Chemotherapy Flashcards

1
Q

Growth fraction and mass doubling time

A

a. it may take months or years for the initial transformed cell to produce a clinically detectable response
b. the time it takes for a tumor to double (mass doubling time) varies
c. tumors depend on diffusion for oxygen and other nutrients, and for the removal of waste products; diffusion is sufficient if
the cells are within 150 m of a capillary
d. as a result of the limitation on diffusion, a steady-state is reached where tumor growth is balanced by tumor death
e. clinically, tumors must be at least 1 cm in diameter (~109 tumor cells) to be detected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Growth fraction and mass doubling time 2

A

f. one of the critical events for progression of tumor development is the ability of tumors to produce angiogenic
factors such as vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) which stimulate new vascular development; due to the formation of new blood vessels which can supply nutrients and oxygen, the tumor may now grow larger
g. often, the tumor will outgrow even its own newly formed vascular supply and the cells in the center of the tumor will die (necrosis); the cells on the outer rim of the tumor are the ones most rapidly proliferating
h. the rapidly proliferating cells constitute the “growth fraction” of the tumor
i. the growth fraction is most susceptible to anticancer drugs
j. the mass doubling time is inversely proportional to the growth fraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Growth fraction and mass doubling time 3

A

k. normal tissues with a high growth fraction such as bone marrow, gastrointestinal mucosa, and hair follicles are also the
tissues most damaged by cancer chemotherapeutic drugs; for example, bone marrow has a growth fraction of about 30%, so at doses required to kill tumor cells the bone marrow will also be damaged
l. Note: due to the fact the bone marrow produces granulocytes and platelets, bleeding and infection are two of the limiting complications of chemotherapy
m. small tumors are more susceptible to chemotherapy than large tumors
n. therefore, chemotherapy should be initiated at the earliest stage possible to enhance success
o. Note: surgical removal or radiation reduction in tumor size is often followed by chemotherapy because the remaining cells will be stimulated to enter the proliferating phase; second, metastases also have a high proportion of cells in the growth phase so they will be susceptible to chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Total tumor burden

A

a. if a tumor is large in size, chemo drugs may not be able to penetrate into the tumor at sufficient concentrations to kill
b. the killing of tumor cells by chemotherapeutic drugs follows 1st order kinetics, i.e., a constant proportion of tumor cells are
killed rather than a constant number
c. for example: it would take just as much drug to lower the tumor cell number from 106 to 103 cells (a loss of less than 1 mg
of tissue) as it would to lower the number from 109 to 106 (a loss of 1 g of tissue)
d. at the time of diagnosis, 1012 tumor cells may be present; if you kill 99.9% of these cells with successful chemotherapy, there
will still be 109 cells in the patient
e. the patient may appear to be in remission because 109 are barely clinically detectable; therefore, it is imperative to continue therapy
f. it is only a cure if all tumor cells are killed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Resistance

A

a. some neoplastic cells are resistant to most anticancer drugs
b. other tumor types can acquire resistance to cytotoxic drugs
c. resistance can be minimized by short-term, intensive, intermittent therapy with combinations of drugs
d. many mechanisms account for drug resistance (change of target, decreased drug penetration, increased drug efflux)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Toxicity

A

a. most chemotherapeutic drugs have a low TI
b. severe vomiting, stomatitis, alopecia (vomiting may be controlled with antiemetics)
c. myelosuppression
d. treatment-induced tumors: most antineoplastic agents are mutagens - may cause cancer themselves; often these cancers arise 10 or more years after therapy was discontinued and is a particular problem with the alkylating agents (leukemias)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Types of Anticancer Drugs

A
Alkylating agents
Antimetabolites
Natural products
Hormones and antagonists
Targeted agents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Alkylating Agents

A

Alkylation = covalent binding of alkyl groups to other molecules
Occurs through a positively charged ion, carbonium ion
Binds to RNA or DNA, most often at N7 of guanine
Alkylation is the crucial cytotoxic event
Alkylating agents are NOT cell cycle specific (NCCS)
Mutagens to normal DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Alkylating Agents

drugs

A
  1. Cyclophosphamide and Ifosfamide
  2. Nitrosoureas: Carmustine and Lomustine
  3. Dacarbazine
  4. Temozolamide
  5. Cisplatin, Carboplatin, Oxaloplatin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cyclophosphamide and Ifosfamide

A

Activated by P450 enzymes to a carbonium ion; also forms acrolein which causes hemorrhagic cystitis which can lead to
fibrosis of the bladder; injection of MESNA (sodium 2-mercaptoethane sulfonate) can minimize the fibrosis due to inactivation of acrolein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Nitrosoureas: Carmustine and Lomustine

A

Very lipid soluble so useful in brain tumors

Cause delayed BMS (~4-6 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cisplatin, Carboplatin, Oxaloplatin

A

a. are platinum-complexed drugs
b. mechanism of action: similar to the other alkylating agents, these drugs bind to the N7 nitrogen of a guanine in one or both strands of a DNA molecule but don’t form a carbonium ion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cisplatin, Carboplatin, Oxaloplatin adverse

A

severe, persistent vomiting occurs one hour
after cisplatin treatment and may continue for as long as 5 days; often, premedication with antiemetics is used; the major limiting
toxicity of cisplatin is nephrotoxicity, which is overcome by infusion of 1-2 L of normal saline prior to treatment; ototoxicity and peripheral neuropathy that is usually distal in a “stocking-and-glove” distribution may also occur; carboplatin only causes mild nausea and vomiting and is not nephrotoxic; the dose-limiting toxicity of carboplatin is myelosuppression; oxaloplatin causes peripheral neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Antimetabolites

A

Antimetabolites are structurally related to normal cellular components. They generally interfere with the availability of normal purine or pyrimidine nucleotide precursors by inhibiting their synthesis or by competing with them in DNA or RNA synthesis. Their maximal cytotoxic effects are S-phase specific.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Antimetabolites

A
  1. Methotrexate
  2. 5-Fluorouracil
  3. 6-Mercaptopurine & 6-Thioguanine
  4. Cytarabine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Methotrexate (MTX) moa

A

is structurally related to folic acid and acts as an antagonist to that vitamin by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) and preventing the conversion of folic acid to
tetrahydrofolic acid; the result of this inhibition is a blockage of the conversion of dUMP to dTMP and inhibition of DNA synthesis; you can use leucovorin rescue (N5 formyl-FH4) which is converted to N5 N10 methylene- FH4 and restore normal DNA synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Methotrexate (MTX) adverse

A

therapeutic use: cancar & psoriasis & RA
adverse effects: myelosuppression, alopecia, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea; long-term MTX use may cause hepatic fibrosis (more likely when treating RA or psoriasis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

5-fluorouracil (5-FU) and Capecitabine moa

A

5-FU is a pyrimidine analog with a stable fluorine atom in place of a hydrogen atom at position 5; intracellularly, it is converted to 5-FdUMP which competes with dUMP for the enzyme thymidylate synthase; 5-FdUMP
binds to thymidylate synthase and inhibits it thereby blocking thymidine production (dTMP) and inhibiting DNA synthesis;
when converted to 5-FUTP it can interfere with RNA function; Capecitabine is a prodrug of 5-FU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

5-fluorouracil (5-FU) and Capecitabine adverse

A

5-FU + leucovorin increases the cytotoxic effects of 5-FU
adverse effects: alopecia, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea; myelosuppression; after extended infusions, causes “hand-foot syndrome” which is characterized by erythematous desquamation of the palms and soles (more likely with capecitabine than 5-FU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

6-Mercaptopurine (6-MP) and 6-Thioguanine (6-TG) moa

A

both must be converted intracellularly to nucleotides by the enzyme HGPRT; inhibit
the first step in de novo purine ring biosynthesis similar to the inhibition exerted by AMP, GMP, and IMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

6-Mercaptopurine (6-MP) and 6-Thioguanine (6-TG) drug interactions

A

6-MP is metabolized by xanthine oxidase;

concurrent allopurinol use would increase plasma levels of 6-MP (reduce dose by 75%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Natural Products

A
  1. Dactinomycin
  2. Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin, Idarubicin, Epirubicin
  3. Bleomycin
  4. Vinblastine, Vincristine, Vinorelbine
  5. Taxanes: Paclitaxel
  6. Etoposide
  7. Camptothecin analogs: irinotecan and topotecan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Dactinomycin moa

A

the drug intercalates into the minor
groove of the DNA double helix where it forms a stable complex
with G-C base pairs; the effect of dactinomycin is primarily to
inhibit RNA polymerase but it can also inhibit DNA synthesis
as well; dactinomycin may cause strand breaks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Dactinomycin adverse

A

adverse effects: major toxicity is bone marrow suppression; nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, stomatitis, alopecia; extravasation
during injection produces localized toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin, Idarubicin, Epirubicin moa

A

all drugs are anthracycline antibiotics
mechanism of action: 1) the drugs intercalate between adjacent base pairs of the DNA helix and cause localized uncoiling which blocks RNA and DNA synthesis
2) inhibition of topoisomerase II
3)generation of oxygen radicals: cytochrome P450 reductase, found in nuclear membranes, catalyzes the reduction of anthracyclines to semiquinone free radicals (Fe+++-anthracycline complex) which can then produce superoxide ions and hydrogen peroxide; superoxide and hydrogen peroxide can cause DNA strand breaks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin, Idarubicin, Epirubicin radicals

A

tissues are protected from these radicals by superoxide
dismutase and glutathione peroxidase, but some tissues
such as the heart and tumor tissue are generally low in these protective systems; therefore, the anthracyclines have
cardiotoxicity as an adverse effect (presents acutely as
arrhythmias and chronically as dilated cardiomyopathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin, Idarubicin, Epirubicin adverse

A

adverse effects: irreversible, dose-dependent cardiotoxicity
(free radicals); in combination with irradiation of
the thorax, cardiotoxicity risk is increased; bone marrow
suppression; nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, stomatitis; alopecia is usually severe

dexrazoxane (Zinecard): metal chelator that blocks the reaction of iron with anthracyclines; given prior to doxorubicin to prevent cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Bleomycin moa

A

bleomycin is a mixture of peptides (from the fungus Streptomyces) that cause DNA strand breaks; the
complex of DNA with bleomycin-Fe++ is oxidixed to bleomycin- Fe+++ with the liberated electrons reacting with oxygen to form superoxide or hydroxide radicals which can attack DNA;
bleomycin is cell-cycle specific (G2)

29
Q

Bleomycin adverse

A

pulmonary toxicity is the most serious; mucocutaneous reactions and alopecia are common; Note:
bone marrow suppression is rare with bleomycin

30
Q

Vinblastine, Vincristine, Vinorelbine moa

A

derived from the periwinkle plant, Vinca rosea , so are referred to as a vinca alkaloids
moa: M-phase specific inhibition of the
cell cycle; binds specifically to tubulin blocking the ability of
tubulin to polymerize into microtubules

31
Q

Vinblastine, Vincristine, Vinorelbine adverse

A

bone marrow suppression (vinblastine
and vinorelbine); neurologic toxicity which manifests as peripheral neuropathy (vincristine); nausea, vomiting, diarrhea; alopecia is rare; the syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion has been observed with vinblastine and vincristine which is accompanied by hyponatremia and increased urine levels of sodium

32
Q

Taxanes: Paclitaxel moa

A

Paclitaxel was originally derived from the bark of the pacific yew tree; Docetaxel is semi-synthetic
moa: bind reversibly to tubulin, but unlike the vinca alkaloids, promote polymerization and stabilization of the polymer rather than disassembly; the result is that the overly stable microtubules do not depolymerize and cause cells to remain frozen in metaphase

33
Q

Taxanes: Paclitaxel adverse

A

hypersensitivity due to the vehicle used
(Cremophor EL which contains castor oil and absolute ethanol),
so patient is usually premedicated with dexamethasone,
diphenhydramine, and cimetidine; bone marrow suppression,
particularly neutropenia is the dose-limiting toxicity;
peripheral neuropathy

34
Q

Etoposide moa & adverse

A

moa: are semisynthetic derivatives of the plant alkaloid podophyllotoxin; they block cells in the late S-G2 phase of the cell cycle by inhibiting topoisomerase II
(this enzyme relieves the supercoils encountered during DNA replication) and causing strand breakage (rubi + poside = topo II)
adverse: dose-limiting toxicity is myelosuppression; alopecia, nausea, vomiting

35
Q

Camptothecin analogs: irinotecan and topotecan moa

A

topoisomerase I inhibitors (no and po tecan inhibit topo I)

36
Q

Steroid Hormones and their Antagonists

A

1) hormone-responsive, tumor regresses when hormone is added
2) hormone-dependent, remove hormone and tumor regresses

Treatment of hormone-responsive tumors is usually only palliative.
An exception is prednisone (glucocorticoid) treatment of
lymphomas, where the steroid is cytotoxic.

Treatment of hormone dependent tumors involves preventing theeffect of the hormone; this can be accomplished by surgery
(e.g., orchiectomy for advanced prostate cancer), or by drugs
such as tamoxifen to block estrogen effects in breast cancer
For a steroid hormone to have an influence on a cancer, the cancer cells must have receptors for that hormone.
Hormone therapy is the least toxic of the systemic cancer
therapies

37
Q

Steroid Hormones and their Antagonists

A
  1. Glucocorticoids: Prednisone, Dexamethasone
  2. Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMS): Tamoxifen
  3. Selective Estrogen Receptor Downregulators (SERDS): Fulvestrant
  4. Aromatase inhibitors (AIs): Anastrazole
  5. Androgen inhibitors: Bicalutamide, Flutamide
  6. GnRH agonists: Leuprolide
38
Q

Glucocorticoids: Prednisone, Dexamethasone

moa & use

A

moa: bind glucocorticoid receptors and trigger apoptosis in lymphocytes
use: leukemias & lymphomas

39
Q

Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMS): Tamoxifen moa & use

A

moa: competitive inhibitor of estrogen receptors
use: estrogen responsive breast ca

40
Q

Selective Estrogen Receptor Downregulators (SERDS): Fulvestrant moa & use

A

moa: inhibits the binding of estrogen but also alters the receptor structure so that the ER is targeted for proteosomal degradation
use: estrogen responsive breast ca

41
Q

Aromatase inhibitors (AIs): Anastrazole moa

A

aromatase catalyzes the conversion of androstenedione to estrone (which is converted to estradiol); by
blocking this enzyme the formation of estrogens is prevented which inhibits estrogen-stimulated cancer growth; anastrazole and letrozole are competitive inhibitors while exemestane irreversibly inhibits aromatase

42
Q

Androgen inhibitors: Bicalutamide, Flutamide moa & use

A

moa: competitively inhibit androgen receptors
use: prostate cancer (always given in combo with GnRH agonist- leuprolide & relins)

43
Q

GnRH agonists Leuprolide moa

A

both drugs are analogs of
gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH, LHRH); these drugs
bind to the LHRH receptor in the pituitary and cause
desensitization of the receptor; the consequence of
desensitization is inhibition of the release of FSH and LH and
subsequent inhibition of androgen and estrogen synthesis

44
Q

GnRH agonists Leuprolide use

A

prostate cancer (together with an
antiandrogen); it takes ~1 week for the GnRH receptors to
downregulate and for testosterone levels to decrease; in
that first week, there could be a potential “flare” of symptoms due to increased testosterone production (blocked by concurrent anti-androgen therapy)

45
Q

Targeted Anticancer Drugs

A
  1. Protein tyrosine kinase inhibitors: Imatinib
  2. Epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR or ErbB1) inhibitors: Cetuximab
    1. HER2/neu (ErbB2) inhibitors: Trastuzumab
  3. Angiogenesis inhibitors: Bevacizumab & Thalidomide
  4. Proteosome inhibitors: Bortezomib
46
Q

Protein tyrosine kinase inhibitors: Imatinib moa & use

A

moa: targets the BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase
which underlies CML (caused by the oncogenic fusion of the ABL protein kinase with BCR – the result is a constitutively active protein kinase)
use: CML

47
Q

Epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR or ErbB1) inhibitors: Cetuximab moa & use

A

moa: is a monoclonal antibody to the extracellular domain of the EGFR; this prevents the tyrosine kinase action of the receptor from activating cell growth and survival signals
use: head and neck squamous cell carcinoma
(HNSCC), colon cancer

48
Q

HER2/neu (ErbB2) inhibitors: Trastuzumab moa & use

A

moa: is a monoclonal antibody that binds the external domain of HER2/neu; this prevents the tyrosine kinase action of the receptor from causing angiogenesis, inhibiting apoptosis, and causing metastasis
use: metastatic breast cancer

49
Q

Angiogenesis inhibitors

A

a. Bevacizumab – antibody to VEGF-A; prevents binding of VEGF to its receptor, a type of tyrosine kinase that promotes
proliferation of endothelial cells and new blood vessels; used for renal-cell cancer as well as lung, colorectal, and breast cancers

b. Thalidomide – inhibits IL-6 and TNF  causing decreased angiogenesis, causes birth defects

50
Q

Proteosome inhibitors: Bortezomib moa & use

A

moa: reversibly inhibits the chymotrypsin-
like activity of proteasomes which disrupts multiple signaling pathways and causes apoptosis
use: multiple myeloma

51
Q

Basics of Cancer Chemotherapy

A
  1. Combination therapy is the rule – less resistance, lower toxicity from each individual agent; drugs should have different toxicities if possible
  2. Usually involves multiples rounds of therapy
  3. Patient must be immunocompeten enough to receive therapy – WBC > 3,000/mm3 and platelets > 100,000/mm3
    (immunostimulators may be valuable)
  4. Renal and liver function must be assessed for proper dosing
52
Q

bone marrow suppression

A

all agents except:
Bleomycin
Vincristine
Cisplatin

53
Q

cardiac

A

Doxorubicin

54
Q

Extravasation

A

rubicins

Vincas

55
Q

renal

A

Cisplatin

56
Q

Pulmonary

A

Bleomycin

57
Q

Hypersensitivity

A

Taxanes

58
Q

Peripheral Neuropathy

A

Vincristine

59
Q

Hemorrhagic Cystitis

A

Cyclophosphamide

60
Q

Liver

A

Methotrexate (long term)

61
Q

Hematopoietic Agents (Immunostimulators)

A
  1. Erythropoietin
  2. Thrombopoietin
  3. Myeloid growth factors- GM-CSF & G-CSF
62
Q

Thrombopoietin

A

selectively stimulates megakaryocytopoiesis to increase platelet production

63
Q

GM-CSF

A

acts synergistically with SCF, IL-1, IL-3, and IL-6 to stimulate CFU-GM and CFU-Meg to increase neutrophils and monocytes

64
Q

G-CSF

A

increases neutrophil production

65
Q

Immunosuppressants

A
  1. glucocorticoids
  2. Calcineurin inhibitors: Cyclosporine, Tacrolimus
  3. Sirolimus
  4. Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF)
66
Q

glucocorticoids moa & use

A

moa: inhibit the activation of NF-kB causing apoptosis of activated cells; downregulation of pro- inflammatory cytokines including IL-1 and IL-6; preventing T-cells from making IL-2 and proliferating
use: prophylaxis for organ transplant rejection, autoimmune diseases, SLE, psoriasis, asthma, allergies, IBD

67
Q

Calcineurin inhibitors: Cyclosporine, Tacrolimus moa & toxicity

A

moa: cyclosporine binds to cyclophilin while tacrolimus binds to FKBP-12; binding to these respective molecules results in the inhibition of calcineurin, a cytoplasmic phosphatase, thereby preventing movement of NFAT to the nucleus and activation of cytokines including IL-2
use: prophylaxis for organ transplant rejection, RA, psoriasis
toxicity: both drugs cause nephrotoxicity (dose-limiting
toxicity) ; hyperlipidemia and gingival hyperplasia (both are more likely with cyclosporine)

68
Q

Sirolimus moa & toxicity

A

moa: binds to FKBP-12 but does not interact with calcineurin; instead, the binding inhibits mTOR, a protein kinase that is a key enzyme in cell cycle progression (G1 to S phase)
use: prophylaxis of organ transplant rejection often with a low-dose calcineurin inhibitor and glucocorticoid;
preferred in patients with renal dysfunction or toxicity
Toxicity: increased cholesterol and TGs; not recommended
in lung (risk of hepatic artery thrombosis) or liver (risk of bronchial anastomotic dehiscence) transplants

69
Q

Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF) moa & toxicity

A

moa: noncompetitive inhibitor of inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase (IMPDH), an important enzyme in the de novo pathway of guanine nucleotide synthesis; this action prevents proliferation of B and T lymphocytes
use: prophylaxis of organ transplant rejection toxicity: leukopenia, GI