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Chemistry PA-CAT Review > Chemistry Review > Flashcards

Chemistry Review Flashcards

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1
Q

Certain drugs, such as Carvedilol, are weakly basic, highly permeable, and limitedly soluble.

Which pharmacologic element of these drugs can be affected by ionic strength, pH, and buffer capacity of GI fluids?

A

Dissolution

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2
Q

Which of these molecular formulas represents a strong base when dissolved in water?

A

Ca(OH)2

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3
Q

The octet rule dictates that atoms of the main-group elements tend to form bonds in such a way that leads to each atom having 8 electrons in its valence shell, but there are exceptions to this rule.

What best describes the valence shell of iodine in the compound ICl4-?

A

It has 4 pairs of valence electrons in σ-bonds and 2 lone pairs in d-orbitals

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4
Q

What best describes the intermolecular forces that most contribute to the increased boiling point of pure CCl4 (76.72°C) compared to CHCl3 (61.2°C)?

A

The extra electrons in CCl4 provide a greater surface area for London dispersion forces

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5
Q

What reaction involves two water molecules forming hydronium and hydroxide ions?

A

Self-ionization

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6
Q

_______ oxides are acidic in nature, and ______ oxides are basic in nature.

A

Nonmetallic; metallic

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7
Q

0.105 mol of argon and 0.0150 mol of bromine gas are held in a 5 L flask, at 25°C. If the overall pressure of the flask is 447 mm Hg, what is the partial pressure of each gas?

A

Argon 391 mm Hg; bromine 55.9 mm Hg

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8
Q

What is stoichiometry?

A

The branch of chemistry that shows the quantitative relationship between reactants and products

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9
Q

The rate r of a zero-order reaction A→B can be expressed in which form?

A

r = k

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10
Q

Which would be expected to have the shortest bond length?

A

C-N in acetonitrile

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11
Q

In the reaction between a methyl cation and ethanol to yield methoxymethane, which reactant is considered the Lewis acid?

A

Methyl cation

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12
Q

To standardize an unknown solution of sodium thiosulfate, Na2S2O3, a group of students prepares a standard solution of potassium iodate, KIO3. Before the titration, the KIO3 solution must be reacted with excess potassium iodide, KI, to form a colorless solution containing triiodide, I3-. This process goes through an intermediate reaction first forming I2, then excess iodide further reacts with the iodine to form I3-. Starch is then added to the triiodide solution as an indicator before the titration of Na2S2O3.

What is the ratio of iodine to iodate in the balanced equation for the redox reaction required to form iodine (I2) from iodate and iodide (before the reaction to form triiodide)?

A

5 : 1

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13
Q

Molecular oxygen, O2, in group VI of the periodic table, is attracted by strong magnetic fields in its liquid state (gases are too diffuse). This attraction is a result of the molecule having unpaired electron(s), a phenomenon called paramagnetism. The valence bond theory, however, describes this molecule as having a double bond and 2 sets of lone pairs that are spin paired (diamagnetic).

How would the experimental observations be reconciled by describing the electron configuration of O2 using the molecular orbital theory?

A

(σ2s)2 (σ2s)2 (σ2p)2 (π2p)2 (π2p)2 (π2p)1 (π*2p)1

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14
Q

Who proposed the kinetic theory of gas?

A

Bernoulli

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15
Q

Vapors undergo a deposition process to convert into a solid. What is the change in density after this change of state?

A

It increases

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16
Q

Which of the following is true according to the ideal gas law?

A

The absolute pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature

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17
Q

According to the pH scale, what does pH 7 indicate for a solution?

A

Neutral

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18
Q

Which value on the pH scale indicates that a solution contains a greater concentration of [Oh-] than [H+]?

A

12

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19
Q

What is the molar mass of 2.5 moles of CH4? Hint: molar mass of CH4 = 16 g/mol.

A

40 g (1 mole of CH4 = 16 g/mol; 2.5 moles of CH4 = x g/mol; cross multiply and make them equal; x g/mol x 1 mole of CH4 = 16 g/mol x 2.5 moles of CH4; x = 40g)

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20
Q

Magnesium chloride reacts with potassium carbonate to give magnesium carbonate and potassium chloride as the products.
MgCl2 + K2 CO3 → MgCO3 + 2KCl

What kind of reaction is this?

A

Double decomposition reaction

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21
Q

What process occurs during the increase in water solubility of a compound containing functional groups with carboxylic acids as they undergo ionization?

A

Formation of salts

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22
Q

Which pair of organic molecules are isomers but no stereoisomers?

A

2-bromopentane and 3-bromopentane

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23
Q

Monomeric oxyanions of elements in group VII (halogens) are named using a naming scheme with 4 sets of suffixes and prefixes that correspond to the oxidation of the central atom.

What is the name of the 4 oxyanions of bromine and the oxidation state of bromine in each compound?

A

(+7) Perbromate; (+5) bromate; (+3) bromite; (+1) hypobromite

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24
Q

In what state of matter will particles vibrate at a fixed position?

A

Solid

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25
Q

What is true regrading the particles of different states of matter?

A

The particles of gas have a lot of free space between them

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26
Q

What is the liquid-to-gas conversion process called?

A

Evaporation

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27
Q

Given the reduction potential of various metals, write a balanced redox equation for the spontaneous generation of hydrogen gas from a basic solution by one of the following metals: Na, Cr, Cd, Pt, Al.

A

2Al(s) + 6H2O(l) → 2Al3+(aq) + 3H2(g) + 6OH-(aq)

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28
Q

Consider an imaginary reaction: x→y

This reaction is said to be in equilibrium state when which of the following is true?

A

The rate of transformation of x to y is equal to the rate of transformation of y to x

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29
Q

Using VSEPR theory, what would the bond angle of nitrogen trichloride, NCl3 be?

A

107 degrees

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30
Q

Which pair of orbitals overlap to form a pi bond?

A

P-P

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31
Q

How can the hybridization of the xenon and fluorine atomic orbitals in the compound XeF4 be described?

A

d^2sp^3

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32
Q

Hydrogen has an atomic number of 1 and an atomic mass number of 1.

What is the number of neutrons?

A

0

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33
Q

Increasing which of the following factors also increases the solubility of gas?

A

Pressure

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34
Q

What is the balanced net ionic equation for the reaction between the insoluble Ca(OH)2(s) and the weak acid CH3CO2H?

A

Ca(OH)2(s) + 2 CH3CO2H(aq) → Ca2+(aq) + 2 CH3CO2-(aq) + 2 H2O­(l)

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35
Q

How many oxygen atoms are in 10.5 g of sodium perxenate, Na4XeO6?

A

1.19 x 10^23 atoms O

36
Q

Which is a balanced equation for the reaction used to measure the second electron affinity of sulfur?

A

S-(g) + e- → S2-(g)

37
Q

Which charge can be calculated for chlorine with 18 electrons?

A

-1

38
Q

Which of the following is a correct and balanced equation of a reaction between aluminum and sulfur?

A

16Al + 3S8 –> 8Al2S3

39
Q

Which of the following hydrocarbons does not have isomers?

A

Propane

40
Q

A researcher examines the distribution of human height and weight in a population.

What method should they use to analyze potential correlations between phenotypic data and genotypic data?

A

Association mapping

41
Q

A researcher studying invertebrates notes a co-linear relationship between genome organization and gene regulation during development.

What genes follow this pattern?

A

Hox

42
Q

A cancer researcher investigates loss of function mutations in tumor suppressor genes.

What gene codes for a protein involved in identification of DNA damage, pausing of cell cycle progression, and induction of apoptosis?

A

TP53

43
Q

Microorganisms are harnessed for complex research and industrial techniques.

Which of these species provides a widely used DNA polymerase?

A

Thermus aquaticus

44
Q

A researcher examines selective protein expression through immunoassay.

What technology have they used?

A

Western blot

45
Q

A researcher induces a transposition to study genes of cancer pathogenesis.

What process have they performed?

A

Gene mutagenesis

46
Q

DNA polymerase erroneously places a wrong base opposite to the template strand.

Where is this most likely to occur?

A

Entire chromosome

47
Q

A functional RNA molecule is transcribed but is not translated to a protein.

What is targeted by a subset of these molecules engaged in genome defense of mobile repetitive sequences?

A

Transposons

48
Q

A sophisticated interplay of macromolecules carries out protein synthesis in eukaryotes.

What is the original source of genetic code used during this process?

A

DNA

49
Q

Chromatin condensation is variable at different points throughout the life cycle of a cell.

At what point is euchromatin relatively decondensed?

A

Interphase

50
Q

A eukaryotic macromolecule contains adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), and cytosine (C).

Which site along this structure is characterized by repetitive nucleotides such as TTAGGG?

A

Telomere

51
Q

The brown anole (Anolis sagrei) is a species of lizard found in the Bahamas and Cuba and often preyed upon by the Northern curly-tailed lizard (Leiocephalus carinatus). The predators somehow have an exclusive preference for the male brown anoles. As a result, the males have developed longer legs than the females to escape the predators.

What is this an example of?

A

Natural selection

52
Q

A scientist performs a mixed infection of two different bacteriophage mutants upon Escherichia coli, where each individual mutant is unable to lyse host cells. Results demonstrate presence of multiple viral plaques after incubation over host bacteria, with phage progeny containing parental genotypes.

What process has occurred?

A

Complementation

53
Q

Messenger RNA (mRNA) produced from DNA serves as a template for protein synthesis. Before protein synthesis, most mRNA undergoes further maturation in capping and polyadenylation, where a guanine nucleotide is added to the 5’ end and a number of adenine nucleotides are added to the 3’ end.

What is this an example of?

A

Post-transcriptional modification

54
Q

Histones can undergo chemical modification on select amino acid residues, regulating the expression of the respective gene. Lysine residues on histone H3 can undergo methylation through the covalent addition of methyl residues, represented as H3K27me3, i.e., lysine residue number 27 on histone H3 has three methyl residues attached to it.

What is this an example of?

A

Post-translational regulation

55
Q

The Agouti gene locus for mice coat color exists as two alleles: a homozygous black and a heterozygous yellow variant. Crossing yellow mice has the expected offspring ratio of 1:2:1 for homozygous black: heterozygous yellow: homozygous yellow, but the homozygous yellow genotypes are completely absent in the offspring.

What are such alleles an example of?

A

Lethality

56
Q

A population undergoes changes that favor the extreme values of its genetics rather than intermediate values. What type of selection is this population subject to?

A

Disruptive selection

57
Q

An individual undergoes a change in the number of chromosomes in certain cells, resulting in two cell populations with different chromosomal structures. What type of aneuploidy will result?

A

Mosaicism

58
Q

A donor bacterial cell transfers DNA to a recipient cell through direct physical cell-to-cell contact. Which type of horizontal gene transfer has occurred?

A

Conjugation

59
Q

The primary means by which bacteria acquire antibiotic resistance is through horizontal gene transfer (HGT).

Which HGT process requires the cell to be in a state of competence, allowing for the active transport of environmental DNA across their cell membrane and incorporation into their endogenous DNA?

A

Transformation

60
Q

Cancer is a complex human disease characterized by the uncontrollable growth of abnormal cells, regardless of the normal processes of cell division.

How can tumor suppressor genes aid in preventing this process?

A

Initiating programmed cell death

61
Q

Genetic testing for two healthy adults planning a pregnancy reveals the presence of an autosomal recessive lethal gene carried by both individuals.

What outcome may occur with each pregnancy?

A

25% chance of offspring with the lethal disease

62
Q

Both parents possess the gene for a trait expressed in association with the presence of testosterone.

What type of inheritance will their offspring exhibit?

A

Sex-influenced inheritance

63
Q

The study of genetics has given a wealth of evidence for evolution. Tracing the molecular evolution of mitochondria in Homo sapiens has given evidence of the timing of our migration out of Africa and has helped confirm the discovery of a new species, the Denisovans. What concept is a result of the study of the molecular evolution of mitochondrial inheritance?

A

Breeding between Homo sapiens and Neanderthals

64
Q

A cluster of genes called the Hox genes are important in animals’ early embryonic development for laying out the general map of the body, including head, tail, and limb formation. The Hox genes are an example of a homeobox—a cluster of genes—that encode transcription factors, which are proteins that function to turn other genes on and off. The Hox genes are highly conserved amongst animal species, and duplications of the Hox homeobox have occurred in vertebrates and led to four sets of each homeobox for most vertebrates. Each duplicated gene can have a slightly different role and expression level during development, and combinations of expression of the duplicated genes can lead to greater complexity of function.

What can you determine about the duplicated Hox genes in vertebrates in the figure that shows patterns of expression of various HOX genes?

A

Hox 4 and Hox 9 have diverse roles in development

65
Q

A haplotype is a region of DNA (both coding and non-coding) such that the sequences are often inherited as a group due to their close proximity on the same chromosome. Haplotypes may contain variations that do not directly affect the translated amino acid sequence of the protein.

Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is a degenerative eye disease that causes vision loss in the center of the visual field. Recent research has shown a region on chromosome 10 that is linked with AMD (10q26), including two genes: HTRA1 and ARMS2. What mutation event is consistent with an untranslated variation within the AMD 10q26 disease-associated haplotype?

A

Point mutation in an intron within HTRA1 or ARMS2

66
Q

Hemophilia is an example of a genetic mutation that causes altered function or loss of function in the translated protein. In classic hemophilia, a mutation in the F8 gene, which codes for a protein called coagulation factor VIII, leads to an altered or abnormal version of the coagulation protein. A severe mutation leads to a severe case of hemophilia, while a minor mutation leads to a mild case of hemophilia.

What mutation would be considered the most severe mutation and alter the function of the protein product?

A

A point mutation that leads to a stop codon

67
Q

The most common form of inherited breast cancer is a mutation in the BRCA1 or BRCA2 genes (or BReast CAncer genes 1 and 2, respectively), but mutations in these two genes account for only 5-10% of all breast cancer cases. A mutant BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene increases the risk of breast cancer but does not always lead to the development of breast cancer. Mutations in the BRCA genes are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance.

What best describes the inheritance of mutated BRCA genes?

A

Either parent can contribute a mutated BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene

68
Q

The proteome, much like the genome, is the entire set of proteins within a cell. While all cells have the same genes, different cell types have different sets of proteins that are actively translated, so the proteomes among cells may be very different. What technique can be used to assay changes in the proteome?

A

Mass spectrometry

69
Q

An animal that has been genetically modified with the DNA of another species is called a transgenic animal. One or more genes are inserted into the host animal’s DNA, where they can be transcribed and translated into their respective proteins. What is an example of a transgenic animal?

A

A mouse that expresses human amyloid precursor protein

70
Q

Bioremediation is a branch of biotechnology that utilizes bacteria to clean up environmental pollutants. The bacteria can be native species or introduced by humans. What is an example of bioremediation?

A

Reduction of selenium ions into metallic selenium

71
Q

What is a characteristic of dideoxynucleotides?

A

Lacking a 3’ -OH group

72
Q

Viruses come in a wide variety of shapes and classes. They can have DNA or RNA as their genetic material. Some key features are found in all viruses, but what is an optional component of a virus?

A

Envelope

73
Q

Polymerase chain reaction, or PCR, is a valuable molecular technique. This technique takes a DNA sample and makes thousands of copies of a specific sequence through multiple rounds of transcription. Primers that bind either end of the gene signal where to start transcription. High heat causes the double-stranded DNA to separate into single strands, and the same enzyme that transcribes DNA endogenously transcribes the target sequence over and over. What is this enzyme?

A

Polymerase

74
Q

In eukaryotic organisms, the regulation of genes can occur at the transcriptional level and at the translational level. Translational regulation refers to regulation that occurs after a gene has been transcribed from DNA into an mRNA but before it has been translated into a protein. What is an example of translational regulation?

A

Micro RNA (miRNA) binding to an mRNA

75
Q

Translation is the process in which messenger RNA (mRNA) is translated into a polypeptide chain, which is then folded into a protein. What organelle is the site of mRNA translation into protein?

A

Ribosome

76
Q

Which statement applies to the elongation stage of transcription?

A

RNA polymerase builds an RNA molecule, making a chain

77
Q

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) functions as a blueprint, encoding genetic material. Ribonucleic acid (RNA) functions to read that genetic information in order to build proteins. The two are nearly identical structurally. What best describes a key structural difference between DNA and RNA?

A

The deoxyribose sugar in DNA makes it more stable than RNA

78
Q

Genetic mapping is the process of diagramming the relative sequence of genes on chromosomes. Because the genes on a chromosome are physically connected to each other, chromosomes are also referred to as what?

A

Linkage groups

79
Q

A couple considering pregnancy are concerned about the fact that the father has Duchenne muscular dystrophy. The mother does not carry a recessive gene for the disorder. How should they be advised concerning their offspring?

A

Sons will not be affected by the disorder

80
Q

Sex determination in humans is based on the presence of a Y chromosome. How is the chromosome structure of the male gamete classified?

A

Heterogametic

81
Q

A couple expecting a child have different blood types; the mother is AO and the father is BO. Which blood type in the infant would be an example of codominance?

A

AB

82
Q

When preparing a class presentation comparing and contrasting sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction, what information demonstrates the instructor’s accurate understanding of this topic?

A

Sexual reproduction creates new combinations of genetic material

83
Q

A couple planning to have children learn that both parents carry the gene for cystic fibrosis, an autosomal recessive trait. Following genetic counseling, what statement from the parents indicates an appropriate understanding of the discussion?

A

There is a 25% chance that the offspring will have the disease

84
Q

Mendel’s Law of Segregation consists of four basic principles. What statement related to these principles is accurate?

A

If an individual has a dominant gene for a trait, then a recessive gene’s trait will be hidden.

85
Q

What is an appropriate application of the Chi-Squared test in the study of genetics?

A

Determining if resulting numbers of offspring observed match the proposed model of inheritance for a trait?

86
Q

Regarding the evaluation of one’s haplotype, which of the following statements is correct?

A

A person’s haplogroup can only be confirmed by Y-chromosome SNP tests

87
Q

The M phase occurs at the end of the eukaryotic cell cycle. In that phase, how is cytokinesis differentiated from mitosis?

A

Formation of a protein contractile ring structure

Chemistry PA-CAT Review (1 decks)

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