chemistry paper 2 (complete) Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. Describe two ways that humans use the Earth’s natural resources.
A

any two from warmth/ shelter/ food/ transport

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2
Q
  1. Explain what the term finite means and give an example.
A

finite – being used up faster than it is made, any suitable example.

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3
Q
  1. What three areas do humans process finite resources from?
A

Earth, oceans and the atmosphere.

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4
Q
  1. What is meant by the term sustainable development?
A

the development that that meets the needs of current generations
without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own
needs.

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5
Q
  1. Why is potable water not described as pure water by scientists?
A

it contains dissolved substances.

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6
Q
  1. # What does the method used to produce potable water depend upon?
A

available supplies of water and local conditions.

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7
Q
  1. How is most potable water in the UK produced?
A

choosing an appropriate source of fresh water
passing the water through filter beds
sterilising

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8
Q
  1. What two methods can be used for the desalination of salty water?
A

distillation

reverse osmosis.

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9
Q
  1. What needs to be removed from sewage and agricultural waste water?
A

organic matter and harmful microbes.

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10
Q
  1. What needs to be removed from industrial waste water?
A

Organic matter and harmful chemicals

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11
Q
  1. What are the four stages in the treatment of sewage?
A

screening and grit removal
sedimentation to produce sewage sludge and effluent
anaerobic digestion of sewage sludge
aerobic biological treatment of effluent

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12
Q
  1. What type of ores can phytomining and bioleaching be used on?
A

low-grade ores

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13
Q
  1. Why are phytomining and bioleaching used?
A

Avoids traditional mining methods of

digging, moving and disposing of large amounts of rock.

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14
Q
  1. How does phytomining extract metals?
A

Uses plants to absorb metal compounds
the plants are harvested and burned
this produces ash that contains metal compounds.

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15
Q
  1. Bioleaching uses bacteria to make leachate solutions that contain metal
    compounds, describe two ways the metals are extracted from these solutions.
A

displacement using scrap iron

electrolysis.

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16
Q
  1. Life cycle assessments are carried out to assess the environmental impact of what
    stages of a product?
A

extracting and processing raw materials
manufacturing and packaging
use and operation during its lifetime
disposal at the end of its useful life.

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17
Q
  1. What areas of life cycle assessments can be easily quantified?
A

water, resources, energy sources and production of some wastes

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18
Q
  1. Why are value judgements needed in the production of life cycle assessments?
A

numerical values need to be allocated

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19
Q
  1. Name three things that reduce the use of limited resources.
A

reuse, reduction in use and recycling

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20
Q
  1. Name three materials produced from limited resources.
A

any three from metals/glass/building materials/ceramics/plastics/any
reasonable.

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21
Q
  1. Other than reusing how are glass bottles recycled
A

crushed and melted.

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22
Q
  1. What is corrosion?
A

Destruction of materials by chemical reactions with substances in
the environment.

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23
Q
  1. How are metals recycled?
A

melting and recasting.

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24
Q
  1. What is rusting?
A

corrosion of iron

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25
Q
  1. What is needs to be present for iron to rust?
A

water and air

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26
Q
  1. Name four methods of preventing corrosion.
A

Greasing, painting, electroplating, galvanising

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27
Q
  1. Why would coating iron with zinc prevent corrosion?
A

Zinc more reactive than iron, sacrificial protection, oxygen react
with zinc rather than iron

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28
Q
  1. Why does aluminium not corrode?
A

layer of aluminium oxide

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29
Q
  1. Name the metals in the alloy bronze.
A

opper and tin

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30
Q
  1. Name the metals in the alloy brass.
A

Copper and zinc.

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31
Q

10.Gold jewellery is usually an alloy with which metals?

A

Silver, copper, zinc

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32
Q
  1. What does the term 24 carat gold mean?
A

100% pure gold

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33
Q

12.What are steels?

A

alloys of ion

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34
Q

13.What are the properties of high carbon steel?

A

stronf, brottle

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35
Q

14.What are the properties of low carbon steel?s

A

softer

more easily shaped

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36
Q

15.What metals are added to iron to make stainless steel?

A

chromium,

nickel

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37
Q

16.What are the properties of stainless steel?

A

hard

resistant to corrosion

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38
Q
  1. How is soda-lime glass made?
A

Heating a mixture of sand, sodium carbonate and limestone

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39
Q
  1. How is borosilicate glass made?
A

Heating a mixture of sand and boron trioxide.

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40
Q
  1. How do soda-lime and borosilicate glass differ?
A

Borosilicate glass melts at a higher temperature

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41
Q
  1. How are clay ceramics made?
A

Shaping wet clay, heating in a furnace

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42
Q
  1. Give 2 examples of clay ceramics.
A

Brick and pottery.

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43
Q
  1. What are low density and high density poly(ethene) made from?
A

ethene

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44
Q
  1. What is a thermosetting polymer?
A

Do not melt when heated, have cross links

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45
Q
  1. What is a thermosoftening polymer?
A

Melt when heated, no cross links.

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46
Q
  1. What is a composite made of?
A

A matrix or binder and fibres or fragments.

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47
Q
  1. Give 3 examples of composites
A

Fibre glass, wood, concrete, reinforced concrete.

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48
Q
  1. What is a reversible reaction?
A

The products of the reaction can react to produce the original
reactants.

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49
Q
  1. (HT) Give the balanced symbol equation for the reaction between
    nitrogen and hydrogen to produce ammonia.
A

N2(g) + 3H2(g) == 2NH3(g)

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50
Q
  1. (HT) What compromises are made in the reaction conditions for
    the production of ammonia in the Haber process?
A

Slightly higher temperature – to increase rate of reaction; slightly
lower pressure – to reduce cost and increase safety.

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51
Q
  1. What three elements do most fertilisers contain?
A

Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium.

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52
Q
  1. What is produced when ammonia reacts with nitric acid?
A

salt, ammonium nitrate.

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53
Q
  1. Write a balanced symbol equation for the reaction between
    ammonia and nitric acid.
A

NH3 + HNO3 → NH4NO3

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54
Q
  1. Name two salts which are mined and can be used as fertilisers.
A

Potassium chloride, potassium sulfate.

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55
Q
  1. State why phosphate rock cannot be used directly as a fertiliser.
A

Insoluble

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56
Q
  1. What can phosphate rock be treated with to produce soluble
    salts?
A

acid

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57
Q
  1. Name the salt produced when phosphate rock reacts with:
    a. Nitric acid
    b. Sulfuric acid
    c. Phosphoric acid.
A

a. Nitric acid –> Calcium nitrate
b. Sulfuric acid –> Single superphosphate
c. Phosphoric acid –> Triple superphosphate

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58
Q
  1. Name 4 gases in the Earth’s atmosphere.
A

Nitrogen, oxygen, other gases such as carbon dioxide, water

vapour and noble gases.

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59
Q
  1. Give the proportions of gases in the Earth’s atmosphere.
A

Nitrogen 80%; Oxygen 20%; small proportions of other gases.

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60
Q
  1. Why is evidence for the Earth’s early atmosphere limited?
A

The timescale of 4.6 billion years

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61
Q
  1. What gases are believed to have been released from volcanoes
    during the first billion years of the Earth’s existence?
A

Nitrogen, carbon dioxide, water vapour; small amounts of

ammonia and methane

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62
Q
  1. How did the oceans form?
A

water vapour in the atmosphere condensed

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63
Q
  1. Why did the amount of carbon dioxide in the earlier atmosphere
    decrease?
A

When oceans formed carbon dioxide dissolved in the water;
carbonates precipitated producing sediments, reducing carbon
dioxide in the atmosphere.

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64
Q
  1. What gas in the current day atmosphere was not present in the
    atmosphere 4.6 billion years ago?
A

Oxygen

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65
Q
  1. What organisms increased the amount of oxygen in the Earth’s
    atmosphere?
A

Algae and plants.

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66
Q
  1. Write the balanced symbol equation for photosynthesis.
A

6CO2 + 6H2O
————–>
C6H12O6 + 6O2

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67
Q
  1. When did oxygen first start appearing in the atmosphere and
    which organism was responsible?
A

2.7 billion years ago; algae.

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68
Q
  1. Other than photosynthesis what other factors decreased the level
    of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?
A

Formation of sedimentary rocks and fossil fuels (natural gas, oil,
coal).

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69
Q
  1. Describe the main changes to the atmosphere over time and the
    likely causes of these changes.
A

• Intense volcanic activity – water vapour, carbon dioxide,
nitrogen, ammonia, methane released.
• Water vapour condensed to form oceans.
• Atmosphere mostly carbon dioxide; nitrogen slowly building up
over time.
• Carbon dioxide dissolved in oceans; carbonates precipitated
producing sediments. Carbon dioxide levels in atmosphere
drop.
• Photosynthesis – algae produce oxygen.
• Plants evolved, levels of carbon dioxide reduced, levels of
oxygen increased; animals evolved.
• Carbon dioxide levels dropped during the formation of
sedimentary rock (from sediments) and fossil fuels (from
organisms).

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70
Q
  1. Name 3 greenhouse gases.
A

Water vapour, carbon dioxide, methane.

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71
Q
  1. What is the link between greenhouse gases and the temperature
    of the Earth?
A

Greenhouse gases maintain temperatures on the Earth high

enough to support life

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72
Q
  1. Name human activities which increase the amount of carbon
    dioxide in the atmosphere.
A

Burning/ combustion of fossil fuels, deforestation.

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73
Q
  1. Name human activities that increase the amount of methane in
    the atmosphere.
A

Farming of livestock; landfill sites.

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74
Q
  1. What do many scientists believe about human activities and the
    temperature of the Earth’s atmosphere?
A

Human activities will cause the temperature of the Earth’s

atmosphere to increase at the surface resulting in climate change.

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75
Q
  1. Why are there issues surrounding modelling human impact on
    climate change?
A

• It is difficult to model these changes
• Simplified models are generated
• Leading to speculation and opinions presented in the media
that may be based on only part of the evidence and be biased.

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76
Q
  1. What is a major cause of climate change?
A

An increase in average global temperature

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77
Q
  1. Give three possible effects of climate change.
A

Droughts/desertification/flooding/ice caps melting

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78
Q
  1. What is the carbon footprint?
A

The total amount of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases
emitted over the full life cycle of a product, service or event.

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79
Q
  1. How can the carbon footprint be reduced?
A

By reducing emissions of carbon dioxide and ethane.

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80
Q
  1. What are the two main elements in most fuels?
A

Hydrogen and carbon.

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81
Q
  1. What other potentially polluting element may be present in fossil
    fuels?
A

Sulfur

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82
Q
  1. What gases may be released into the atmosphere when a fuel is
    burned?
A

Carbon dioxide, water vapour, carbon monoxide, sulfur dioxide
and oxides of nitrogen.

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83
Q
  1. Which two of these gases can lead to acid rain?
A

Sulfur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen.

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84
Q
  1. What else may be released, during combustion of fuels, to form
    particulates in the atmosphere?
A

Solid particulates, unburned hydrocarbons

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85
Q
  1. Write the balanced symbol equation for the complete combustion
    of pentane C5H12 .
A

C5H12 + 8O2
————————>
5CO2 + 6H2O

86
Q
  1. Which two substances would be formed if this was an incomplete
    combustion reaction?
A

water and carbon monoxide and/ or soot

87
Q
  1. Describe the gas carbon monoxide.
A

toxic gas; colourless and odourless

88
Q
  1. Why is carbon monoxide difficult to detect?
A

Colourless and odourless

89
Q
  1. What are two effects of sulfur dioxide in the atmosphere?
A

Respiratory problems in humans; acid rain.

90
Q
  1. What are two effects of particulates in the atmosphere?
A

Global dimming; health problems for humans.

91
Q
  1. What is a pure substance?
A

A single element or compound, not mixed with any other

substance.

92
Q
  1. How could you distinguish between a pure substance and a

mixture?

A

Pure substances melt and boil at specific temperatures. Melting
and boiling point data could be used.

93
Q
  1. What is a formulation?
A

A mixture that has been designed as a useful product.

94
Q
  1. How are formulations made?
A

Mixing the components in carefully measured quantities to ensure
the product has the required properties.

95
Q
  1. Give two examples of formulations.
A

Fuels, cleaning agents, paints, medicines, alloys, fertilisers and
foods.

96
Q
  1. What is chromatograph?
A

Used to help separate mixtures, can give information to help
identify substances

97
Q
  1. What happens in the stationary and mobile phases?
A

Stationary phase is the paper; mobile phase is the solvent. Mixture
is dissolved in the solvent and moves up the stationary phase.

98
Q
  1. State the equation used to find the Rf value.
A

Rf =
distance moved by substance
———————————————-
distance moved by solvent

99
Q
  1. A solvent travels 8cm up the stationary phase, two spots separate
    out. A travels 6cm up the mobile phase, B travels 4.5cm up the
    mobile phase. Give the Rf value for both to two decimal places
A
A = 0.75
B= 0.56
100
Q
  1. How would you test for oxygen gas?
A

Glowing splint; splint relights.

101
Q
  1. An unknown gas gives out a squeaky pop when a burning splint is
    put into it. What is the gas?
A

Hydrogen

102
Q
  1. Describe how you would test for carbon dioxide gas.
A

Limewater; turns cloudy/milky

103
Q
  1. A student wrote down the following description for testing
    chlorine: “Use litmus paper it turns from red to blue.” Where has
    he gone wrong?
A

moist litmus paper; litmus paper is bleached, turns white.

104
Q
  1. What is a flame test?
A

Rod dipped in water and then in the compound; placed in flame;
observe colour of flame

105
Q
2. What colour flame would the following metal ions have in a flame 
test?
a) Lithium
b) Sodium
c) Potassium
d) Calcium
e) Copper
A

a) Lithium crimson red
b) Sodium yellow
c) Potassium lilac
d) Calcium orange-red
e) Copper green

106
Q
  1. What might cause some flame colours to be masked?
A

a sample containing a mixture of ions

107
Q
  1. What is a precipitate?
A

A insoluble solid product produced in a liquid

108
Q
  1. Sodium hydroxide is used to identify some metal ions. What colour
    precipitate do aluminium, calcium and magnesium ions form?
A

White

109
Q
  1. How is are aluminium ions distinguished from calcium and

magnesium ions in the reaction with sodium hydroxide?

A

Aluminium hydroxide precipitate dissolves in excess sodium

hydroxide solution.

110
Q
7. What colour precipitate do the following ions make with sodium 
hydroxide?
a) Copper (II)
b) Iron (II)
c) Iron (III)
A

a) Copper (II) blue
b) Iron (II) green
c) Iron (III) brown

111
Q
  1. Write the word equation for the reaction between calcium

chloride and sodium hydroxide.

A

calcium chloride + sodium hydroxide –>

calcium hydroxide + sodium chloride

112
Q
  1. Write the balanced symbol equation for the reaction between
    aluminium chloride and sodium hydroxide.
A

AlCl3
(aq)+ 3NaOH (aq) –>
Al(OH)3
(s) + 3NaCl (aq)

113
Q
  1. What colour would be the precipitates be in the above reactions?
A

White

114
Q
  1. How could you distinguish between them?
A

Aluminium hydroxide would dissolve in excess sodium hydroxide.

115
Q
  1. How would you test for a carbonate?
A

React with dilute hydrochloric acid to form carbon dioxide gas.

116
Q
  1. How would you test the gas produced by the above reaction?
A

limewater goes cloudy/ milky

117
Q
  1. How would you test for halide ions?
A

Produce precipitate with silver nitrate in the presence of nitric
acid.

118
Q
  1. How could you use the above test to distinguish between halide
    ions?

test - Produce precipitate with silver nitrate in the presence of nitric
acid

A

Silver chloride = white; silver bromide = cream;

silver iodide = yellow

119
Q
  1. Silver nitrate is added to an unknown chemical in solution. A
    cream precipitate is produced. What is the halide ion present?
A

Bromide

120
Q
  1. Write the balanced symbol equation for the reaction above.
A
121
Q
  1. How would you test for sulfate ions?
A

Add barium chloride solution in the presence of hydrochloric acid;
white precipitate formed.

122
Q
  1. Write the word and balanced symbol equation for the reaction
    between sodium sulfate and barium chloride.
A
barium chloride + sodium sulfate --> barium sulfate + sodium chloride
 BaCl2
(aq) + Na2
SO4
(aq) -->
BaSO4
(s) + 2NaCl (aq
123
Q
  1. Give three advantages of instrumental methods for detecting ions
    compared with chemical methods.
A

accurate/sensitive/rapid

124
Q
  1. What is flame emission spectroscopy used for?
A

o analyse metal ions in solution.

125
Q
  1. How is flame emission spectroscopy carried out
A

Sample is put into a flame, light given out is passed through a
spectroscope, line spectrum produced is analysed to identify
metal ions

126
Q
  1. Crude oil is a finite resource. What does finite mean?
A

Being used up faster than it is being formed

127
Q
  1. How was crude oil formed?
A

Remains of an ancient biomass consisting of many plankton that
was buried in mud.

128
Q
  1. What is crude oil?
A

Mixture of a very large number of compounds, most of which are
hydrocarbons

129
Q
  1. What is the definition of a hydrocarbon?
A

compound containing hydrogen and carbon only.

130
Q
  1. What is the general formula of the alkanes?
A

CnH2n+2

131
Q
  1. Name the first four members of the alkanes.
A

Methane, ethane, propane, butane

132
Q
  1. What would be the formula of an alkane with nine carbons?
A

C9H20

133
Q
  1. What do we call the many hydrocarbons in crude oil?
A

Fractions

134
Q
  1. How can the hydrocarbons in crude oil be separated out?
A

Fractional distillation.

135
Q
  1. The hydrocarbons in crude oil can be processed to produce…
A

Fuels and feedstock

136
Q
  1. List the following fractions from fractional distillation in order of
    boiling point, the fraction with the lowest boiling point should be
    first.
    Kerosene, diesel oil, heavy fuel oil, liquefied petroleum gases,
    petrol.
A

LPG, petrol, diesel oil, kerosene, heavy fuel oil`

137
Q
  1. Give three examples of useful materials produced by the

petrochemical industry.

A

Solvents, lubricants, polymers, detergents

138
Q
  1. How would you describe the boiling point, the viscosity and the
    flammability of a very large alkane molecule?
A

High boiling point, high viscosity, low flammability

139
Q
  1. Nonane C9H20 was combusted in oxygen to produce carbon dioxide
    and water. Write the balanced symbol equation for this reaction
A

C9H20 + 14O2  9CO2

+ 10H2O

140
Q
  1. Define the term ‘cracking’.
A

Breaking hydrocarbons down to produce smaller, more useful

molecules.

141
Q
  1. Name two methods of cracking.
A

catalytic, steam

142
Q
  1. What are the conditions needed for cracking?
A

High temperature + catalyst

143
Q
  1. Which are more reactive: alkanes or alkenes?
A

Alkenes

144
Q
  1. What is the test for alkenes?
A

Bromine water; orange to colourless

145
Q
  1. Complete the following equation for a cracking reaction.

C14H30 —> C11H24 +

A

C14H30 –> C11H24 + C3H6

146
Q
  1. What type of bond do all alkenes contain?
A

C=C

147
Q
  1. What is the general formula for the homologous series of alkenes?
A

CnH2n

148
Q
  1. Why are alkenes unsaturated?
A

Contain two fewer hydrogen atoms than the alkane with the same
number of carbon atoms

149
Q
  1. What are the first four members of the homologous series of
    alkenes?
A

Ethene, propene, butane, pentene.

150
Q
  1. What would be the formula of an alkene that contained 18

hydrogen atoms?

A

C18H36

151
Q

break

A
152
Q
  1. Write the balanced symbol equation for the incomplete
    combustion of octane C8H16 to produce carbon monoxide and
    water.
A

C8H16 + 8O2  8CO + 8H2O

153
Q
  1. What alcohol will be produced when water reacts with butane?
A

Butanol

154
Q
  1. What chemical is produced when bromine reacts with pentene?
A

Bromopentane

155
Q
  1. Name and give the formulae of the first three alcohols.
A

methanol CH3OH,
ethanol C2H5OH,
propanol C3H7OH

156
Q
  1. What is the functional group that all alcohols contain?
A

-OH

157
Q
  1. What are the conditions needed for sugar to ferment into alcohol?
A

No oxygen, temperature between 25OC and 45 OC, water and

yeast

158
Q
  1. Write a word equation for the reaction between ethanol and
    oxygen.
A

Ethanol + oxygen  carbon dioxide and water

159
Q
  1. Write a word equation for the reaction between ethanol and
    sodium.
A

Ethanol + sodium  sodium ethoxide + hydrogen

160
Q
  1. What is the functional group that all carboxylic acids contain?
A

-COOH

161
Q
  1. Name the first four members of the homologous series of carboxylic acids.
A

Methanoic acid, ethanoic acid, propanoic acid, butanoic acid.

162
Q
  1. Name and give the formula of the carboxylic acid that contains four carbon atoms.
A

Butanoic acid.

163
Q
  1. Which two chemicals are made when an alcohol and a carboxylic
    acid are reacted together?
A

Butanoic acid.

164
Q
  1. What is polymerisation?
A

Many monomers join to form a polymer

165
Q
  1. What type of polymerisation joins alkenes together to make
    polymers?
A

Addition polymerisation

166
Q
  1. What is the monomer called which forms the polymer

poly(ethene)?

A

Ethene

167
Q
  1. What type of polymer would butene make and what would it be
    called?
A

Addition polymer called poly(butene).

168
Q
  1. HT ONLY - What happens during condensation polymerisation?
A

Monomers with two functional groups; small molecules such as
water are lost through ‘condensation’.

169
Q
  1. HT ONLY - Explain how amino acids polymerise to form a

polypeptide.

A

Condensation polymerisation. Two functional groups, water lost by
condensation.

170
Q
  1. HT ONLY - Name and give the formula of one amino acid that
    polymerises in this way.
A

glycerine – H2NCH2COOH

171
Q
  1. What is DNA?
A

Large polymer essential for life; deoxyribonucleic acid

172
Q
  1. What does DNA do?
A

Encodes genetic instructions for the development and functioning
of living organisms and viruses.

173
Q
  1. Describe the structure of DNA.
A

Two polymer chains, double helix

174
Q
  1. What are the monomers that make up DNA?
A

Nucleotides

175
Q
  1. What three substances make up these monomers?
A

Base, phosphate, deoxyribose sugar.

176
Q
  1. Name three other naturally occurring polymers important for life.
A

Proteins, starch, cellulose.

177
Q
  1. Name the monomer for protein, starch and cellulose.
A

Proteins – amino acids; starch and cellulose – glucose.

178
Q
  1. State two ways of finding the rate of reaction.
A

Measuring the quantity of reactant used or product formed.

179
Q
  1. State two units of rate of reaction. (HT: state 3)
A

g/s;
cm3/s;
(mol/s)

180
Q
  1. State two ways of measuring the quantity of reactant or product
A

Mass in grams or volume cm3

181
Q
  1. A student carries out an experiment reacting hydrochloric acid
    (HCl) with calcium carbonate (CaCO3
    ) to give calcium chloride
    (CaCl2
    ) carbon dioxide and water. Write the balanced symbol
    equation for this reaction.
A

CaCO3 (s) + 2HCl (aq)

–> CaCl2 (aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l)

182
Q
  1. The student collects 50 cm3 of carbon dioxide gas in 10 seconds.
    What is the rate of reaction? Include the units.
A

rate = volume of gas collected / time taken

50/10

=5cmcubed/s

183
Q
  1. (HT only) The student repeats the experiment again, this time they
    find the mass of the carbon dioxide collected. They collect 11 g of
    carbon dioxide in 10 seconds. Calculate the rate of reaction in
    mol/s.
A

11g/44g = 0.25 moles of carbon dioxide
so 0.25 moles/10 seconds
= 0.025 mol/s

184
Q
  1. (HT only) What mass of carbon dioxide are they collecting per
    second if the rate of reaction is 0.075 mol/s
A

0.075 moles of CO2

is 44 x 0.075 so 3.3 g/s

185
Q
  1. What is meant by the term ‘collision theory’?
A

Explains how factors affect the rate of reaction.

186
Q
  1. What is meant by the term ‘activation energy’?
A

Minimum amount of energy that particles must have to react

187
Q
  1. What happens to the gradient of a line if the rate of reaction is increased?
A

ncreased?

Becomes steeper.

188
Q
  1. What is a catalyst?
A

Substance which increase the rate of reaction but are not used
up during the reaction

189
Q
  1. According to collision theory, chemical reactions can only occur when…
A

reacting particles collide with each other with sufficient

energy.

190
Q
  1. Other than concentration give three factors that affect the rate of reaction.
A

any from: Temperature, surface area, pressure and a catalyst

191
Q
  1. Explain why the amount of hydrogen gas doubles and why the rate of reaction doubles; use collision theory in your response
A

If concentration of acid is doubled then there
are twice the number of collisions with
magnesium atoms.
There will be twice the number of successful
collisions so rate of reaction doubles.
As there are twice as many acid particles (and
the magnesium is in excess) there will be twice
the volume of (hydrogen) gas released

192
Q
  1. What is a catalyst?
A

Catalysts change the rate of chemical reactions, but are not
used up during the reaction. They provide a different pathway
with a lower activation energy.

193
Q
  1. The symbol equation for photosynthesis is: 6CO2 + 6H2O  C6H12O6 + 6O2 ..the catalyst for this reaction is chlorophyll, however it does not appear in the equation. Why is this?
A

It is not a chemical that reacts/it is unchanged at the end of
the reaction

194
Q
  1. What is meant by a reversible reaction?
A

The products of a reaction can react to produce the original reactants.

195
Q
  1. Draw the symbol for a reversible reaction.
A
196
Q
  1. If a reaction is endothermic in one direction, what is it in the other direction?
A

Exothermic

197
Q
  1. What is meant by the term equilibrium?
A

Forward and reverse reactions occur at the same rate.

198
Q
  1. What needs to happen for equilibrium to be reached?
A

Closed system; apparatus prevents the escape of reactants and products.

199
Q
  1. What can be said about the amount of energy being transferred in a reversible reaction?
A

Same amount of energy is transferred in both directions

200
Q
  1. The following reversible reaction occurs: The reaction that makes C and D is exothermic. What happens if we heat up A and B?
A

We will get less C and D

201
Q
  1. What is Le Chatelier’s Principle?
A

If a system is at equilibrium and a change is made to any of the conditions,
then the system responds to counteract the change.

202
Q
  1. What three factors can be changed in a system at equilibrium?
A

Concentration, temperature and pressur

203
Q
  1. If the concentration of a reactant is increased what will happen to the products of the reaction?
A

More products will be produced; until equilibrium is reached.

204
Q
  1. What will happen to the amount of product in an endothermic reaction at equilibrium if the temperature is increased?
A

More products will be produced.

205
Q
  1. What will happen to the amount of product in an exothermic reaction at equilibrium if the temperature is increased?
A

relative amount of products will decrease

206
Q
  1. What will happen to the amount of product in an endothermic reaction at equilibrium if the temperature is decreased?
A

uilibrium if the temperature is decreased?

Relative amount of products will decrease

207
Q
  1. What is meant by the term ‘gaseous reaction’?
A

Reaction where all the reactants and products are gases.

208
Q
  1. What would happen to the position of equilibrium in a gaseous reaction if the
    pressure is increased?
A

Equilibrium would shift towards the side with the smaller number of
molecules shown in the balanced chemical equation.

209
Q
  1. Using Le Chatelier’s principle, explain what will happen in the following reaction
    if we increase the concentration of the hydrogen and iodine? I2 (g) + H2 (g) 2HI (g)
A

The extra iodine and hydrogen will react together to make more hydrogen
iodide.

210
Q
  1. What will happen if we increase the temperature of the reaction below? Explain
    why you think this.
    N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g)
A

More hydrogen and nitrogen will be made as the backward reaction is
endothermic

211
Q
  1. Explain what will happen if we decrease the pressure in the reaction below.

N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g)

A

We will get more nitrogen and hydrogen as there are four moles of gas/higher
volume for the reactants