning vomiting and headaches may indicate raised ICP)

Diarrhoea

  • Appearance?
  • Any blood/mucous?
  • How many episodes?
Pain
Distension
Constipation
Jaundice 
Swelling
895
Q

Paeds Gastro - other relevant history

A
  • Fever – how high? Pattern?
  • Foreign travel
  • Joint pain
  • Skin rashes
  • DHx
  • Infectious contacts
  • Allergies/intolerances
  • Full systemic enquiry
896
Q

Normal infant stool colour

A

Meconium – black and sticky
=> Important to ask when this was first passed

Day 3/4 – green

Day 4/5 – yellow (if breast-fed), peanut-butter (if formula fed)

897
Q

Blood in stool

A

can be due to infection, injuries or allergies:

Normal stool tinged with red blood = often cow’s milk protein allergy.

Constipated stool with hint of red blood = tears of anus/ small haemorrhoids.

Diarrhoea mixed with red blood = infection

898
Q

Causes of neonatal jaundice - unconjugated

A

<24 HOURS
Haemolysis
Infection
Haemorrhage

1 - 14 DAYS
Increased red cell turn over
Concentration Effect
Enzyme Deficiency

> 2 WEEKS
Enzyme Deficiency

899
Q

Causes of neonatal jaundice - conjugated

A

<24 HOURS
Thalassaemia (rare)

> 2 WEEKS
Hepatitis
Obstructive cause
Intrahepatic cholestasis
Bile transporter defect
Metabolic
900
Q

What are the MOST COMMON causes of neonatal jaundice?

A

Rhesus disease,
ABO incompatibility,
Physiological jaundice,
Breast milk jaundice.

901
Q

Physiological Jaundice

A
  • Increased breakdown of red blood cells – HbF replaced by (adult) Haemoglobin
  • Immature glucuronidation in Neonatal liver
902
Q

Breast milk Jaundice

A

?due to fats in breast milk increasing enterohepatic circulation

Don’t stop the milk! (just affects duration, not severity)

903
Q

Why and how is neonatal jaundice managed?

A

Unconjugated bilirubin can be neurotoxic

Treated with PHOTOTHERAPY

904
Q

Phototherapy for neonatal jaundice

A

Wavelength 420nm to 480nm (i.e. BLUE light, not UV)

The light is absorbed by the skin and converts unconjugated bilirubin

This is done to reduce the ability of bilirubin to cross the BBB, thereby avoiding the neurotoxicity of high levels.

The baby will need eye protection and to have its temperature and hydration monitored

905
Q

What is Biliary Atresia?

A

bile flow from the liver to the gallbladder is blocked

=> bile becomes trapped in the liver, causing damage and cirrhosis, and eventually failure.

906
Q

How does biliary atresia present?

A

Symptoms appear ~2-8 weeks after birth.

  • Jaundice
  • Dark urine
  • Pale stools
  • Weight loss and irritability
907
Q

Biliary Atresia - Ix

A

FBC, LFT, clotting

AXR – enlarged liver/spleen

Abdo USS – small/absent gall bladder or bile ducts.

Liver biopsy

Diagnostic surgery and operative cholangiogram (done at same time)

908
Q

Biliary Atresia - Mx

A

= Kasai procedure (hepatoportoenterostomy)

Aim is to re-establish bile flow from the liver to the intestine.

Removal of damaged extra-hepatic ducts and attachment of a loop of intestine to the draining bile ducts of the liver.

If the Kasai procedure is unsuccessful, a liver transplant may be needed

909
Q

Acute causes of liver disease in children

A
Viral Hepatitis
Poisoning (Alcohol, Paracetamol)
Wilson’s Disease
Tyrosinaemia (Probably not in this age group)
Autoimmune Hepatitis
910
Q

Chronic causes of liver disease in children

A
Hep B, C
Autoimmune hepatitis
Drugs (non-steroidals)
Inflammatory Bowel Disease
Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis
Wilson’s
Alpha-1-antritrypsin
Cystic fibrosis
911
Q

Wilson’s Disease

A

Rare recessive disorder involving copper metabolism

Presents with acute hepatitis, fulminant liver disease or cirrhosis

Copper in cornea – Kaiser-Fleischer Ring

912
Q

Management of a child with severe malnutrition

A

Treat/prevent hypoglycaemia, hypothermia, dehydration

Correct electrolyte imbalance
Correct micronutrient deficiencies

Feeding
=> Begin feeding gradually over days 1-7
=> Then increase feeding to recover lost weight

913
Q

Kwashiorkor malnutrition

A

= Severe protein deficiency but normal caloric intake

Oedema
Reduced s.c. fat
Fatty liver is common

Can have associated infections (loss of Ig)
Can be in combination with Marasmus

Worse prognosis

914
Q

Marasmus malnutrition

A

Severe deficiency of all nutrients
Inadequate caloric intake
Fat and muscle wasting (absent s.c. fat)
Better prognosis

915
Q

What is in the 6 in 1 vaccine?

A
Diphtheria, 
Tetanus, 
Pertussis, 
Polio,
Haemophilus influenzae type b,
Hep B
916
Q

When does the NIPE occur?

A

Within 72 hours post-birth

Again at 6-8 weeks (usually at GP)

917
Q

What needs to be done if a baby is born breech / in breech position after 36 weeks gestation?

A

will need to have USS of their hips due to increased risk of developmental dysplasia of the hip.

918
Q

What aspects of history are relevant to acquire before performing the NIPE?

A

Maternal/Birth Hx:

  • Mum’s wellbeing after birth
  • Pregnancy details – date/time and type of delivery/complications
  • Breech presentation – do they need USS to r/o DDH?
  • Risk factors for neonatal infection
  • Abnormalities noted on antenatal scans
  • Family history – first-degree relatives with hearing problems/hip dislocation/childhood heart problems/congenital cataracts/renal problems

Newborn Hx

  • Feeding
  • Wet nappies
  • Passing of meconium
  • Any parental concerns?
919
Q

What is important to do before starting a NIPE?

A

Acquire relevant History

Check growth chart or measure weight
=> identify if small/normal/large for gestational age

920
Q

parts to cover in NIPE

A
General inspection
Head
Face
Upper limb
Chest (+neck)
Abdomen
Genitalia + anus
Lower limb
Back
Reflexes
921
Q

NIPE - general inspection

A

Colour:

  • Jaundice
  • Pallor
  • Cyanosis

Posture and movement:

  • Any gross abnormalities?
  • Spontaneous movement of limbs

Birthmarks/bruising

TONE – floppy when picked up?

922
Q

NIPE - head

A

Inspection

  • SIZE – macrocephaly/microcephaly,
  • SHAPE – sutures closely applied/ widely separated / normal.

Palpation of fontanelles
- Tense/bulging or Sunken or normal?

Measure head circumference

923
Q

NIPE - face

A

Inspect face

  • Facial features
  • Asymmetry
  • Trauma (bruising, lacerations)
  • Patency of nasal passages

Eyes:

  • Assess for red reflex
  • Position and shape of eyes
  • Subconjunctival haemorrhage,
  • Discharge

Mouth:

  • Cleft lip and palate,
  • Suckling reflex, rooting reflex
  • Tongue tie

Ears:
- Any asymmetry, skin tags, pits or the presence of accessory auricles.

924
Q

NIPE - upper limb

A

Inspect neck:

  • Normal length?
  • Lumps

Brachial pulses (both arms)

Tone
- Move the baby’s arms

Inspect hands:

  • Polydactyly
  • Palmar creases
925
Q

NIPE - chest

A

Inspection

  • Asymmetry
  • Obvious chest derformities
  • Resp rate / signs of respiratory distress

Auscultate lungs

Auscultate heart sounds

926
Q

NIPE - abdomen

A

Inspection

  • Distension, hernias
  • Umbilical cord – swelling, erythema, discharge

Palpation for organomegaly
- Liver, spleen, kidneys, bladder

927
Q

NIPE - genitalia

A

Inspect
- Any ambiguity of genitalia?

MALE:

  • Position of urethral meatus
  • Palpate scrotum to identify if both testes are present
  • Any swelling?

FEMALE:
- Inspect labia, clitoris, discharge

Inspect for patent anus
- Ask if meconium within 24 hours

928
Q

NIPE - lower limbs

A

FEMORAL PULSES

Inspect for abnormalities:

  • Asymmetry (esp. leg lengths)
  • Oedema
  • Digits (extra/missing) and ankle deformities

Assess tone

929
Q

NIPE - hips

A

REMOVE NAPPY AND WARN PARENTS

Barlow’s Test
Ortolani Test

930
Q

NIPE - back

A

Inspect for NTDs / asymmetry

Palpation of spine

931
Q

NIPE - reflexes

A

Palmar grasp

(Sucking and rooting – done in mouth inspection)

Moro reflex

932
Q

How to perform the Moro Reflex?

What might cause an abnormal moro reflex?

A

Support the infant’s upper back with one hand, then drop back once or twice into your other hand.

A normal Moro reflex involves the extension of the legs and head whilst the arms jerk upwards with the fingers extended. The arms are then brought together and the hands clench into fists, and the infant cries.

Asymmetry may be due to hemiparesis, brachial plexus injury or a fractured clavicle.

933
Q

Mode of imaging for diagnosis of DDH

A

<4.5 months = USS

>4.5 months = X-ray

934
Q

features of fragile X syndrome

A
Learning difficulties
Macrocephaly
Long face
Large ears
Macro-orchidism
935
Q

What murmur is commonly associated with Turner’s Syndrome ?

A

Ejection systolic

due to bicuspid aortic valve, associated with Turner’s

936
Q

Therapeutic Cooling

A

Involves cooling the neonate to around 33.5 - 34.5ºC for 72 hours within a six hour window of a hypoxia inducing event/birth.

Lowering core body temperature will slow the metabolic rate and allow cells more time to recover from the hypoxic insult.

937
Q

When is the newborn heel prick test performed?

What does it test for?

A

~ 5 days

CF
PKU
Sickle cell disease
Congenital hypothyroidism 
Medium-chain acyl-Co-A dehydrogenase deficiency