chem Flashcards

1
Q

what trend is there in atomic radius as we move left to right across a period? why?

A

decreases

increased nuclear charge which pulls electrons closer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what trend is there in 1st ionisation energy as we move left to right across period three? why?

A

increases

increased nuclear charge means more energy needed to remove electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the chemical formulae of phosphorus, sulphur and chlorine

A

P4
S8
CL2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

as we move across period three why is the 1st ionisation energy of S lower than P despite an increase in nuclear charge

A

Sulphur has 2 of its 3p electron paired, while phosphorus does not. the paired electrons repel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what type of structure does phosphorus, sulphur and chlorine have

A

molecular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which element in period two, lithium to neon would have the highest 2nd ionisation energy

A

lithium
because the electron is being removed from the 1s sub shell which is closer to the nucleus and experiences less shielding so is harder to remove an electron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

why are 2nd ionisation energies greater than 1st ionisation energies?

A

takes more energy to remove an electron from a positive ion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

as we move across period 3 why is the 1st ionisation energy of Al lower than Mg despite an increase in nuclear charge?

A

electron being removed from higher energy sub-shell. 3s in Mg and 3p in Al

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what trend is there in melting and boiling point within period 3? why?

A

increases Na-Al as the charge of positive metal ions increases.
for the non metals strength of van der waals forced, governed by size of molecules mean S>P>Cl>Ar
Si has highest as its giant covalent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

write an equation for the first ionisation energy of E

A

E(g) -> E+(g) + e-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what type of structure does silicone have

A

macromolecular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

why does temp not increase while a substance is melting or boiling

A

the energy is absorbed as the bond weakens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what effects the strength of a permanent dipole-dipole force

A

the bigger the difference in electronegativity between a bonding pair the greater the diploe so the greater the force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

starting with the weakest, name the 3 types of intermolecular attraction

A

van der waals
permanent dipole-dipole
hydrogen bonding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what can we say about the polarity of bonds between different elements

A

they will be polar to different extents depending on the elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are giant covalent bond held together by

A

covalent bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what can we say about the polarity of bonds in elements

A

they are not polar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are molecular crystals held together by

A

intermolecular force hold molecules together covalent bonds hold the atoms within molecules together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is a dative covalent bond

A

a shared pair of electrons, where both have been supplied by one atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is meant by a polar bond

A

where the charge is not symmetrical, so one area is more positive and one area is more negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what causes permanent dipole-dipole forces

A

attraction between molecules with permanent dipoles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what causes a hydrogen bond

A

when hydrogen covalently bonds to N,O,F. the H can be shared with this or a lone pair of another electron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are ionic crystals held together by

A

electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the four types of crystal structures

A

ionic, metallic giant covalent and covalent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

where do we find van der waals and what effects its strength

A

found in all atoms and molecules. the more molecules the bigger the force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

how do we convert cm3 to dm3

A

divide by 1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

if we make a change to conc. temp. or pressure how will the equilibrium respond

A

it will move to reduce the disturbance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

why might a compromised temp be used

A

a high temp will decrease the % of product at equilibrium

a low temp will mean that equilibrium is reached to slowly to be economically viable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

other than yield why might a compromise pressure be used

A

cheaper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

why do haber process plants run at a higher temp and lower pressure that would produce the maximum conversion

A

high temp = faster

low pressure = less expensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

ammonia

A

NH3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is 80% of ammonia used to make

A

fertilisers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

define molecular mass

A

the average mass of a molecule compared to 1/12th the mass of an atom od C-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what equation links moles, conc, and volume

A

n=cxv/1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

define relative atomic mass

A

the average mass of an atom compared to 1/12th of the mass of C-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what effect does a catalyst have on the position of equilibrium

A

none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

write an ionic equation to summarise NaOH+HCL -> NaCL=H2O

A

H+(aq) + OH-(aq) -> H2O (l)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the difference between dynamic equilibrium and equilibrium

A

equilibrium means hat the conc. of reactants and products are unchanged, addition of the word dynamic means the reaction is still preceding while the situation exists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is methanol used for

A

motor fuel

starting material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is ethanol made from ethane used for

A

making cosmetics, drugs, inks, detergent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

give the chemical reaction for the hydration of ethane to form ethanol

A

C2h4 + h2o -> c2h5oh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is the equation for calculating % yield

A

(actual yield/ theoretical) x100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

how do you convert from empirical formula to molecular formula

A

work out mass of the empirical and molecular formula. divide empirical by molecular. multiply the number by each element in the empirical formula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is an equilibrium mixture

A

the mixture of chemicals found in a dynamic equlibrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the equation used to calculate % economy

A

molecular mass of desired product/sum of all molecular masses x100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is empirical formula

A

the simplest ratio of atoms of each elements in a compound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is a reversible reaction

A

a reaction which can proceed in either direction between reactants and products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

in the context of heterogeneous and homogeneous what is a phase

A

different physical state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what are the two catalysts what do they mean

A

homogeneous- same phase

heterogeneous- different phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

how do catalyst work

A

they provide an alternative route for the reaction, with a lower activation energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what effect do catalysts have on the position of equilibrium for reversible reactions

A

none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is the meaning of the term catalyst

A

something that alters the rate of a chemical reaction, but is not used up in the reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what does increasing the conc. increase the rate of reaction

A

makes collisions more likely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

why does temp have such a big impact on rate

A

temp increases the number of particles with energy above the activation energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

on a M-B distributions, where is the average energy in reletion to the most probable

A

right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

do most collisions between particles result in a chemical reaction why

A

no

they may not have enough energy or the wrong orientation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

five factors that effect rate reaction

A
temp
conc
pressure
surface area
catalyst
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is the catalyst in a catalytic converter in a honeycomb shape

A

to provide a much greater surface area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

define activation energy

A

minimum amount of energy to start a reaction and break bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

do any particles in a gas have 0 energy

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what are zeolites

A

minerals with a very open pore structures that ions or molecules can fit into. they are used as catalysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what does collision theory tell us

A

that reactions can only occur when collisions take place between particles that have enough energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what effect to catalyst have on enthalpy change for reactions

A

none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what does the prefix ‘di’ mean

A

two of them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what does the production of greenhouse gases contribute towards

A

global warming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

why do we crack hydrocarbons

A

to produce smaller molecules that are higher in demand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is empirical formula

A

the simplest whole number ratio in which atoms in a compound combine together

68
Q

what greenhouse gas, does burning fossil fuels release into the atomosphere

A

CO2

69
Q

what does a negative sigh infront of delta H mean

A

forward reaction is exothermic

70
Q

name a catalyst used in a catalytic converter

A

platinum or rhodium

71
Q

give the equation for the reaction of carbon monoxide with hydrogen to form methanol

A

CO + 2H2 -> CH3OH

72
Q

how do you convert concs. from gdm-3 to moldm-3

A

divide by molar mass

73
Q

what is meant by agravados constant

A

number of partials in a mole.

74
Q

how does fractional distillation work

A

crude oil is heated, it is hotter at the bottom and coolest at the top vapours pass up the tower through tray with bubbles caps. when they arrive at a tray that is sufficiently cool they condense into a liquid where they are piped off

75
Q

what are the 1st six prefixes of organic molecules

A
meth
eth
prop
but
pent
hex
76
Q

where do we collect shorter chain hydrocarbons from in a fractionating tower

A

near the top

77
Q

where we have more than one functional group, how do we decide which one to write first

A

functional groups go in alphabetical order

78
Q

what does cracking do to the c-c bonds in alkanes

A

breaks them

79
Q

what do we call a hydrocarbon with a =

A

alkene

80
Q

when writing out names of molecules, where do we put a hyphen

A

between names and numbers

81
Q

what problems might carbon produced by incomplete combustion have on health and the environment

A

asthma, damages lungs and global diming

82
Q

what do we call the thick residue that collects at the bottom of the fractioning tower

A

tar/ bitumen

83
Q

what is meant by displayed formula

A

a formula of a compound drawn out so that every carbon atom and every bond is shown

84
Q

what homologous series is petroleum mainly made of

A

alkanes

85
Q

what are the conditions and main products of thermal cracking

A

high temp
high pressure

high percentage of alkenes

86
Q

what issues are there with burning a fuel that contains sulfur

A

sulphur dioxide will be produced that causes acid rain

87
Q

what amount of energy do most particles have? how can we find this from a M-D distribution

A

an intermediate amount of energy at the peak of the curve

88
Q

what are functional group isomers

A

where isomers have different functional groups

89
Q

what are the 3 types of structural isomers

A

chain, position, functional group

90
Q

what are positional isomers

A

where the functional group in isomers is attached to the main chain at different points

91
Q

how is sulphur dioxide removed from flue gases

A

using CaO

this reacts with the SO2 to produce CaSO4 which is used as plaster

92
Q

where must a reaction be in order for a dynamic equilibrium to be reached

A

a closed system

93
Q

what can we say about the proportion of reactants and products at equilibrium

A

any ratio not 50;50

94
Q

how do we remove the pollutants produced by the internal combustion engine

A

using a catalytic converter

95
Q

when moving left to right across period 3, what exceptions are there for the trend in increasing 1st ionisation energy? why?

A

aluminium- electron removed by 3p

sulphur- two electrons in 3p so repulsion occurs

96
Q

what are alkanes

A

saturated hydrocarbons

97
Q

what two products are produced by the complete combustion of hydrocarbons

A

carbon dioxide and water

98
Q

what is meant by molar volume

A

1 mole of any gas takes up 24000 of space at room temp and pressure

99
Q

what is meant by homologous series

A

a set of organic compounds with the same functional group

100
Q

what is meant by functional group

A

an atom or group of atoms in an organic molecule which is responsible for the characteristic reactions of that molecule

101
Q

what is meant by structural formula

A

a way of writing out an organic formula in which bonds are not shown but each carbon atom is written separately with the atoms or groups attached to it.

102
Q

what is structural isomerism

A

where molecules have the same molecular formula, but a different structural formula

103
Q

what are the conditions and main products of catalytic cracking

A

slight pressure
high temp
zeolite catalyst

104
Q

what are chain isomers

A

where the hydrocarbon chain in isomers is arranged differently

105
Q

what products would we expect from the incomplete combustion of a hydrocarbon

A

carbon monoxide and water

106
Q

what is le chateliers principle

A

if a system in equilibrium is disturbed, the equilibrium moves in the direction that tends to reduce the disturbance

107
Q

in practice what conditions are used for producing methanol from carbon dioxide and hydrogen

A

500K

10,000kPa

108
Q

what is the equation for the Haber process

A

N2 + 3H2 2NH3

109
Q

what temp and pressure is used in most plants for the haber process

A

20,000kPa

670K

110
Q

what do we call the process of reactants sticking to the surface of a catalyst

A

adsorption

111
Q

which catalyst is used in the production of ethanol from ethene

A

phosphoric acid absorbed on silica

112
Q

in practice, what conditions are used to produce ethanol from ethene

A

570K

6500kPa

113
Q

what do we call the process of breaking away from the surface of a catalyst

A

desorption

114
Q

what type of structure does argon have

A

atomic

115
Q

what happens to the total area under a M-B distribution curve when the temp is changed

A

no change

116
Q

what causes Van Der Waals forces

A

caused by instantaneous dipoles. these occur because in any instant electrons are not spread evenly and more will be in one another.

117
Q

what do we call a hydrocarbon with a group 7 element attatched

A

halo- alkane

118
Q

what can we say about a reaction in dynamic equilibrium

A

in a closed system, the rate of the forward and reverse reactions are the same so conc. is same

119
Q

what are alkanes mainly used for

A

fuels

120
Q

what happens to the boiling point of alkanes as chain length increases

A

increases

121
Q

name 3 greenhouse gases

A

CO2
methane
water vapour

122
Q

in terms of electrons, what is oxidation and reduction

A

Oxidation is loss of electrons

Reduction is gain of electrons

123
Q

what does an oxidising agent do in terms of electrons

A

accept electrons

124
Q

what does a reducing agent do in terms of electrons

A

donate electrons

125
Q

what is the oxidation state of hydrogen

A

+1 except in metal hydrides where it is -1

126
Q

what is the oxidation state of Group 1

A

always +1

127
Q

what is the oxidation state of Group 2

A

always +2

128
Q

what is the oxidation state of Group 3

A

always +3

129
Q

In the thermite reaction Fe2O3 + Al -> Fe + AlsO3. what is oxidised and what is reduced

A

Fe is reduced from +3 to 0

Al is oxidised from 0 to +3

130
Q

what are the 3 nucleophiles used in nucleophilic substitution reaction

A

Hydroxide
Cyanide
Ammonia

131
Q

why is excess ammonia used in nucleophillic substitution reaction

A

to reduce the chance of the amine taking part in further substitution reactions

132
Q

what are elimination reactions

A

when haloalkanes can react with hydroxide ions in an alternative mechanism. instead of producing an alcohol we produce an alkene

133
Q

what happens if you react sodium/potassium hydroxide with a haloalkane

A

both nucleophillic substitution and elimination reactions.

134
Q

how do you favor an elimination reaction

A

> concentrated NaOH/KOH
ethanol as solvent
high temp

135
Q

how do you favor nucleophillic substitution reaction

A

> more dilute NaOH/ KOH
water as solvent
Low temp

136
Q

what do the hydroxide ions act as in elimination reactions

A

a base

137
Q

what do the hydroxide ions act as in nucleophillic substitution reactions

A

a nucleophile

138
Q

what is critical for E/Z isomerism to exist

A

A must not = B and C must not = D

139
Q

E isomerism

A

> trans

> opposite look like a Z

140
Q

Z isomerism

A

> cis

> next to look like a E

141
Q

what do electrophillic addition reactions happen with

A

> Halides eg HBr and HI
Bromine
H2SO4

142
Q

what is a reducing agent

A

electron donor

143
Q

what is an oxidising agent

A

electron acceptor

144
Q

give to features of a reaction at equilibrium

A

> rate of forward = rate of backwards

> net. conc is the same

145
Q

deduce what happens to the equilibrium when…

A

> the equilibrium will move to the (left/right)
because the (forward/backwards) reaction is …
to oppose the change (of…)

146
Q

What will happen to the equilibrium if the pressure is increased

A

move to the side with the fewest moles of gas

147
Q

what will happen to the equilibrium if the temp is increased

A

it moves to the side that is endothermic

148
Q

what will happen to the equilibrium if a catalyst is added

A

nothing

149
Q

how do you work out half- equations

A

FEW-H~

150
Q

what are the 3 stages of free radical substitution reactions

A

1] initiation
2] propagation
3] termination

151
Q

Initiation

A

UV light causes homolytic fission and one elctron goes to each atom

152
Q

what is a free radicals properties

A

very reactive

high energy

153
Q

propagation

A

Cl* + CH4 -> CH3* +HCL
or
CH3* + Cl2 -> CH3Cl + Cl*
> if you start with a * you end with an *

154
Q

Termination

A
Cl* +Cl* -> Cl2
or
CH3* + Cl* ->CH3Cl
or
CH3* + CH3* -> CH3CH3
155
Q

Ozone

A

O3

156
Q

what does the Ozone exist in

A

a natural equilibrium with O2

157
Q

Why are CFC’s bad

A

they form Cl free radicals when exposed to UV in the upper atmosphere
> CFCl3 -> Cl* + CFCl2
these free radicals react with the Ozone

158
Q

what are the two propagation steps in the CFC reaction with the ozone

A

1] O3 + Cl* -> ClO* + O2

2] ClO* + O3 -> 2O2 + Cl*

159
Q

what is the overall reaction for the CFC reaction with the ozone

A

2O3 -> 3O2

160
Q

what can we say the Cl* does to the ozone layer

A

catalyses the conversion of ozone into O2

161
Q

primary alcohols

A

1 C bond

O-H at the end

162
Q

secondary alcohols

A

2 C bonds

O-H at chain

163
Q

tertiary alcohols

A

3 c bonds

O-H at branch

164
Q

primary alcohols are oxidised to…

A

aldehydes (CH2C=OH + H2O)

165
Q

secondary alcohols are oxidised to…

A

ketones (CH3C=OCH3 + H2O)

166
Q

an Aldehyde is oxidised to…

A

a carboxillic acid

167
Q

what can we say about carboxillic acids and Ketones

A

they do not easily oxidise further because it would require a C-C bond to break rather than a H-C bond