ChemPath: Clinical Chemistry CPC Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the effect of hypokalaemia on the myocardium.

A

Increases the myocardial irritability - resulting in arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the cardiac consequences of plasma potassium being too high or too low.

A
  • Too low - ventricular fibrillation
  • Too high - asystole (ultimate stable rhythm)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the difference between a Colles’ fracture and a Smith’s fracture?

A
  • Colles’ - fracture caused by falling on an outstretched hand. Anterior displacement of the head of the radius (towards the back of hand
  • Smith’s - fracture caused by falling on a flexed wrist. The radial head will be displaced forwards (towards the palm)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a Pott’s fracture?

A

Ankle fracture involving the tibia and fibula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What would you expect to see on the urine dipstick of someone with subacute bacterial endocarditis?

A

Microscopic haematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Complete the urine dip results for each condition:
- Renal stones
- Glomerulonephritis
- DKA
- Acute rheumatic fever
- Subacute bacterial endocarditis

A
  • Renal stones –> painful macroscopic haematuria
  • Glomerulonephritis –> painless microscopic haematuria
  • DKA —> acidosis, ketonuria
  • Acute rheumatic fever –> proteinuria
  • Subacute bacterial endocarditis –> microemboli, microscopic haematuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If someone presents with renal stones what other investigation should you do?

A

You should find out why the patient got the stones in the first place - first line check blood calcium and PTH levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the physiological role of PTHrP?

A
  • PTHrp also acts on PTH receptor but has different actions.
  • This is important in foetal life because it allows us for transplacental calcium transportation (calcium from mum to move to foetus for development)
  • Can be released in cancers and result in similiar hyperparathyroidism and hypercalcaemia symptoms.

NOTE: PTHrP is also produced by the lactacting breast

NOTE: PTHrP stimulates cancer cells to invade bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name and describe an eye sign of hypercalcaemia.

A
  • Band keratopathy - calcium deposition across the front of the eye
  • It is a feature of chronic hypercalcaemia (i.e. it will not be caused by hypercalcaemia of malignancy)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

List some risk factors for hypercalcaemia.

A

Family history

Dehydration

Hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

List some complications of hypercalcaemia.

A
  • Renal stones
  • Pancreatitis
  • Peptic ulcer disease
  • Skeletal changes (osteitis fibrosa cystica)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a key difference between calcium stones and urate stones?

A

Calcium stones are radio-opaque

Urate stones are radiolucent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Risk factors for renal calcium stones

A

FHx
Hypercalcuria
Dehydration
Hypercalcaemia
Recurrent UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Presentation of renal calcium stones

A

Painful haematuria
Renal failure
Recurrent infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which bacterium has a predilection to infect urinary tract stones?

A

Proteus mirabilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the main investigations used for urinary tract stones?

A
  • CT-KUB
  • Stone analysis
  • Urine and serum biochemistry
17
Q

What are some management options for urinary tract stones?

A
  • Expectant management with adequate analgesia (PR diclofenac)
  • Lithotripsy (US waves to break stone - painful)
  • Cystoscopy
  • Lithotomy
18
Q

How can urinary tract stones be prevented?

A
  • Drink more water
  • Treat hypercalciuria (thiazides)
  • Treat hypercalcaemia

NOTE: loop diuretics increase urine calcium

19
Q

At what point would you use emergency management of hypercalcaemia?

A

When serum calcium > 3 mmol/L or very unwell (e.g. dehydrated, confused, drowsy, seizures)

20
Q

Outline the emergency management of hypercalcaemia.

A
  • IV access
  • Insert catheter
  • 3-6 L 0.9% saline over 24 hours
  • The first litre should be given quickly (over 1 hour) to correct dehydration
  • Elderly patients should also be given furosemide (to prevent pulmonary oedema)
21
Q

In which group of patients would you used dextrose rather than saline?

A

Liver failure - they have a tendency to retain salt

22
Q

Which other drug may be used under desperate circumstances when managing hypercalcaemia?

A
  • Pamidronate (IV)
  • Good at treating bone pain but takes at least 1 week to start working and gets incorporated into bone for a very long time
  • Helpful for bone mets but not given in all circumstances.
23
Q

Outline non-urgent hypercalcaemia treatment

A
  1. Adequate hydration
  2. Avoid thiazides
  3. TUC (parathyroidectomy or treat malignancy)
24
Q

What is minimally invasive parathyroidectomy?

A
  • A technetium 99m sestamibi scan shows a hyperactive parathyroid
  • An USS is also performed and if the results of the sesta MIBI and USS are concordant, the whole neck does not need to be opened
  • If they are not concordant, the surgeon will need to view all four glands and take out the largest one
25
Q

What feature may you see on an X-ray of the hands in a patient with primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Subperiosteal resorption
Cystic changes in the radial aspect

26
Q

What is a characteristic histological feature of long-standing undiagnosed hyperparathyroidism?

A

Brown tumours - they are multinucleated giant cells in the bone. The giant cells are activated osteoclasts.

Histology of bone shows multinucleate giant cells

27
Q

Most helpful investigation in sarcoidosis

A

CXR - Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

28
Q

What is the histological hallmark of sarcoidosis?

A

Non-caseating granulomas

29
Q

Mechanism of hypercalcaemia in sarcoidosis

A

Macrophages in lungs express 1-alpha hydroxylase which activate vitamin D resulting in excessive calcium absorption.

PTH is suppressed to undetected levels.

30
Q

What is the mainstay of treatment of sarcoidosis?

A

IV Methylprednisolone (Steroids)

31
Q

MEN 1 and 2 can present with

A

hypercalcaemia