ChemPath Flashcards

1
Q

What are atherosclerotic plaques made up of?

A

necrotic core of cholesterol crystals
surrounded by foam cells
topped with a fibrous cap

  • Foam cells = macrophages full of cholesterol ester
  • Cholesterol crystals = macrophages dying, releasing enzymes which hydrolyse the cholesterol esters  free cholesterol  crystalise
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2
Q

• Lipoproteins in order of density:

A

Chylomicron < FFA < VLDL < IDL < LDL

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3
Q

main carrier of cholesterol in the fasted state

main carrier of TG in the fasted state

HDL carries cholesterol from

A

LDL
carries cholesterol from liver to periphery / bad cholesterol

VLDL

HLD - the periphery to the liver / good cholesterol

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4
Q

Transporter of cholesterol

across intestinal border
back into the lumen of the intestine

A

NPC1L1

ABCG5
ABCG8

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5
Q

enzyme involved in hydrolysis of cholesterol to bile acids

A

7a hydroxylase

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6
Q

enzyme involved in cholesterol esterification

A

ACAT (cholesterol acetyltransferase)

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7
Q

What does VLDL consist of

A

cholesterol ester
apoB
TG

transfer protein MTP is very important in this packaging process]

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8
Q

function of CEPT (cholesteryl ester transfer protein)

A
  • Mediates movement of cholesterol ester from HDL  VLDL/LDL
  • Mediates movement of TG from VLDL/LDL  HDL
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9
Q

Which protein mediates movement of free cholesterol from peripheral cells to HDL?

A

ABCA1

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10
Q

Biggest to smallest lipoproteins

A

chylomicrons
VLDL
LDL
HDL

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11
Q

Triglyceride transport + metabolism

A

• Main source of exogenous triglycerides: small intestine (diet) [from intestine to liver to plasma and then back again]

o Fatty foods get hydrolysed in the small intestine broken down to fatty acids  resynthesized into TG  transported via chylomicrons to the plasma

o Chylomicrons are hydrolysed by the LPL (lipoprotein lipase, present in capillaries, particularly in relation to muscles)  free fatty acids

o Free fatty acids are partly taken up by the liver + also partly taken up by adipose tissue

o Liver resynthesises the free fatty acids into triglycerides + exports them as VLDL

o VLDL is acted upon by LPL and hydrolysed to free fatty acids

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12
Q

What is phytosterolaemia

A

AR

high plant sterols in plasma

Due to
ABCG5
ABCG8 mutations

Normally the main function of these enzymes is to prevent the absorption of plant sterols

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13
Q

What is familial hyperalpha liporoteinaemia

A

Inherited increases in HDL

Associated with longeivity

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14
Q

Mode of inheritance of familial hypercholesterolaemia

A

AD
50% expression in heterozygous
100% expression in homozygous

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15
Q

describe the function of the PCSK9 mutation in familial hypercholesterolaemia

A

 PCSK9 – least common cause of familial hypercholesterolaemia, gain of function mutation

  • Chaperone protein – Function is to bind to LDL receptor on the surface of the liver and promote its degradation
  • gain of function mutations of PCSK9  increased rate of degradation of LDL receptors
  • Loss of function mutations of PCSK associated with low LDL levels
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16
Q

Describe the 3 types of primary hypertriglyceridemia/ hyperlipidaemia

A

• Familial type I
LPL (lipoprotein lipase) or apoC II deficiency
o ApoC II = activates LPL
o LPL = degrades chylomicrons => less breakdown of chylomicrons
o Eruptive xanthomas on the skin
o High chylomicrons

  • Familial type IV:  synthesis of TG, majority VLDLs
  • Familial type V: apoA V deficiency (more severe form of Familial type IV), majority VLDLs + some chylomicrons
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17
Q

Simple test to differentiate between type I and type IV hyperlipidaemia

A

Fridge test

after blood left overnight in fridge

type I –> chylomicrons will flow to the top and form a cream

Type IV –> cream doesnt float to the top (just the plasma) as VLDL particles dont float just by letting it stand overnight

((Type I - high chylomicrons, Type IV - high VLDLs)

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18
Q

Presentation of familial combined hyperlipidaemia

A

o In a family  some people with high cholesterol + some people with high triglycerides

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19
Q

Presentation of Familial dysβlipoproteinaemia (type III hyperlipoproteinemia)

A

o ApoE2 polymorphism – presence of ApoE 2/2 in homozygous form

o Diagnostic sign = yellow palmar crease, eruptive xanthomas on elbow

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20
Q

What is Tangier disease

A

o Enlarged orange tonsils in children, peripheral neuropathy, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly
o Low HDL
o  risk of CVD
o HDL deficiency caused by ABC AI mutations (mediating the movement of cholesterol from peripheral cells onto HDL)  prevention of release of cholesterol + lipids  accumulation in certain organs

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21
Q

Ab lipoproteinaemia mutation

A

o Low levels of cholesterol (particularly VLDL, LDL)
o Recessive: therefore parents will have normal lipid levels
o AR

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22
Q

MOA of

statin
fibrates (e.g. gemfibrozil)
ezetimibe
cholestyramine

A

• Statins (e.g. atorvastatin)
o HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
o Reduces intrinsic synthesis of cholesterol in liver

  • Fibrates (e.g. gemfibrozil)  raise HDL, very good at reducing triglycerides
  • Ezetimibe  reduces LDL levels  absorption blocker  blocks NPC1L1 which mediates the transport of cholesterol across the intestine
  • Cholestyramine  binds bile acids  bile acids can’t be reabsorbed  no negative feedback to the liver  liver makes more bile-acids  cholesterol drops (bile acids are made from cholesterol)  catabolism of cholesterol in the liver stimulated  reduction in LDL
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23
Q

Novel forms of LDL-lowering therapy

A

• Microsomal Triglyceride Transfer protein (MTP) inhibitor
o Inhibition of MTP) blockage of release of VLDL from the liver  reduced LDL levels
o Deficiency of MTP gives rise to αβ-lipoproteinemia
o Lomitapide – replicates αβ-lipoproteinemia

• Anti-PCSK9 monoclonal antibody
o Evolocumab

• Anti-sense apoB oligonucleotide
o Mipomersen
o Prevents the synthesis of apoB
o Reduces synthesis of LDL, lipoprotein a

• Apolipoprotein A-I/A-1 mimetic infusion therapy
o HDL based therapy

• CETP inhibitory
o HDL-based therapy

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24
Q

Which procedures reduce the HbA1c the most?

A

Biliopancreatic division > gastric bypass > medical therapy

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25
Q

Bariatric surgery

A

o Gastric banding

o Roux-en-y gastric bypass – distal part of the jejunum has been anastomosed to the reduced size of the stomach – part 1 is not absorbing anything because the bile acids and pancreatic enzymes that mediate absorption are coming in lower down

o Biliopancreatic diversion – reduced size of stomach, a lot of jejunum is no longer in circuit (no food goes through that part), only terminal ileum (3) is absorbing – this is where the bile acids + pancreatic enzymes come in

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26
Q

What can you add in the medications of patients to bring their BP down to normal?

A

Thiazide diuretic

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27
Q

• First line management of hyperlipidaemia

A

• First line management of hyperlipidaemia is always conservative
o Dietary modification (although dietary intake of cholesterol correlates poorly with actual TG levels)
o Exercise

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28
Q

• Statin-intolerant patients mx

A
o	Ezetimibe ( absorption – block NPC1L1)
o	Evolocumab (PCSK9 monoclonal antibody) – inhibits the action of PCSK9
o	Plasma exchange
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29
Q

How does the PCSK9 antibody work

A

o PCSK9 binds LDLR + promotes its degradation

o PCSK9 binds to LDLR on hepatocytes + encourages endocytosis + lysosomal degradation of the LDLR  less LDL taken up in the liver

o Inhibiting PCSK9  more LDLRs on hepatocytes  take up LDL  lower levels of LDL in the plasma  reduce risk of atherosclerosis

o Gain-function mutations  reduce LDL-R on liver  increased plasma LDL
o Loss-function mutations  increase LDL-R on liver  decreased plasma LDL
o You want to inhibit PCSK9

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30
Q

What did the DCCT study show?

A

DCCT - T1DM, good control improves outcome

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31
Q

What did the UKPDS study show?

A

UKDPS - new T2DM put into good control

low mortality in both groups for 15 years but then good control improved outcome = the legacy effect

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32
Q

What did the accord study show?

A

o Sudden aggressive glucose control can increase mortality  arrhythmia, tachycardia, sudden onset VF (?hypoglycaemia properly)  death

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33
Q

MOA of SGLT2 inhibitors and give examples

A
  • SGLT2 – makes you resorb glucose
  • Block the Na+/glucose co-transporter in the kidneys  pee out more glucose
  • Osmotic diuresis  Reduce glucose re-uptake in kidneys + lower BP
  • Increased risk of DKA (while taking it or shortly after stopping it), UTIs
  • Show reduction in mortality after only 4 years
  • Empagliflozin
  • Canagliflozin
  • Dapagliflozin
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34
Q

Empagliflozin - summary of actions

A

o Summary: bring down HbA1c, protect kidneys/renal failure, treat HF

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35
Q

GLP-1 analogues

A

o Exenatide - increased hypothalamic satiety
o Liraglutide - can also reduce weight, hospitalisations for HF, CV deaths, MIs, strokes

• GLP-1 secreted from gut L-cells + signals pancreas to make insulin
o Direct effect on appetite + gastric emptying

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36
Q

DDP4 inhibitors

A

DDP4 break down GLP-1

DDP4 inhibitors = gliptins

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37
Q

T2DM mx Only continue GLP-1 mimetic therapy if the person has a beneficial metabolic response:

A

o A reduction of HbA1c by at least 11 mmol/mol [1.0%] and

o A weight loss of at least 3% of initial body weight in 6 months

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38
Q

• Which one is better?
o Metformin + DPP4 inhibitor
o Metformin + SGLT2 inhibitor
o Metformin + GLP-1-R agonist

A

o Metformin + SGLT2 inhibitor
o Metformin + GLP-1-R agonist
associated with better outcomes

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39
Q

Acarbose MOA

A

Acarbose MOA
• Inhibits α-glucosidase at the bowel wall  prevention of glucose absorption
• Undigested sugar  flatulence

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40
Q

Sulphonylureas MOA

A

• Inhibit ATP sensitive K+ channels on beta cells  depolarisation of cell  Ca2+ entry  insulin release
• Risk of hypoglycaemia
• E.g. gliclazide, glibenclamide
o Gliclazide can lead to weight gain

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41
Q

With pioglitazone, there is increased risk of

A

HF, bladder cancer bone fracture

•	Do not offer pioglitazone if pt have any of the following
o	HF or hx of HF
o	Hepatic impairment 
o	DKA
o	Current or hx of bladder cancer
o	Uninvestigated macroscopic haematuria
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42
Q

How does ADH work?

A

o Synthesised in hypothalamus
o Secreted by posterior pituitary
o Acts on V2 receptors in collecting duct (distal tubules) in the kidney
o Water retention through insertion of AQA2 (aquaporin 2)

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43
Q

Causes of

high
normal
low

serum osmolarity in hyponatraemia

A

o High serum osmolality – glucose/mannitol infusion
 Osmotically active solutes draw water from cells into the plasma  dilution of sodium
 This is a true hyponatraemia

o Normal serum osmolality – spurious, drip arm sample, pseudohyponatremia (hyperlipidaemia/paraproteinemia e.g. MM)

o Low serum osmolality – true hyponatraemia

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44
Q

Stimuli for ADH secretion

A

o Raised serum osmolality – hypothalamic osmoreceptors  ADH release + thirst

o Low BP/volume – baroreceptors in carotids, atria, aorta  ADH release

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45
Q

ADH vs Aldosterone

A

ADH only resorbs water not sodium  Hyponatraemia

Aldosterone reabsorbs both salt/Na and water

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46
Q

Most reliable indicator of hypovolaemia

A

o Low urine Na+ (<20) [most reliable indicator of hypovolaemia]
 RAAS  hypovolaemic  low BP  aldosterone release  Na+/water retention  low urine Na+

 If you suspect hyponatremia check urine Na+ immediately before other interventions
 If a patient is on diuretics you can’t determine urine sodium  it will be high because of the diuretics

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47
Q

Cause of hyponatraemia in a hypovolaemic patient

 Urine Na+ <20
 Urine Na+ >20

A

 Urine Na+ <20 – non-renal
• D+V, excess sweating, third space loss (Ascites, burns)

 Urine Na+ >20 – cause is renal
• Diuretics/Addison’s disease(low aldosterone)/salt losing nephropathies (kidney failing to reabsorb sodium so water is lost as well)

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48
Q

Euvolaemic hyponatraemia

plasma osmolarity
urine osmolarity
urine sodium

causes

A

low plasma osmolarity
high urine osmolarity
high urine sodium (>100)

Hypothyroidism - TFTs
Adrenal insufficiency - short synACTHen test
SIADH - low plasma osmolarity, high urine osmolarity

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49
Q

Hypervolaemic hyponatraemia

 Urine Na+ <20
 Urine Na+ >20

A

 Urine Na+ <20 – non-renal cause
• CF, cirrhosis, inappropriate IVF, TURP

 Urine Na+ >20 – renal cause
• Renal failure, nephrotic syndrome, AKI, CKD

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50
Q

Causes of hyponatraemia in a hypervolaemic patient

A

HF
Cirrhosis
Renal failure

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51
Q

Volume status
Plasma osmolality
urine osmolarity in SIADH

A

Euvolemic
low plasma osmolality
high urine osmolarity

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52
Q

SIADH mx

A

• Fluid restriction + treat the cause

• Demeclocycline  induces nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
o Decreased responsiveness of collecting tubule cells to ADH
o Monitor U+Es  risk of nephrotoxicity

• Tolvaptan – V2 receptor antagonist

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53
Q

Risk of increasing Na + too quickly

A

central pontine myelinolysis
o Serum sodium must not increase >8-10mmol/L in the first 24h

o If the sodium has done up too quickly you need to bring it down again  dextrose and desmopressin

o Quadriplegia, dysarthria, seizures, coma, death
o Pseudobulbar palsy, paraparesis, locked in syndrome

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54
Q

Causes of high sodium

A
  • Medical high intake – hypertonic saline, sodium bicarbonate
  • Dietary high intake – salty infant formula, high dietary salt
  • Conn’s syndrome – high aldosterone : renin ratio
  • Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia – high aldosterone : renin ratio
  • Renal artery stenosis – low GFR from RAS  low BP at JGA   renin  high aldosterone
  • Cushing’s syndrome – overactivation of mineralocorticoid receptor by cortisol  aldosterone-like effects
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55
Q

What kind of hypernatraemia does diabetes insipidus cause?

A

Hypovolaemic hypernatraemia

Patient is clinically euvolemic

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56
Q

What investigations would you order in a patient with suspected diabetes insipidus?

A

What investigations would you order in a patient with suspected diabetes insipidus?

Serum glucose (exclude diabetes mellitus)
Serum potassium (exclude hypokalaemia)
Serum calcium (exclude hypercalcaemia)

can cause resistance to ADH, effectively causing a “nephrogenic” diabetes insipidus which can easily be treated by correcting these biochemical abnormalities

Plasma & urine osmolality
- High plasma osmolality
- Low urine osmolality
(vs psychogenic polydipsia where plasma osmolality would be low)

Water deprivation test
o 8h deprivation test
o Normal  urine concentration increases >600 mOsmol/kg
o Primary polydipsia  urine concentrates >400-600 mOsmol/kg
o Cranial DI  urine concentrates only after administration of desmopressin
o Nephrogenic DI  urine does not concentrate even after administration of desmopressin

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57
Q

Mx of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A

Thiazide diuretics

58
Q

Complication of rapid correction of hypernatraeia

A

cerebral oedema

59
Q

Mx of

hypernatremia
hypovolemia

A

hypernatremia- 5% dextrose

hypovolemia - 0.9% saline

serum Na + measurements every 4-6h

60
Q

What are the effects of diabetes mellitus on serum sodium?

A

Variable
Hyperglycaemia draws water out of the cells leading to hyponatraemia
Osmotic diuresis in uncontrolled diabetes leads to loss of water and hypernatraemia

61
Q

How do we calculate corrected serum calcium and why is it useful?

A

corrected ca = Serum Ca + 0.02 x (40- serum albumin (g/l))

example: ○	Albumin = 30, total Ca = 2.2 mM ○	corrected ca = 2.2 + 0.2 x 10 = 2.4 mM

○ Corrected ca shows if the problem is albumin
○ If albumin is 40 (normal value), then the total serum calcium = corrected calcium
○ Therefore if corrected calcium is different than total serum calcium, the problem is the albumin and that the ionised calcium will also be normal

62
Q

PTH absorbs Ca from 3 sources

A

○ Bone

○ Gut - absorption (indirect – PTH activates 1α hydroxylate in the kidney 🡪 production of calcitriol (1,25 OH vitamin D) 🡪 calcitriol promotes Ca absorption through the gut)

○ Kidney - reabsorption + activation of 1α hydroxylase

63
Q

PTH effect on kidney

A

○ Increased Ca2+ resorption
○ Increased phosphate excretion
○ Stimulation of synthesis of 1α hydroxylase

64
Q

1,25 hydroxycholecacliferol effect on

small intestine
kidneys
bone

A

● Small intestine
○ Ca absorption
○ Phosphate absorption

● Kidneys
○ Increases Ca absorption

● Bone - minor effect, stimulates osteoblasts (critical for bone formation)

65
Q

Vitamin D3

inactive, stored, measured form
physiologically active form

A

inactive, stored, measured form
● 25 (OH) D3

physiologically active form
● 1,25 (OH)2 D3

66
Q

Precursor of cholecalciferol

A

UBV: 7-dehydrocholesterol → cholecalciferol (vitamin D3)

therefore vitamin D3 is synthesised in the skin

67
Q

Rate limiting step of vit D3 activation

A

1a hydroxylase

activated by PTH

68
Q

seasonal hypercalcaemia

A

feature of sarcoid - sarcoid tissue can sometimes express 1a hydroxylase

● in sunlight → more vitamin D activation → Calcium goes up

69
Q

PTH in pregnancy

A

Low

● Placenta + Breast milk make PTHrP → baby steals calcium from mother to build his skeleton

70
Q

What is FHH/FBH

A

● Familial hypocalciuric/benign hypercalcaemia (FHH/FBH)
○ CaSR mutation - sensors do not recognize the high calcium
○ High calcium
○ High set point for PTH release suppression → mild hypercalcaemia
○ Reduced urine Ca2+
○ DDx: Primary HPT

71
Q

Commonest cause of hypercalcaemia

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism

parathyroid adenoma> parathyroid hyperplasia > parathyroid carcinoma

high Ca
High urinary Ca
High/N PTH
Low PO43-

72
Q

Ca and phosphate in secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

Low/N ca

High PO43-

73
Q

DEXA scan values

A

○ Measures bone density
○ Hip (NOF etc) + Lumbar spine

○ T-score - SD from mean of young healthy population (useful to determine # risk)

○ Z-score - SD from mean of aged-matched control (useful to identify accelerated bone loss in younger patients)

○ Osteoporosis = T-score T > -2.5 (between -1 and -2.5)

osteopenia is the stage before osteoporosis)

74
Q

Osteoporosis mx

A
Tx
Lifestyle
●	weight-bearing exericse
●	stop smoking
●	reduce EtOH

Drugs
● Vitamin D/Ca

● Alendronate (bisphosphonate)
○ Decrease bone resorption
○ osteonecrosis of the jaw

● Teriparatide
○ PTH derivative
○ Anabolic

● Strontium
○ anti-resorptive
○ Anabolic

● Oestrogens
○ HRT

● Raloxifene
○ SERMs
○ (oestrogen like drugs)

● Denosumab
○ Biologic anti-RANK-L antibody

75
Q

Osteomalacia in adults findings

A

Low [Ca]
Low [PO43-]
High [ALP]

Mature skeleton
Looser’s zones
Codfish vertebrae
Bending deformities
Osteopenia
76
Q

Osteomalacia in adults findings

A
Low [25-OH cholecalciferol]
Low [Ca]
Low [PO43-]
High [ALP]
High [PTH]
High urine phosphate

Bowed legs (rickets)
Costochondral swelling (rickety rosary)
Widened epiphyses at the wrists
Myopathy

77
Q

Pagets disease findings

A

Normal [Ca]
Normal [PO43-]
High [ALP]

Focal pain
Warmth - increased vascularisation
Bone Deformity
         great thickening of the bones of the skull with demineralisation 
Fracture (spontaneous)
Arthritis
Cardiac failure
Spinal cord compression (blindness, deafness)
78
Q

Pagets disease ix and management

A

Nuclear med scan scan

Bisphosphonates for pain

79
Q
Which has the lowest calcium?
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Secondary hyperparathyroidism
Osteoporosis
Pagets disease of the bone
Breast cancer
A

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

80
Q

renal osteodystrophy findings

A

Low [Ca2+]
High [PO43-]
High [ALP]

Consequence of CKD
Due to secondary hyperparathyroidism + aluminium retention from dialysis fluid

Increased bone resorption (osteitis fibrosa cystica)
Osteomalacia
Osteoporosis
Osteosclerosis
Growth retardation

Subperiosteal bone erosions
Brown tumours
Sclerosis – axial skeleton/vertebral end plates giving a rugger jersey spine
Soft tissue calcification (arteries/cartilage)

81
Q

Hypercalcaemia of malignancy biochemistry

A

High [Ca]
High [PO43-]
High [ALP]
Low [PTH] - appropriate

82
Q

What causes osteitis fibrosa cystica?

A

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

83
Q

What kind of hyperparathyroidism is

parathyroid bone disease
renal bone disease

A

Parathyroid bone disease – primary PTH

Renal bone disease – secondary PTH

84
Q

What is a risk of CKD causing secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

can progress to tertiary hyperparathyroidism where there is autonomous PTH secretion despite normal Ca levels

 Initial chronic low plasma [Ca], parathyroid gland stimulated for a long time  PTH becomes autonomous, stops responding to –ve feedback (similar primary hyperparathyroidism)

85
Q

Calcium in osteoporosis will be

A

Normal

86
Q

Which is the most abundant intracellular ion

A

K+

87
Q

Angiotensinogen (in the liver) –> angiotensin I

A
by renin (from JGA)
in the liver
88
Q

Angiotensin I –> Angiotensin II

A
by ACE (from lungs)
in the lungs 

stimulates release of aldosterone from adrenal glands

89
Q

Triggers for renin release

A

Low BP

Low Na+ in the macula densa by JGA

90
Q

Triggers for aldosterone release

A

Angiotensin II

High K+

91
Q

Where does aldosterone act?

A

on the cortical collecting tubule cells

92
Q

How does aldosterone work

A

Increases number of Na channels on luminal membrane

Increases sodium resorption

This makes the lumen electronegative + creates an electrical gradient

K+ is secreted into the lumen

93
Q

Na + K channel names

A

ENaC (Epithelial sodium channels) - Na resorption

ROMK (renal outer medullary potassium) - K excretion

94
Q

How does aldosterone increase the number of Na channels on luminal membrane

A

Though Nedd4*

Binds on the MR receptor
upregulated sgk-1
Nedd 4 phosphorylation + inhibition –> decreased degradation of sodium channels

*Nedd4 usually degrades Na channels

95
Q

How does acidosis affect K+ levels?

A

Causes hyperkalaemia

96
Q

Medications that cause hyperkalaemia

A

ACEi
ARBs
Spironolactone

NSAIDs (block renin)

97
Q

In general, what causes hyperkalaemia

A

Anything that opposes the action of aldosterone

Reduced GFR
Reduced renin (T4TA (diabetic nephropathy), NSAIDs)
ACEi
ARB
Addison’s disease
Aldosterone antagonists e.g. K+ sparring diuretics
K+ release from cells - rhabdomyolysis, acidosis, insulin shortage in DKA

98
Q

Hyperkalaemia mx

A

10ml 10% calcium gluconate
50ml 50% dextrose + 10 IU insulin
Nebulised salbutamol
Treat underlying cause

99
Q

How do diuretics affect potassium?

A

Cause hypokalaemia

o Triple or co-transporter is blocked  less Na+ absorbed in the ascending LoH  more goes to the distal nephron/DCT

 Loop diuretics (furosemide)  block triple transporter Na+/K+/Cl- in the AL of the LoH
• Bartter syndrome is a mutation in this channel

 Thiazide diuretics (Bendroflumethiazide)  block co-transporter Na+/Cl- in the DCT
• Gitelman syndrome is a mutation in this channel

o More Na+ reaches + is absorbed in the DCT  more electronegative nephron

o loss of K+ down the electrochemical gradient through ROMK channels in the cortical collecting tubule cells

100
Q

2 diuretics that cause hypokalaemia

A
Thiazide diuretics (block Na/Cl co transporter)
Loop diuretics (block Na/K/Cl transporter)
101
Q

Which electrolyte abnormality can cause hypokalaemia

A

Hypomagnesaemia

102
Q

Hypokalaemia + acid-base balance

A

• Hypokalaemia causes metabolic alkalosis
o Hypokalaemia  shift of H+ into cells in exchange for K+ (H+/K+ anti-transporter)  metabolic alkalosis

• Metabolic alkalosis causes hypokalaemia
o Alkalosis  shift of K+ into cells in exchange for H+ (H+/K+ anti-transporter)  hypokalaemia

103
Q

What can cause nephrogenic DI?

A

Hypokalaemia

Hypercalcaemia

104
Q

Hypokalaemia mx

A

[K+] = 3.0-3.5 mmol/L
 Oral KCl  2 SandK tablets, TDS, 48h
 Recheck K+

o [K+] = <3.0mmol/L
 IV KCl
 Max rate – 10mmol/h
• If rate >20mmol/h  irritate peripheral veins, risk of arrhythmia

105
Q

renal tubular acidosis and potassium

A

T4 - hyperkalaemia

T1, T2 - hypokalaemia

106
Q

Hyponatraemia mx

A
  • Hypovolemic hyponatremia  volume replacement with 0.9% saline + treat cause
  • Euvolemic hyponatremia  fluid restrict (500-750ml/day + Abx infusions) + treat underlying cause
  • Hypervolemic hyponatremia  fluid restrict (500-750ml/day + Abx infusions) + treat underlying cause, consider adding loop diuretic or spironolactone
  • Severe hyponatremia (lowGCS, seizures)  seek extra help + hypertonic 3% saline
107
Q

Causes of hyperkalaemia

A

Renal impairment > drugs > Addison’s > release from cells

108
Q

• Persistent HTN despite maximal HTN control ix

A

aldosterone: renin ratio (? Conn’s)

109
Q

Hyponatraemia + hypokalaemia

Hyperkalaemia + hypernatremia

A

Hyponatraemia + hypokalaemia – furosemide

Hyperkalaemia + hypernatremia – DKA (insulin deficiency  hyperkalaemia, loss of water  hypernatremia)

110
Q

Which hormones are released by TRH stimulation

A

TSH
Prolactin

Since TRH stimulates prolactin release: Primary Hypothyroidism  Hyperprolactinaemia

111
Q

Prolactin

6000
600-6000

A

6000 prolactinoma

600-6000 non functioning pituitary adenoma

112
Q

What is the combined pituitary function test and what is it being used for

A

Insulin + TRH + GnRH/LHRH

used to ix anterior pituitary function + to see if the pituitary gland responds adequately to metabolic stress

indications
hypopituitarism
prolactinoma

Insulin
Increase in GHRH –> Increase in GH
Increase in CRT –> increase in ACTH –> increase in cortisol

TRH
Increase in TSH + T4
(hyperthyroidism - TSH remains suppressed, hypothyroidism - exaggerated response)
Increase in prolactin

GnRH
Increase in LH + FSH

113
Q

How low should the glucose go in CPFT?

A

Ensure adequate hypoglycaemia (<2.2 mM)

if severe hypoglycaemia (<1.5mm) patient will get aggressive –> 50ml 20% glucose

114
Q

What do you measure during CPFT

A

Glucose
Cortisol
GH

TSH
T4
Prolactin

LH
FSH

every 30 mins

Response
everything >10
cortisol >550

115
Q

Hormone replacement order of urgency

A

Hydrocortisone

Thyroxine

Oestrogen

GH

+ give cabergoline or bromocriptine –> reduce prolactin

116
Q

Acromegaly tests

A

IGF-1
Produced in the liver in response to GH

OGTT
GH should fall with glucose administration

GH not used as pulsatile

117
Q

Acromegaly mx

A
  1. Transphenoidal surgery
  2. Radiotherapy
  3. Cabergoline
  4. Somatostatin analogue (octreotide)

cabergoline bc GH often co-secreted with prolactin

118
Q

What can cause nephrogenic DI

A

Lithium
Hypercalcaemia
Renal failure

119
Q

Osmolality equation

A

2(Na+K) + U + glucose

mosm/kg

Normal osmolality = 275-295 mosm/kg

120
Q

Anion gap equation

A

Na+ K - Cl - HCO3

Normal anion gap = 16-20

121
Q
  • Marker of glucose control over last 3 weeks –

* Marker of glucose over the last 3 months

A
  • Marker of glucose control over last 3 weeks – fructosamine (esp. useful in pregnant women)
  • Marker of glucose over the last 3 months – HbA1c
122
Q

Osmolar gap

A

Measured osmolarity - calculated osmolarity

123
Q

DKA vs HHS (hyperglycaemia hyperosmolar state)

pH
osmolarity

A

DKA ph <7.3
HHS ph >7.3

osmolarity
HHS > DKA

124
Q

What can metformin overdose lead to

A

Lactic acidosis
Metabolic acidosis

  • The metabolic pathway by which lactate is produced by anaerobic glycolysis in the muscles
  • Lactate moves to the liver to be converted to glucose
  • Glucose returns to the muscle to be metabolised to lactate

• Metformin
o Inhibits lactate conversion to glucose in the liver
o Can cause lactic acidosis because it inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis

125
Q

Causes of high anion gap

A

Methanol
Ethanol

Lactate
Ketones

Metformin excess/ OD

Normal anion gap = 16-20

126
Q

Diabetes drugs that cause hypoglycaemia

A

Sulfonylureas - gliclazide, glibenclamide

Insulin

127
Q

Diabetes drugs that cause weight gain

A

Sulfonylureas - gliclazide, glibenclamide

Thiazolidinedione/Glitazones (pioglitazone)
Insulin

128
Q

Diabetes drugs that cause weight loss

A

SGLT2 inhibitor - empagliflozin

GLP-1 agonist - exenatide, liraglutide

129
Q

Diabetes drugs that dont change the weight

A

DDP4 inhibitor - gliptins (sitaglipin, vildagliptin)

Metformin (biguanide)

130
Q

Blood drainage from the adrenal gland

A

o Left  drains to left renal vein

o Right  drains to IVC

131
Q

What is Schmidt’s syndrome?

A

Polyglandular autoimmune syndrome type II

Addison’s disease + Hypothyroidism

132
Q

Commonest cause of Addison’s disease

in the UK
Worldwide

A

UK - Autoimmune

Worldwide - TB

133
Q

What kind of tumour is phaeochromocytoma?

A

Adrenal medullary tumour

Secretes adrenaline

134
Q

Where are the tumours in Conn’s syndrome and Cushing’s syndrome found?

A

Conn’s - tumour in granulosa secreting aldosterone

Cushing’s - tumour in fasciculata secreting cortisol

135
Q

Why does cortisol act like aldosterone at high concentrations?

A
  • At high concentrations, cortisol activates the mineralocorticoid receptors
  • 11b-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase usually degrades cortisol to stop this happening but at a high concentration the enzyme is overwhelmed  HTN
136
Q

Two commonest causes of Cushing’s syndrome

A

Iatrogenic (1)

Pituitary tumour (2) = Cushing’s disease

then adrenal adenoma (zona fasciculata) (3)
then ectopic ACTH (4)

137
Q

Next steps after a positive low dose dexamethasone test

A

IPSS (inferior petrosal sinus sampling) with CRH stimulation

 IPSS has made he HDDST redundant and it is therefore no longer performed

IPSS
 Distinguishing from ectopic ACTH
 Catheterise the pituitary veins
 Measure prolactin to prove you’re in the pituitary
 Measure ACTH every week
 ACTH levels are sampled every week from the veins that drain the pituitary gland
 These levels are then compared with the ACTH levels in the peripheral blood to determine whether a pituitary tumour as opposed to an ectopic source of ACTH is responsible for ACTH-dependent Cushing syndrome

138
Q

If the high dose dexamethasone suppression test was still being carried out what would it show

A

 If cortisol was suppressed with a higher dose of dexamethasone, then the cause of Cushing’s syndrome was pituitary dependent Cushing’s disease

139
Q

OGTT – used to investigate 2 conditions 

A

DM (2 samples), acromegaly (5 samples, GH is suppressed by glucose)

140
Q

Ectopic ACTH managment

A

Ketoconazole –> inhibits 17a hydroxylase activity => reduces cortisol production

Metyrapone –> inhibits 11b hydroxylase

Mifepristone –> glucocorticoid receptor antagonist

141
Q

What is Nelson’s syndrome?

A

 Hypopituitarism + pigmentation after an adrenalectomy

Removal of adrenal leads to pituitary enlargement (stalk becomes compressed –> hypopituitarism) + increased ACTH release (pigmentation)