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MCAT! > Chemical/Physical > Flashcards

Chemical/Physical Flashcards

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1
Q

Equimolar amounts of which pairing is the most appropriate when designing a buffer solution to imitate the conditions of the blood?

a. HCl and NaCl
b. H2SO4 and NaHSO4
c. NH3 and NH4Cl
d. NH3 and NaOH

A

c. NH3 and NH4Cl

Weak acid and weak base

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2
Q

A block (mass = 300g) resting on a frictionless table is connected by a string to another block (500g). The second block is dropped off the edge of the table. The two block system will have what initial acceleration?

a. 1.5m/s^2
b. 3m/s^2
c. 6m/s^2
d. 12m/s^2

A

c. 6m/s^2

Use the TOTAL mass (800g or 0.8kg).

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3
Q

Which of the following types of decay would result in indirect ionization?

a. Alpha
b. Beta minus
c. Beta plus
d. Gamma

A

d. Gamma

Gamma radiation is uncharged, so will result in indirect ionization

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4
Q

The flow rate of stomach content emptying is 100 cm^3/sec. Patients who undergo gastric bypass surgery will increase this rate to almost 1600 cm^3/sec. Assuming the flow of stomach contents approximates Poiseuille’s Law, what change to their gastrointestinal connection would explain this, provided no other changes occur in the conditions of stomach content flow?

a. The new connection is 2 times longer
b. The new connection is 4 times longer
c. The new connection radius is 2 times larger
d. The new connection radius is 4 times larger

A

c. The new connection radius is 2 times longer.

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5
Q

Which of the following waves would have a wavelength larger than any standard electrospun fiber?

a. Red light
b. Blue light
c. Microwaves
d. X-rays

A

c. Microwaves

Largest wavelength of the choices

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6
Q

In vivo, PO4^3- molecules utilize proton-coupled transport mechanisms to enter the cell. Which statement explains why this is necessary?

a. PO4 3- is hydrophilic
b. PO4 3- is hydrophobic
c. The cell membrane is hydrophilic
d. The secondary active transport mechanism conserves ATP

A

a. PO4^3- is hydrophilic

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7
Q

Consider the following ions: Br-, Rb+, Se2-, Sr2+.
Which of the following best predicts the trend in radii for these ions?

a. Se2- < Br- < Rb+ < Sr2+
b. Br- < Se2- < Sr2+ < Rb+
c. Rb+ < Sr2+ < Se2- < Br-
d. Sr2+ < Rb+ < Br- < Se2-

A

d. Sr2+ < Rb+ < Br- < Se2+

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8
Q

Which of the following is true?

a. An atom which is reduced has experienced a loss of electrons
b. Oxidation is associated with forming fewer bonds to oxygen
c. When an atom is reduced, its oxidation state increases
d. Reduction is associated with forming more bonds to hydrogen

A

d. Reduction is associated with forming more bonds to hydrogen

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9
Q

What is the oxidation number of nitrogen in NH3?

a. +1
b. +3
c. -1
d. -3

A

d. -3

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10
Q

Chlorine is mixed with water through the following reaction:
Cl2 + H2O -> HCl + HClO
This is known specifically as which type of reaction?

a. Disproportionation
b. Oxidation
c. Reduction
d. Comproportionation

A

a. Disproportionation

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11
Q

When water (H2O) is protonated to hydronium (H3O+), how is the oxidation state of oxygen affected?

a. It increased from 0 to +1
b. It increases from -2 to +1
c. It decreases from -2 to -3
d. It is unchanged

A

d. It is unchanged

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12
Q

An object is dropped from the top of the Empire State Building. Which of the following statements best describes the motion of the object as it experiences air resistance during its downward fall?

a. The speed will increase at a constant rate for its fall.
b. The speed will decrease at a constant rate for its fall.
c. Its speed remains constant for the fall.
d. Its acceleration will decrease until the object starts moving with a constant speed.

A

d. Its acceleration will decrease until the object starts moving at a constant speed.

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13
Q

Which of the following describes the “buffer” region in a titration curve?

a. The steep portion of the curve immediately after the equivalence point
b. The concave portion of the curve immediately after the addition of titrant
c. The flat portion of the curve just before the equivalence point
d. The flat portion of the curve long after the equivalence point has been reached

A

c. The flat portion of the curve just before the equivalence point

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14
Q

Titration curves exhibit an asymptote at very large volumes of added titrant. Which of the following experimental parameters determines the location of this asymptote?

a. The Ka of the initial solution
b. The pH of the titrant
c. The pH of the initial solution
d. The slope of the curve on the titration curve

A

b. The pH of the titrant

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15
Q

Isomers are molecules or polyatomic ions with identical molecular formulas. Which of the following is not true of isomers?

a. Isomers have the same number and type of atoms.
b. Isomers may have different physical properties.
c. Isomers may have different chemical properties.
d. Isomers may have different chemical formulas.

A

d. Isomers may have different chemical formulas.

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16
Q

Which of the following is the most stable conformation of a stereocenter in a Newman projection?

a. Anti
b. Eclipsed
c. Fully eclipsed
d. Gauche

A

a. Anti

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17
Q

Some molecular conformations of cyclohexane are more stable than others. Which of the following formations will be the most stable?

a. Chair
b. Boat
c. Half chair
d. Twist boat

A

a. Chair

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18
Q

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the stereochemistry between the various cyclohexanes?

a. Cis-1,2-dichlorocyclohexane and trans-1,2-dichlorocyclohexane rotate plane-polarized light in opposite directions, and together in equal proportions form a racemic mixture.
b. Only cis-1,4-dichlorocyclohexane is achiral due to a plane of symmetry, and cis-1,4-dichlorocyclohexane is diastereomeric to trans-1,4-dichlorocyclohexane.
c. The diaxial and diequatorial forms of trans-1,3-dichlorohexane can be separated by their differing physical properties.
d. The conformational isomers of trans-1,2-dichlorocyclohexane are enantiomers, which are not interconvertible, but resolvable.

A

d. The conformational isomers of trans-1,2-dichlorocyclohexane are enantiomers, which are not interconvertible, but resolvable.

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19
Q

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the characteristics of diastereomers, enantiomers, and meso compounds?

a. The chemical properties of enantiomers, including both the qualitative reactions and the quantitative rates of reaction, are identical when reacting with other chiral chemical species
b. Enantiomers rotate plane polarized light and in opposite directions, while meso compounds are achiral and do not rotate plane polarized light.
c. For a given set of stereoisomers, meso compounds must have at least 2 stereocenters and are diastereomeric to the other stereoisomers in the set.
d. Diastereomers, which are stereoisomers not related by reflection or non-superimposable non-mirror images, are similar to other isomers in having distinct chemical and physical properties.

A

c. For a given set of stereoisomers, meso compounds must have at least 2 stereocenters and are diastereomeric to the other stereoisomers in the set

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20
Q

Where within the cell is the majority of ATP produced from the complete metabolism of carbohydrates and lipids, respectively?

a. Mitochondria; cytosol
b. Cytosol; mitochondria
c. Mitochondria; mitochondria
d. Cytosol; cytosol

A

c. Mitochondria; mitochondria

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21
Q

The synthesis of which of the following would be LEAST affected by a disease which selectively destroys the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

a. Cholesterol
b. Phospholipids
c. Insulin
d. Testosterone

A

c. Insulin

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22
Q

Over one hour at 40C, the labeled membrane proteins in the cells of Person A are observed to have an average lateral displacement in the membrane of 30% the circumference of the cell, and Person B’s moved 5%. Based on these results, what is the most likely conclusion regarding the membrane composition of Person B’s cells?

a. They contain less protein
b. They contain more unsaturated lipids
c. They contain more cholesterol
d. They contain less cytoskeletal connections

A

c. The plasma membrane of Person B’s cells contains more cholesterol than the plasma membrane of Person A’s cells

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23
Q

Long-chain fatty acids (LCFAs) are known to accumulate in the setting of a deficiency of the enzyme carnitine acyltransferase (CAT). If CAT were restored to normal function, where within the cell would LCFAs be metabolized?

a. Peroxisome
b. Nucleus
c. Mitochondria
d. Lysosome

A

c. Mitochondria

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24
Q

Von Gierke disease is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by a deficiency in the enzyme Glucose-6-phosphatase. Which of the following would most likely be observed in an individual with Von Gierke disease?

a. Decreased glucose tolerance
b. Increased glycogen in liver
c. Decreased post-meal glycolysis
d. Increased gluconeogenesis

A

b. Increased glycogen in liver

25
Q

Which of the following colours would be expected after exposing a significantly conjugated molecule to violet light?

a. Yellow light
b. White light
c. Violet light
d. No light

A

a. Yellow light

26
Q

Which of the following best describes the heat capacity of a gas?

a. The amount of energy needed to change the temperature of a gas
b. The amount of force needed to change the pressure of a gas
c. The amount of volume needed to store a gas
d. The amount of mass per unit energy needed to raise the internal energy of a gas

A

a. The amount of energy needed to change the temperature of a gas

27
Q

If R denotes the gas constant for a monoatomic gas, then which of the following would give the value for Boltzmann’s constant, k?

a. R/A
b. RT/AP
c. R/AP
d. RA/P

A

a. R/A

28
Q

If k denotes Boltzmann’s constant, then which of the following expressions gives the average kinetic energy of each molecule in a gas at an absolute temperature T?

a. 1/2 kT
b. kT
c. 3/2 kT
d. kT^2

A

c. 3/2 kT

29
Q

Gas A has a molar mass of 2 g/mol, and gas B has a molar mass of 32 g/mol. If RA denotes the rate of effusion of gas A, and RB the rate of effusion of gas B, what is the ratio RA/RB?

a. 8
b. 4
c. 1/4
d. 1/16

A

b. 4

30
Q

A block of mass m is sitting motionless on a plane with an incline of theta, a coefficient of static friction us, and a coefficient of kinetic friction uk. Which of the following will occur once the plane is elevated on one side, increasing theta?

a. The maximum force caused by static friction will increase
b. The coefficient of static friction us will decrease
c. The maximum force caused by static friction will decrease
d. The coefficient of kinetic friction uk will decrease

A

c. The maximum force caused by static friction will decrease

31
Q

Which of the following compounds is LEAST likely to feature multiple conformational isomers?

a. CF2CH2
b. C4H10
c. C6H6
d. CH2FCH2F

A

a. CF2CH2

Has double bond

32
Q

Which isomers do not exhibit any changes in bond structure?

a. Constitutional isomers
b. Conformational isomers
c. Enantiomers
d. Cis/trans isomers

A

b. Conformational isomers

33
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding a rider in a roller coaster cart moving with a constant speed through a loop?

a. There are two forces acting on the rider, but neither does any work on the rider
b. Gravity is the only force doing work on the rider
c. The rider is accelerating
d. The sum of all the forces acting on the rider is zero

A

c. The rider is accelerating

34
Q

A new drug is developed which selectively cleaves covalent bonds between two sulfur atoms of non-adjacent amino acids in a polypeptide chain. Which level of protein structure in affected molecules would be most directly affected by the drug?

a. Tertiary structure
b. Primary structure
c. Quaternary structure
d. Secondary structure

A

a. Tertiary structure

35
Q

What relative change in protein concentrations would be the most direct result of a disease which halts the function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?

a. Decreased concentrations of extracellular proteins
b. Increased concentrations of intracellular proteins
c. Decreased concentrations of intracellular proteins
d. Increased concentrations of extracellular proteins

A

a. Decreased concentrations of extracellular proteins

36
Q

A gold crown recently acquired is suspected to be brass covered in gold. The crown weighs 25.0 N in air and has an apparent weight of 22.5 N in fresh water. Based on these results, which of the following conclusions is correct? (pgold = 19,300 kg/m^3, pbrass = 8300-8700 kg/m^3)

a. It is likely that the crown is made of brass covered in gold
b. It is likely that the crown is made of gold only
c. It is likely that the crown is made of brass only
d. It is likely that the crown is made of half brass and half gold

A

a. It is likely that the crown is made of brass covered in gold

Find buoyant force
Find volume of crown
Find mass of crown
Find density

37
Q

According to your understanding of Bernoulli’s principle and continuity equation, which of the following statements accurately describes the phenomenon of vascular flutter which occurs when an artery becomes constricted due to the accumulated plaque in its inner walls?

a. Constriction in the blood vessel causes the pressure to build up right at the narrowing
b. The constriction will cause the blood to travel faster and the extra blood will create pressure after the narrowing
c. Constriction in the blood vessel causes backup and the pressure to build before the narrowing
d. The constriction causes the pressure to drop and the vessel to collapse

A

d. The constriction causes the pressure to drop and the vessel to collapse

38
Q

A tank with height y is filled with water to the top and is placed at a height z above the ground. Currently the water level is 3.0 m above the ground. At the bottom of the tank, there is a hole where the water can flow out when needed. Which of the following would increase the flow rate?

a. Decrease the size of the hole to increase the velocity out of the hole
b. Increase y and z without adding additional water
c. Increase z
d. Increase the size of the hole

A

d. Increase the size of the hole

39
Q

Gases found in the environment are most likely to exhibit properties similar to that of ideal gases under conditions of:

a. low temperatures and high pressures
b. high temperatures and high pressures
c. high temperatures and low pressures
d. low temperatures and low pressures

A

c. high temperatures and low pressures

40
Q

Which of the following molecules has a bond angle of 109.5?

a. NO3-
b. NH3
c. H2O
d. SO4 2-

A

d. SO4 2-

41
Q

The forces between molecules of CO2 are most likely which of the following?

a. London dispersion only
b. Dipole-dipole and London dispersion only
c. London dispersion and hydrogen bonding only
d. Dipole-dipole, London dispersion, and hydrogen bonding

A

a. London dispersion only

42
Q

Which of the following compounds is the most acidic?

a. butane
b. butanal
c. 1-butanone
d. 2-butanone

A

b. butanal

43
Q

In a particular circuit, a battery is at 5 V, and there are two resistors in parallel. Which of the following is true regarding the resistors?

a. Each has a voltage drop of 2.5 V
b. Each has a voltage drop of 5 V
c. Their voltage drops sum to 5 V, but are not necessarily 2.5 V
d. Their voltage drops don’t necessarily sum to 5 V

A

b. Each has a voltage drop of 5 V

44
Q

In a particular circuit, a battery is at 5 V, and there are two resistors with equal resistance in series. Which of the following is true regarding the resistors?

a. Each has a voltage drop of 2.5
b. Each has a voltage drop of 5
c. Their voltage drops sum to 5, but are not necessarily 2.5
d. Their voltage drops don’t necessarily sum to 5

A

a. Each has a voltage drop of 2.5 V

45
Q

A convex lens has a focal length of 10 cm. An image would be formed 20 cm from the lens by an object with what object distance?

a. 5 cm
b. 10 cm
c. 20 cm
d. 40 cm

A

c. 20 cm

46
Q

How can a mixture of L and D enantiomers be separated from one another?

a. Recrystallization
b. Reaction with an enzyme and distillation
c. Distillation only
d. Thin-layer chromatography

A

b. Reaction with an enzyme and distillation

47
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the hydrogen atom in the Bohr model is false?

a. The energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom depends on the value of the principal quantum number
b. The differences between successive energy levels becomes smaller as the principal quantum number increases
c. The greater the separation in energy levels, the greater the energy and the greater the wavelength
d. The Lyman series of lines in the ultraviolet region results from transitions to the n = 1 level

A

c. The greater the separation in energy levels, the greater the energy and the greater the wavelength

48
Q

The maximum number of electrons that may occupy the third energy level is:

a. 8
b. 10
c. 18
d. 32

A

c. 18

49
Q

The maximum number of orbitals in the fourth energy level is:

a. 4
b. 9
c. 16
d. 25

A

c. 16

50
Q

Which of the following statements regarding d orbitals is false?

a. There are five types of d orbitals
b. Electrons enter the 4s sublevel before the 3d sublevel
c. They are associated with transition elements
d. d orbitals are filled before p orbitals in the same principal energy level

A

d. d orbitals are filled before p orbitals in the same principal energy level

51
Q

Which of the following correctly represents the correct order of filling orbitals?

a. 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 3d, 4s, 4p
b. 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d, 4p
c. 4p, 4s, 3d, 3p, 3s, 2p, 2s, 1s
d. 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 3d, 4p, 4f

A

b. 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d, 4p

52
Q

Which of the following regarding the photoelectric effect is false?

a. Electrons are ejected when they move from a lower energy level to a higher energy level
b. Atoms eject electrons if struck by photons of light with sufficient energy
c. Light has particle-like properties that explains the properties of the photoelectric effect
d. The kinetic energy of ejected electrons depends on the intensity of incident radiation

A

d. The kinetic energy of ejected electrons depends on the intensity of incident radiation

False - depends on frequency of incident radiation

53
Q

Which of the following statements is true about diamagnetic materials?

a. A compound with twelve diamagnetic electrons and one paramagnetic electron is strongly diamagnetic and only weakly paramagnetic
b. Diamagnetic materials form internal, induced magnetic fields in the same direction as that of an external magnetic field, while paramagnetic materials form a field opposite that of the external magnetic field
c. Diamagnetic materials such as the transition metal gadolinium are particularly useful as a contrasting agent in diagnostic procedures such as MRI
d. Diamagnetism is a property that appears in all materials, but in paramagnetic and ferromagnetic substances, the diamagnetic effect is overwhelmed by some other form of magnetism

A

d. Diamagnetism is a property that appears in all materials, but in paramagnetic and ferromagnetic substances, the diamagnetic effect is overwhelmed by some other form of magnetism

54
Q

Which of the following is NOT a reason that a thermodynamically favourable reaction would fail to occur?

a. Steric hindrance between reacting molecules
b. Orientation of reacting molecules
c. An accompanying large decrease in entropy
d. Large activation energy

A

c. An accompanying large decrease in entropy

55
Q

Which of the following is not equivalent to the SI unit for magnetic field strength?

a. (lb x s)/(m x C)
b. (N x s)/(m x C)
c. (J x s)/(m^2 x C)
d. (kg x s)/(m x C)

A

d. (kg x s)/(m x C)

56
Q

Which of the following is NOT true regarding paramagnetic materials?

a. They are made of unpaired electrons
b. The atoms have a net magnetic dipole
c. Paramagnetic materials on their own typically create no net magnetic field
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

57
Q

An electron is to the right of a proton. Both are travelling parallel to one another, up your screen. Considering the magnetic field produced by the electron that is acting on the proton, which of the following is true?

a. It is pointing out of the page
b. It is pointing into the page
c. It is pointing left to right
d. It is pointing right to left

A

b. It is pointing into the page

58
Q

Which of the following is true regarding ferromagnetic materials?

a. They become less strongly magnetized than paramagnetic materials
b. Their atoms have a net magnetic dipole
c. Ferromagnetic materials on their own typically create a net magnetic field
d. Both B and C

A

b. Their atoms have a net magnetic dipole

59
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describes the difference between galvanic and electrolytic cells?

a. The anode is the negative terminal for a Galvanic cell because the anode is the source of the electrons where oxidation occurs
b. The flow of electrons goes from the anode to the cathode for galvanic cells
c. Oxidation occurs at the negative terminal, and reduction occurs at the positive terminal for an electrolytic cell
d. Electrolytic cells have a positive EMF and positive G such that it requires an external battery source to drive electrons

A

a. The anode is the negative terminal for a Galvanic cell because the anode is the source of the electrons where oxidation occurs

MCAT! (10 decks)

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