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Sandwiches For Me > Cheese Sandwiches > Flashcards

Cheese Sandwiches Flashcards

1
Q

Trees which increase in girth by growing outward and have distinctive consecutive rings are broadly classified as:

a) Confers
b) Exogenous
c) Deciduous
d) Endogenous

A

Exogenous

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2
Q

Following a subsoil site exploration, who translates the data and recommends the most suitable remediation technique?

a) The Geotechnical Engineer
b) The Structural Engineer
c) The Architect / Designer
d) The Main Contractor
e) Any Of The Above

A

The Geotechnical Engineer

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3
Q

With Regard To Making Shallow Excavations In Weak Granular Soils, Which Of The Following Pair of Systems Would Be Suitable To Use

a) Open Boarded Timbering And Trench Sheets
b) Open Boarded Timbering And Close Boarded Timbering
c) Trench Sheets And Closed Boarded Timbering
d) All Of The Above Combinations

A

Trench Sheets And Closed Boarded Timbering

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4
Q

During The Site Investigation Process, Which Of The Following Stages Is Best Utilised For Understanding The Characteristics Of The Underlying Strata On Site

a) Sub-Soil Survey
b) Desk Top Survey
c) Walkover Survey
d) All Of The Above

A

Sub-Soil Survery

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5
Q

Which Of The Following Is Not True In Relation To Cohesive Characteristics Of Soils

a) Soils Whose Particles Are Often 2mm Or Smaller With The Largest Tendency To Stick Together
b) Soils Whose Particles Are Often Greater Than 5mm With The Largest Tendency To Stick Together
c) Soils Whose Particles Have The Largest Tendency To Stick Together Under Capillary Action
d) Soils Whose Particles Have The Largest Tendency To Stick Together And Produce A Lump That Retains Shape

A

Soils Whose Particles Are Often Greater Than 5mm With The Largest Tendency To Stick Together

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6
Q

In Figure 1 The Element Shown As 1 Is Always Under:

a) Tension And Responds In Compression
b) Compression And Responds In Tension
c) Tension And Acts In Tension
d) Compression And Acts In Compression

A

Compression And Responds In Tension

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7
Q

This member is often specified as 178 x 38 mm to retain the earth and is placed at several

transverse intervals. Which element in the Figure 1 best fits this description?

a) Element 1 and 2
b) Element 4 and 3
c) Element 3 and 5
d) Element 2 and 4

A

Element 3 and 5

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8
Q

In figure 1 with regard to the excavation support shown, element 2 is called:

a) Waling
b) Polling boards
c) Raking shore
d) Strut

A

polling boards

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9
Q

in figure 1, what is the name of the element identified as 3?

a) Waling
b) Noggin
c) Strut
d) Poiing board

A

Waling

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10
Q

The excavation support system shown in figure 1 is ideal for:

a) shallow trenches
b) deep trenches
c) both deep and shallow trenches
d) Hydrofraise conditions

A

shallow trenches

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11
Q

Which one of the following shows the correct method of calculating a PI ratio of soil

a) it is the resulting value of: [ PL - LL]
b) it is the resulting value of: [LL - PL]
c) it is the restilting value at: [LP + U]
d) it is the resulting value: [Pl - PL]

A

b) it is the resulting value of: [LL - PL]

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12
Q

Which of the following activities would data be collected which is LEAST associated with a Desk Top Survey?

a) Confirm the relative position of the site boundary
b) Undue changes in existing buildings due to ground settlement
c) identify general environmental factors and physical consideration
d) Proximity of existing services sewers and roads

A

Undue changes in existing buildings due to ground settlement

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13
Q

In order to increase the rectilinear alignment of a retaining wall system which of the following bracing systems is deployed specifically for this purpose?

a) Anchor Ties
b) Single Sided Raking Shores
c) Hydraulic Knee Ties
d) Capping Beams
e) All Of The Above

A

All of the above

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14
Q

In relation to figure 2, the depth of the step (s) should be specified so that

a) S <= T
b) S >= L
c) S = (L+2) / 2
d) S = 2(L+T)

A

S <= T

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15
Q

A plastic index value of a soil expresses:

a) Soil’s susceptibility to heaving
b) Soil’s susceptibility to shrinkage
c) Soil’s susceptibility to volume change
d) Soil’s susceptibility to settlement

A

Soil’s susceptibility to volume change

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16
Q

When undertaking deep excavations the H&S law expects you to have an individual with an automatic sensor. What is the purpose of the sensor?

a) Detecting the presence of carbon monoxide
b) Detecting the presence of radon
c) Detecting the presence of methane
d) Detecting the presence of any gases

A

Detecting the presence of any gases

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17
Q

Working within excavations, which one of the following would act as a good trigger for an evacuation call?

a) The sudden increase in the smell of gas
b) The sudden collapse of the sides
c) The sudden occurrence of cracks in the sides of the excavation
d) Any of the above

A

Any of the above

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18
Q

In figure 3, which of the following is the best representation of the element shown?:

a) Cold pitched roof
b) Warm flat roof
c) Warm pitched roof
d) Cold flat roof
e) None of the above

A

Cold Flat Roof

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19
Q

Roof trusses must be designed to be least exposed to wind loading. Which of one the following describes the most effective restraint method?

a) Truss rafters braced agaInst the gable waII
b) Truss rafters bIrd-mouthed Into wall plate
c) Truss rafter braced using noggins at wall plate level
d) All of the above

A

Truss rafters bIrd-mouthed Into wall plate

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20
Q

in the floor system shown in figure 4, the lateral restraint system shown as 2 is called:

a) SoIid bIocking
b) Herringbone strutting
c) Horizontal strutting
d) None of the above

A

Herringbone strutting

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21
Q

In the floor system shown in figure 4, the lateral restraint system shown as 4 is called:

a) Solid bIocking
b) Herringbone strutting
c) Horizontal strutting
d) None of the above

A

Solid Blocking

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22
Q

In the figure 5 which of the following is the best representation of the type of roof shown?:

a) Cold pitched roof
b) Warm pitched roof
c) Cold flat roof
d) None of the above

A

Warm Pitched Roof

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23
Q

In figure 5, element B can be identified as:

a) Counter batten
b) Purlin
c) Common joist
d) None of the above

A

None Of The Above

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24
Q

In figure 5, the roof type shown element A is called:

a) side interlocking slates
b) side interlocking pantiles
c) side interlocking tiles
d) side interlocking plain tiles

A

side interlocking tiles

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25
Q

In the roof shown in figure 5, the most accurate description of element C is:

a) High defusing roof felt
b) Low diffusing roofing felt
c) Moderate diffusing roofing felt
d) Moderate to high diffusing roofing felt

A

Low diffusing roofing felt

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26
Q

At gable end the straps are provided only when:

a) Half of the height from floor level to top of gable is greater than 16 times the wall width + 10mm
b) Half of the gable height and distance measured from floor level ls 16 times greater than the wall width + 10mm
c) The gable height is 16 times greater than the wall width + 10mm

d) Half the gable height is 16 times greater than the wall width + 10mm
wall width + 10mm

A

Half of the gable height and distance measured from floor level ls 16 times greater than the wall width + 10mm

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27
Q

The pressure experienced in excavations due to the earth is called

a) Hydrostat pressure
b) Hydration pressure
c) Hydrostatic pressure
d) Hydrofraise pressure

A

Hydrostatic pressure

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28
Q

Which of the following is correct:

a) A cohesive soil is associated with a high drainage run
b) A cohesive soil is associated with a low plasticity index
c) A non-cohesive soil is associated with a high plasticlty index
d) A non-cohesive soil is associated with a low drainage run
e) None of the above

A

None of the above

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29
Q

Which of the following is the most accurate statement in relation to the positioning of a damp
proof course dpc level in a building? The dpc should be-
a) Positioned up to 150mm above ground level
b) Positioned exactly 150mm above ground level
c) Positioned at minimum 150mm above ground level
d) Positioned 150mm and level with top level of internal floor
e) None of the above

A

Positioned at minimum 150mm above ground level

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30
Q

In relation to the window sill junction in figure 6, which of the following the best representation of the function of element is:

a) Cavity soak as a fire barrier
b) Cavity tray to shed any moisture away
c) Window moisture barrier
d) Breather membrane to stop ingress of moisture

A

Cavity tray to shed any moisture away

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31
Q

With regard to the roof shown in figure 7, which of the following is the best representation of the type shown?

a) Cold pitched roof
b) Warm pitched roof
c) Cold flat roof
d) None of the above

A

Cold pitched roof

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32
Q

With regard to the roof shown in figure 7, insulation
shown as 1 is best annotated as:

a) Inserted between tie beams at rafter level
b) Inserted between tie beams at ceiling level
c) Inserted between rafters
d) Inserted over rafters
e) None of the above

A

Inserted between tie beams at ceiling level

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33
Q

In relation to the roof shown in figure 7, element 2 is called

a) Roof hunger
b) Tie beam
c) Ceiling board
d) Collar

A

Tie Beam

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34
Q

The element identified as 3 in figure 7 is called:

a) Eaves beam
b) Cavity closer
c) Wall plate
d) Tilting fillet
e) Counter batten

A

Wall Plate

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35
Q

In any typical excavation, the gross pressure experienced by the which of the following:

a) The soil, air and moisture
b) The soil, air, moisture and equipmernt
c) The soil, air, moisture and gravity
d) The soil, air, moisture, personnel, equipment and gravity

A

The soil, air, moisture, personnel, equipment and gravity

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36
Q

In figure 8, the element 1 is called:

a) Breather membrane
b) Vapour check or VCL
c) Damp Proof Membrane
d) Damp Proof Course
e) None of the above

A

Vapour check or VCL

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37
Q

In figure 8, the element 2 can be described as

a) Edge Insulation
b) Perimeter Insulation
c) Upstand floor insulation
d) Any of the above

A

Any of the above

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38
Q

In figure 8, the element shown as 3 is also called?

a) Vertical DPC
b) Vertical DPM
c) Vapour Control layer
d) None of the above

A

Vapour Control Layer

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39
Q

In foundations, if the engineer’s concern is that the soil has high contaminated moisture then its not untypical to place a membrane directly after the hardcore. Which of the following would be the
BEST membrane placed at (4) if a zero tolerance to water migration is specified:

a) Bentonite Clay Sheet
b) Damp Proof Membrane
c) Damp Proof Course
d) Vapour Control Layer

A

Bentonite Clay Sheet

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40
Q

Which of the following is a not a deep trench excavation support system?:

a) Sheet piles
b) Contiguous piles
c) Secant piles
d) Diaphragm walls
e) Drag Box

A

Drag Box

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41
Q

Which of the following is an issue that client’s representatives have to establish as part of a site
investigation?:

a) Rights of way through a development
b) Rights of support may be necessary to adjoining buildings
c) Rights of tenants
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

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42
Q

Which of the following systems is not ideal as a hydrofraise system?:

a) Secant piles
b) Contiguous piles
c) Sheet piles
d) Diaphragm walls

A

Contiguous piles

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43
Q

In relation to the foundation in figure 9 building regs dictate that if the width of the wall is 300mm then the max of H (the drap) should b

a) 1200mm
b) 1350mm
c) 1400mm
d) 1450mm

A

H = 4T

1200mm

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44
Q

In residential construction, when positioning trusses on a building roof truss movement must be kept to a minimum. The movement is also referred to as:

A. Lateral sway
B. Lateral shear
C. Lateral shrinkage
D. All of the above

A

Lateral sway

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45
Q

The type of roof bracing allowed for at tie beam or ceiling level is called:

A. Diagonal bracing
B. Chevron bracing
C. Longitudinal bracing
D. None of the above

A

Longitudinal Bracing

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46
Q

In residential construction, roof trusses are susceptible to deformation. The resulting failure largely referred to as:

A. Lateral deformation
B. Lateral bending
C. Lateral failure
D All of the above

A

All of the above

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47
Q

Following a site investigation, it is established a tree has a TPO.
The TPO stands for:

a) Tree Preserved Ordinance
b) Trees Preservation Orders
c) Tree Preservation Ordinance
d) Tree Preservation Order

A

Tree Preservation Order

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48
Q

The specialist individual who has to devise the most appropriate structural behaviour of a building once it becomes obvious that there is need to improve the lateral restraint behaviour is:

a) The Structural engineer
b) The Geotechnical engineer
c) The Architect/designe
d) The Main contractor

A

The Structural engineer

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49
Q

Roof trusses must be designed to be least exposed to wind loading. Which of the following defines the most effective restraint method?:

A. Trusses should be braced together by means of brates
B. Trusses should be fixed to wall plate using truss clips
C. Trusses should be fixed to a wall plate
D. Trusses should be braced using straps on noggins
E. All of the above

A

All of the above

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50
Q

Which one of the following defines the function of mortar in brickwork?:

A. Acts as a cushion to spread vertical loads evenly down into brickwork
B. Allows adjustment of position of each brick unit to line, level and plumb, as it is laid
C. Binds the units so they resist lateral pressure thus increased stability
D. Enables units to be joined to maximize the spread of the imposed load at 45 degree angle
E. All of the above

A

All of the above

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51
Q

Refer to figure 8:

which of the following is the correct annotation about how the external leaf to the foundation is supported. "the external leaf to be engineered
facing brick class A F2, 52 and finished"

A. Sitting on a toe beam
B. sitting on a downstand beam
C. sitting on the edge beam
D. any of the above.

A

Any of the above

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52
Q

Refer to figure 8:

building-regulations suggest that the foundation detail shown should sit on what ground:

A. where depth of strata susceptible to heaving and shrinkage is removed and replaced up to a maximum-of 0.75m

B. where depth of strata susceptible to heaving and shrinkage is removed and replaced up to a maximum-of 1.25m

C. where depth of strata susceptible to heaving and shrinkage is removed and replaced up to a maximum-of 2.0m

D. None of the above

A

where depth of strata susceptible to heaving and shrinkage is removed and replaced up to a maximum-of 1.25m

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53
Q

Refer to figure 8:
The projection shown as 5 is called?

A. Edge Beam
B. Toe beam
C. Downstand
D. Footing
E. All of the above
A

Not marked on sheet but maybe toe beam

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54
Q

Refer to figure 10:
Joint 1 is called:

a) Half Lap Joint
b) Keyed in joint
c) Bird’s mouth joint
d) Dovetail Joint

A

Bird’s mouth joint

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55
Q

Refer to figure 10:
The roof element 2 is called:

a) Principal rafter
b) Hip rafter
c) Ridge rafter
d) Ridge board

A

Principal Rafter

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56
Q

Refer to figure 10:
The roof elerment 3 is called:

a) Batten
b) Counter batten
c) Fillet
d) Eaves Piece

A

Counter batten

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57
Q

Which of the following soils will be characterised by high permeability?

a) Noncohesive soils
b) Cohesive soils
c) Cohesive and non cohesive
d) All of the above

A

Noncohesive soils

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58
Q

Which of the following soils will be characterised by low permeability

a) Silt
b) Sand
c) Gravel
d) Clay
e) All of the abov

A

Clay

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59
Q

The moisture content at which the soil loses its properties by being highly
saturated is called:

a) Liquid Limit
b) Plastic Limit
c) Semi-liquid limit
d) Semi Plastic limit

A

Liquid Limit

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60
Q

The type of load which-varies.according to whether the building is expose according to whether the building is exposed or sheltered is called:

A Snow load
B. Seismic load
C. Gravity. load
D. Wind load

A

Wind Load

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61
Q

Which of the following soils will be characterised by high permeability?

a) Noncohesive soils
b) Cohesive soils
e) Cohesive and non cohesive
d) All of the above

A

Noncohesive soils

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62
Q

The type of movement which could sometimes be seen in misalignment of
windows and doors and the mis-positioning of invert levels for underground services is:

A. Settlement
B. Heave
C Collapse
D. Tilt settlement

A

Collapse

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63
Q

The objective of providing straps at various positions the roof is to:

a) Assist with trimming raftersat roof level
b) Minimise deformation in the trusses
c) Minimise lateral movement in the trusses
d) Minimise the effect of gravity on the trusses

A

Minimise lateral movement in the trusses

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64
Q

In cement the oxide responsible for Improving concrete resitsance to
rusting is:

a) Dicalclum Silicate
b) Tricalcium Silicate
c) Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
d) Tricalcium Aluminate

A

c) Tetracalcium aluminoferrite

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65
Q

These solls bear very small or microscopic pores that are
tiny that an efficient drainage run is difficult to achieve Inpa
this explains why these low
the following solls is characterised by the above descriptlon?

a) Noncohesive soils
b) Cohesive soils
c) Cohesive and non cohesive
d) All of the above

A

Cohesive soils

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66
Q

Which of the following is the most accurate representation of the possible combination of loads which will influence the design of buildings, more so high-rise residential flats?

A. Wind, Gravity and Dead loads
B. Live, Gravity and Seismic loads
C. Dead, Live and Gravity loads
D. Wind, Gravity and Seismic loads
E. Gravity, Seismic and Dead loads
A

Wind, Gravity and Seismic loads

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67
Q

Given the detail-shown in figure 11, which elements can be said to be acting as thermal bridges:

A. The internal walls and the concrete-floor
B. The wall ties and the external wall
C. The internal-wall and the wall-ties
D. The concrete floor, internal walls and wall ties

A

The concrete floor, internal walls and wall ties

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68
Q

What is the recommended typical vertical height for the wall-ties in an-external cavity-wall?

A. 500mm
B. 550mm
C. 450mm
D. 750mm

A

450mm

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69
Q

What is the minimum depth of embedment for the wall tie in a cavity wall:

a) 45mm
b) 50mm
c) 80mm
d) 100mm

A

50 mm

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70
Q

The type of movement In the structure caused by the
oss of ground support belo the foundation largely due to
expansion in the void ratio of the founding materials is:

a) Settlement
b) Heave
c) Differential settlement
d) TIt settlement

A

Heave

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71
Q

What are the initials of the UK trade assoclation who do
most of the research work associated wlth timber?

A. TRADE
B. TRADA
C. TRODA
D. TREDA

A

TRADA

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72
Q

The type of movement in the structure caused by the
loss of ground support below the foundation largely due to
shrinkage in the void ratio of the founding materials is called:

a) Settlement
b) Heave
c) Collapse
d) Tilt Settlement

A

Settlement

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73
Q

Which of the following soils will be characterised by low
permeability

a) Silt
b Sand
c) Gravel
d) Clay
e) All of the above
A

Clay

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74
Q

Figure 12 shows an application used in thin mortar jointing when laying blockwork. The name of the application is

a) Bed joint movement control wiremesh
b) Crack control wire mesh
c) Movement control steel mesh
d) Bed joint moverment.cuntrul inest
e) All of the above

A

All of the above

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75
Q

The moisture content at which the soil molecules lose their natural tendency to bind together and further disintegrate on becoming too dry is called:

a) Liquid limit
b) Plastic Limit
c) Semi-liquid limit
d) Semi Plastic limit

A

Plastic limit

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76
Q

The element shown as 1 in figure 13 can also be refered to?:

a) Galvanized restraint strap
b) Austenitic steel strap
c) Tension strap
d) Galvanized steel strap
e) All of the above

A

All of the above

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77
Q

The correct fixing of the strap as per
buildings regs

a) Strapped behind wall and across 4 joists
b) Strapped behind wall and across 3 joists
c) Strapped behind external wall and over 2 joints
d) Strapped behind the wall and a number of joists

A

Strapped behind wall and across 3 joists

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78
Q

Cement particles in normal OPC tend to cling to each other until a superplasticiser is added. This tendency to stick Together is also called:

a) Flocculation
b) Deflocculation
c) Sedimentation
d) Segregation

A

Flocculation

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79
Q

When designing buildings, whose responsibility is it toco calculate and ascertain the structural and load carying capability of building elements

a) Designer or architect
b) Structural Engineer
c) Principal contractor
d) Quantity Surveyor

A

Structural Engineer

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80
Q

With regard to structural etements acting as separating elements, which of the following statements is true?:

a) Any separating construction element has to be robust to limit franking sound
b) Any separating element has to be robust to limit impact noise
c) Any separating element-has. to be constructedto-limit airborne sound
d) all of the above

A

All of the above

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81
Q

Which one of the following defines the
element A in the external wall in figure 14?

A Rigid mineral wool insulation slabs
B. Semi-rigid mineral wool insulation slabs
C. Flexible mineral insulation slabs
D. Fair faced mineral wool insulation slabs
E. All of the above

A

Semi-rigid mineral wool insulation slabs

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82
Q

Which of the following is the best specification to the cavity wall insulation in figure 14?

A. Fully filled fixed mineral slabs between wall ties at standard vertical spacings

B. Fully filled mineral slabs fixed between standard ties 450mm high x 900mm wide

C. Fully-filled mineral slabs fixed between-ties 450mm x 900mm standard heights

D. Fully filled mineral slabs fixed between ties 450mm standard heights x 900mm wide

A

Fully filled mineral slabs fixed between ties 450mm standard heights x 900mm wide

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83
Q

The type of roof shown in Fig is best described as:

a) Couple roof
b) Double couple roof
c) Couple collar roof
d) Collar roof

A

Collar Roof

84
Q

In Figure 16 the roof member shown as A is known as:

a) Common spar
b) Tie beam
c) Ceiling binder
d) Ridge rafter

A

Common Spar

85
Q

Roof element B in figure 16 is positioned from ceiling level defined as height C. This height is often

a) One third of A
b) One third of B
c) One third of C
d) One third of D

A

One third of D

86
Q

In Fig the roof element B in figure 16 is known as

a) Common spar
b) Tie beam
c) Ceiling binder
d) Collar

A

Collar

87
Q

The reference to D in figure 16 of a roof is also called

a) King post
b) Strut
c) Rise
d) Span

A

Rise

88
Q

Which of the following typifies a combination of methods
used to prepare concrete so it gains its full gain easily?

A. Hand vibration and Mechanical vibration
B. Designed water content and Cement ratio
C. Choosing well graded coarse aggregates and fine aggregates
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

89
Q

Which of the following typify methods used to handle concrete
on site so its full compaction can be achleved easly?

A. Hand vibration and Mechanicat vibration of the mix
B. Adding water content to the mix
C. Choosing well graded coorse aggregates and fine aggregates
D. All ot the above

A

Hand vibration and Mechanicat vibration of the mix

90
Q

Ordinary cement tends to have air trapped in the mix. This air is called?

A. Trapped air
B. Entrapped air
C. Encased air
D. Entrapping air

A

Entrapped air

91
Q

In some design mix, the decision to add air to concrete
is aimed at reducing the size and scale of the air already
present in the concrete mix. The resulting concrete is called?

a) Air entrained concrete
b) Air encased concrete
c) Air entrapped concrete
d) Air entrapping concrete

A

Air entrained concrete

92
Q

The wall element in figure 17 is shown for a:

A. Steel Framed
B. Solid wall
C. Timber framed
D. Cavity wall

A

Timber Framed

93
Q

The element A in figure 17 is called

A. Breather Membrane
B. Vapour control layer
C. Vertical damp proof
D. Interstitial membrane

A

Vapour control layer

94
Q

Element B in figure 17 is called

a) 2 layers of breather membrane
b) 2 layers of vapour control layer
c) 2 layers of plasterboard
d) 2 layers of interstitial membrane

A

c) 2 layers of plasterboard

95
Q

The element C in figure 17 is called:

a) Weather and Boil Proof board
b) Oriented Strand Boarcd
Orliented Strand Board
d) Orientated Strand Board

A

Orientated Strand Board

96
Q

Which of the following is essential to reducing the amount of entrapped air in a freshly laid concrete floor

A. Effective vibration
B. Adequate compaction
C. Not pumping concrete from height
D. Choosing the correct water cement ratio
E. All of the above
A

All of the above

97
Q

The concrete that flows and finds its own level without compacting is also known as:

a) Self-compacting concrete
b) Self-levelling concrete
c) Self-consolidating concrete
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

98
Q

Which of the following is not true about Self compacting concrete:

a) It has a high viscosity
b) It has a low viscosity
c) It has improved flow around rebar
d) It has improved flow aroun’irregular formwork
e) It has less air void ratio

A

It has a high viscosity

99
Q

Which of the following statements is not true about a block ratio test who’s derived value is 1. This would signify that the concrete is:

a) Likely to have blisters
b) Likely to develop honey combs
c) Likely to have low viscosity
d) Likely to deflocculate
e) All of the above

A

Likely to have low viscosity

100
Q

In cold temperate climates, the source of most deterioration in concrete is due to water ingress and a low water cement ratio reduces the porosity of concrete because:

a) Frozen water increase by 9% of its volume when it thaws
b) Frozen-water increase by 5% of its volume when it thaws
c) Frozen-water expands-by.9% of its volume when it freezes
d) Frozen water expands by 5% of its volume when it freezes

A

Frozen water expands by 5% of its volume when it freezes

101
Q

The element D in figure 17 is called:

a) Breather membrane
b) Vapour control layer
c) Vertical damp prodof
d) Interstitial membrane

A

Breather membrane

102
Q

The wall system in figure 17 is designed as:

a) A full filled cavity
b )A half filled cavity
c) An Open cavity
d) An interstitial cavity

A

Open cavity

103
Q

The element E in figure 17 is called

a) timber wall tie
b) Timber cranked tie
c) Timber warped tie
d) Austenitic Timber cranked tie

A

Austenitic Timber cranked tie

104
Q

In the system shown in figure 17, at least how many wall ties are recommended here wind load is about 25m/s?

a) 4 wall ties
b) 5 wall ties
c) 7 wall ties
d) 9 wall ties

A

4 wall ties

105
Q

The detail in figure 18 can best be described as:

a) timber wall framing
b) Timber wall junction with
c) Timber wall junction of
d) Timber wall junction of

A

Timber wall junction of

106
Q

Identify element A in figure 18:

a) Breather membrane
b) Oriented Strand Board
c) External facing brick
d) Cavity fire sock

A

Breather membrane

107
Q

Identify element B in figure 18:

a) External timber boarding
b) Oriented Strand Board
c) External facing brick
d) Cavity fire sock

A

External facing brick

108
Q

Identify element C in figure 18:

a) Wire reinforced mineral wool closer
b) Mineral wire cavity closer
c) Earthwool cavity barrier
d) Party wall cavity stop sock
e) All of the above

A

All of the above

109
Q

Identify element D in figure 18:

a) Timber wall tie
b) Cranked wall tie
c) External facing brick
d) Cavity fire sock

A

Cranked wall tie

110
Q 
Figure 19 shows key structural elements of a building. Which two of the following are the most accurate representation of the
function of element G:

a) Cavity closer between separate storeys
b) Cavity closer after every storey
c) Cavity closer between storeys of same occupancies
d) Cavity closer between storeys of separate occupancies

A

a) Cavity closer between separate storeys

d) Cavity closer between storeys of separate occupancies

111
Q

With reference to the detail in figure 19 , which one of the following is the most accurate account of the function of element D:

A. If A is a typical upper floor then D elements are for same occupancies
B. If A is a party floor then D elements are for separate occupancies
C. If A is party floor then D elements are for the same occupancies
D. If A is a typical upper floor then D elements are for the separate occupancies

A

B If A is a party floor then D elements are for separate occupancies

112
Q

The detall in figure 20 shows several elements at intersection. Which two of
the following are an accurate representation of their purpose?

A. Junction with an external wall and a party wall between occupancies
B. Junction with an external wall and a separating wall within a dwelling
C. Junction with an external wall and a party wall-within a-dwelling
D. Junction with external wall and a separating-wall between dwellings

A

A. Junction with an external wall and a party wall between occupancies
D. Junction with external wall and a separating-wall between dwellings

113
Q

Which of the following provides the correct spacing of wall ties in a
typical masonry wall?

a) Inserted 750 mm horizontally and 375 mm vertically
b) Inserted 900 mm horizontally and 450 mm vertically
c) Inserted 600 mm horizontally and 400 mm vertically
d) Inserted 425 mm horizontally and 475 mm vertically

A

b) Inserted 900 mm horizontally and 450 mm vertically

114
Q

Dimensional change is typical in timber boarding finished in square
edged jointing. This can be minimized by specifying:

a) Tongued and grooved boarding
b) Tongue and grooved square edge boarding
c) Tongue and grooved V edge boarding
d) Any of the above

A

c) Tongue and grooved V edge boarding

115
Q

The Figure 21 shows the use of wall plate straps, which of the following statements is the most accurate and complete annotation for this roof
restraint method

a) The austenitic straps fixed every 2m, turned over the wall and fixing to engage the last full block and over the next 2 courses
b) The austenitic strap is fixed ensuring un-galvanised mild steel is nailed over 3 full courses
c) The top of the austenitic strap is turned every 2 m over the wall plate and the edge course and engage 2 courses
d) The austenitic strap should-be placed a minimum of 5m apart and engage

A

a) The austenitic straps fixed every 2m, turned over the wall and fixing to engage the last full block and over the next 2 courses

116
Q

In timber which pair of shakes begin by forming a cleft between annual rings?:

a) Heart and star shake
b) Cup and ring shake
c) Ring and Heart shake
d) Cup shake and wedge edge

A

b) Cup and ring shake

117
Q

The self-flowing of concrete is measured using an L- test as shown in Figure 22 Based on the Block Ratio (Br) test, which is given by the formula: Br = h2/h1

Using the dimensions shown in Fig 5 and taken after the self-levelling tests, the derived self-levelling ratio for the concrete can be said to be:

a) Br = 0.932
b) Br = 0.845
c) Br = 0.986
d) Br = 1.014

A

c) Br = 0.986

118
Q

In normal concrete the how much is the ultimate strength of concrete gained over 28 days:

a) 40 to 50%
b) 50 to 60%
c) 80 to 85%
d) 90% to 100%

A

c) 80 to 85%

119
Q

The typical radon level considered the lowest level found in any house in the UK?:

a) 30
b) 25
c) 20
d) 40

A

c) 20

120
Q

The type of floor shown In Figure 23 is also known as:

a) Jet-fix system
b) Jet-slab system
c) Jet-floor system
d) Jet-block system

A

c) Jet-floor system

121
Q

Which one of the following would not be fixed to a hip rafter?

a) Ridge ventilator
b) Hip tiles
c) Bonnet tiles
d) Hip-ventilator

A

a) Ridge ventilator

122
Q

In the case of an external wall, when grading facing bricks designated to
below DPC and in aggressive ground conditions, which of the following would be the most accurate specification?

a) F2, SO, Class A
b) F2, S2 Class A
d) F1, SO Class A
d) F2, S1 Class A

A

b) F2, S2 Class A

123
Q

Which of the following is true about the computation-of PI ratio of a soil

a) it is the resulting value of [PL - LL]
b) It is the resulting value of [LL - PL]
c) It is the resulting value of [LP + LI]
d) It is the resulting value of [PI - PL]

A

b) It is the resulting value of [LL - PL]

124
Q

In the figure 24 the log can-be-said to have suffered a defect called:

a) Heart shake
b) Star shake
c) Ring shake
d) Cup shake

A

d) Cup shake

125
Q

In the figure 25 the bonding of brick units with headers and stretchers in the same course is called?:

a) Stretcher bond
b) Flemish bond
c) English bond
d) Rat trap bond

A

b) Flemish bond

126
Q

With reference to bond-shown in figure 25 the wall can also be described as:

a) 1/2 brick thick
b) Double brick thick
c) 3/4 brick thick
d) 1 brick thick

A

d) 1 brick thick

127
Q

The galvanised mesh shown in figure 26 is also known as:

a) Crack control steel mesh
b) Crack restraint wire mesh
c) Movement control wire mesh
d) Bed Joint movement control mesh
e) All of the above

A

e) All of the above

128
Q

The concentric rings near the pitch are denser than those towards the circumference of a tree trunk because:

a) they contain dead cells
b) they are the most inactive cells of a tree trunk
c) they are mainly present in the heart wood area
d) they contain lignin
e) all the above.

A

e) all the above

129
Q

Generally admixtures are added to concrete to make it more resistance to sulfates as well as to improve its workability. Which of the following is an admixture?:

a) Air entraining admixture
b) Water entraining admixture
c) Pozzolans
d) Accelerating water-reducing
e) All of the above

A

e) All of the above

130
Q

The figure shows eaves strapping between a truss and a wall. The following questions relate to the respective elements shown in the figure:

In figure 27, part A is called:

a) Longitudinal steel strap
b) Galvanised twisted steel strap
c) Roof twisted truss clip
d) Wall restraining strap

A

b) Galvanised twisted steel strap

131
Q

The purpose of element B in figure 27 is to:

a) Tie the ridge and wall plate together
b) Prevent each truss from suffering lateral movemen
c) Anchor the wall plate to the wall
d) Secure the wall and trusses together

A

c) Anchor the wall plate to the wall

132
Q

The mechanism shown at the eaves (figure 27) can be summarised as:

a) Providing lateral restraint at rafter level
b) Providing lateral restraint at eaves level
c) Provide Iateral restraint at gable level
d) Provide lateral restraint at ceiling level

A

b) Providing lateral restraint at eaves level

133
Q

When specifying bricks for substratum known to contain soluble salts, which of the following is the best limit-grading to use?

a) S2 designation
b) S1 designation
c) S0 designation
d) None of the above

A

a) S2 designation

134
Q

Figure 28 shows a technique to allow for movement in a block wall. The tie shown is ideal for what type of jointing?

a) Thin mortar jointing
b) Traditional mortar jointing
c) Timber frame jointing
d) Steel frame jointing

A

a) Thin mortar jointing

135
Q

With reference to the figure 28. What is the typical thickness of the mortar joint system shown?:

a) 10 mm
b) 5 mm
c) 2 mm
d) 2 to 5 mm
e) None of the above

A

c) 2mm

136
Q

Your Uncle’s cold roof needs to be retrofitted. The proposal is to fill the loft with insulation between and over rafters. However, the existing roofing felt also has to be replaced with a modern membrane best suited for this change of use. What type of roofing felt would you recommend as the most appropriate?

a) LR type
b) HR type
c) RL type
d) RH type

A

b) HR type

137
Q

In figure 29, Part A is called?

a) Binder
b) Common raften
c) Roof beam
d) Purlin

A

d) Purlin

138
Q

In figure 29, element C is called

a) Ridge board
b) King post
c) Strut
d) Rafter

A

c) Strut

139
Q

In figure 29, element E is called

a) Ridge board
b) King post
c) Strut
d) Rafter

A

b) King post

140
Q

In figure 29, element D is called:

a) Strut
b) Tie beam
c) King post
d) Principal Rafter

A

d) Principal Rafter

141
Q

In figure 29, element B is called:

a) Ridge board
b) Wall plate
c) Ridge
d) Binder

A

c) Ridge

142
Q

In figure 29, element E is called:

a) Strut
b) Tie beam
c) King post
d) Principal Rafter

A

c) King Post

143
Q

In figure 29, element F is called:

a) Tie Beam
b) Purlin
c) Joist
d) Wall plate

A

Tie beam

144
Q

In figure 29, element G is called:

a) Tie Beam
b) Purlin
c) Joist
d) Wall plate

A

Wall plate

145
Q

Your Auntie’s house was built in 1901 as a cold roof and its roofing felt needs to be replaced. What modern membrane would be suited if replacing like to like?:

a) LR type
b) HR type
c) RL type
d) RH type

A

a) LR type

146
Q

Metal straps used to anchor roof members are also known as:

a) Lateral straps
b) Restraining straps
c) Tension straps
d) All-of the above

A

All of the above

147
Q

In concrete, a slump test is used to measure what?:

a) 3 Workability of concrete
b) Deflocculation of concrete elements
c) Flocculation of concrete elements
d) Quick setting of concrete

A

a) 3 Workability of concrete

148
Q

The term hydration relates to what?

a) The amount of water to add to a, concrete-mix
b) The chemical reaction between the cement and the aggregates
c) The chemical reaction between water and cement
d) The chemical reaction between the water and the aggregates

A

c) The chemical reaction between water and cement

149
Q

A fine aggregate would typically:

a) only consist of particles greater than or equal to 2mm
b) only consist of particles greater than or equal to 5mm
c) only consist of particles less than or equal to 5mm
d) only consist of particles greater than 2mm but less than or equal to 5mm

A

c) only consist of particles less than or equal to 5mm

150
Q

The normal slump value of concrete for residential projects is around:

a) 150 mm
b) 75 mm
c) 50 mm
d) 100 mm

A

c) 50 mm

151
Q

The retaining wall system shown in the figure 30 is called

a) Open sided cantilever support
b) Two-sided cantilever support
c) Raking shore retaining wall
d) Single sided cantilever support

A

c) Raking shore retaining wall

152
Q

In Figure 30 the anchor point A for the props is also known as:

a) Thirst block
b) Thrust block
c) Thruss block
d) Throsty block

A

b) Thrust block

153
Q

What is the typical size for coarse aggregate used in reinforced concrete?

a) 4mm
b) 5mm to 9mm
c) 9.5mm to 38mm
d) 20mm

A

c) 9.5mm to 38mm

154
Q

What is the maximum size for coarse aggregate allowable in mass concretes structures?

a) 24mm
b) 25 mm
c) 35 mm
d) 40mm

A

d) 40mm

155
Q

Which of the following soils will be characterised by high permeability?

a) Noncohesive soils
b) Cohesive soils
c) Cohesive and non cohesive
d) Ail of the above

A

Non-cohesive

156
Q

Which of the following soils will be characterised by low permeability

a) silt
b) Sand
c) Gravel
d) Clay
e) All Of The Above

A

All Of The Above

157
Q

The moisture content at which the sol loses its properties by being highly saturated is called:

a) Liquid Limit
b) Plastic Limit
c) Semi-liquid limit
d) Semi Plastic limit

A

Liquid Limit

158
Q

These soils bear very small or microscopic pores that are so tiny that an efficient drainage run is difficult to achieve. In part this explains why these soils have low permeability. Which one of the following soils is characterised by the above description?

a) Noncohesive soils
b) Cohesive soils
c) Cohesive and non cohesive
d) All of the above

A

Cohesive soils

159
Q

Which of the following is the most accurate representation of the possible combination of loads which will influence the design of buildings, more so high-rise residential flats?

A. Wind, Gravity and Dead loads
B. Live, Gravity and Seismic loads
C. Dead, Live and Gravity loads
D. Wind, Gravity and Seismic loads
E. Gravity, Seismic and Dead loads
A

D. Wind, Gravity and Seismic loads

160
Q

Your workers have to work at height. You have done all you can to avoid
the work but you are working to a dead line. You want to put in place measures to ensure a safe working environment. What is the correct logical sequences of the measures you must put in place?

A. Avoid the work, Minimize the risk: Prevent what can go wrong
B. Minimize the risk, Avoid the work; Prevent what can go wrong
C. Prevent what can go wrong; minimise the risk; Avoid the work
D. Avoid the work; Prevent what can go wrong: Minimize the risk

A

D. Avoid the work; Prevent what can go wrong: Minimize the risk

161
Q

In reference to question 169, the sequence of actions is referred to as:

a) The Hierarchy of Control
b) The Hierarchy of Compliance
c) The Hierarchy of Safety Competency
d) The Hierarchy of Safety Management

A

a) The Hierarchy of Control

162
Q

What do the regulations LOLER stand for?

A. Lifting Operations and Lifting Engineered Equipment
B. Lifting Operations and Lifting Equipment Ratings
C. Lifting Operations and Lifting Equipment Records
D. Lifting Operations and Lifting Equipment Regulations

A

D. Lifting Operations and Lifting Equipment Regulations

163
Q

A subsoil report identifies a soil as Gault, with a Plastic Liquid value of 52 and Plastic Index value of 28. What should be the Liquid Limit value for this soil?

a) 24
b) 80
c) 58
d) 48

A

b) 80

164
Q

When written in full, the initials MEWPs regulations stand for:

a) Mobile Equipment Platform Services
b) Mobile Equipment and Work Platforms
C) Mobile Elevators Work Platforms
d) Mobile Elevating Working Platform
e) Mobile Elevating Work Platforms

A

e) Mobile Elevating Work Platforms

165
Q

The type of roof shown in figure 31 is best described as:

a) Close couple roof
b) Purlin roof
c) Couple roof
d) Collar roof

A

d) Collar roof

166
Q

In figure 31 the roof element shown by arrow if measured from the ceiling
level, the height x must be:

a) 2/3 of element k
b) 1/3 of J + K
c) 3/4 of L
d) 1/3 of L

A

d) 1/3 of L

167
Q

With regard to trench fill foundations, which of the following
statements is true?

a) They are placed deeper into the soil than pile foundations
b) They are an alternative to raft foundations
c) They are quicker to construct than any other foundation system
d) They are only used for portal frame buildings

A

c) They are quicker to construct than any other foundation system

168
Q

When undertaking excavations the H&S law expects the site team to
have an individual with an automatic sensor. The purpose of the sensor is to:

a) Detect the presence of gases
b) Detect the presence of carbon monoxide
c) Detect the presence of radon
d) Detect the presence of methane

A

a) Detect the presence of gases

169
Q

Working within excavations, which one of the following would act as
a good trigger for an evacuation call?

a) The sudden increase in the smell of gas
b) The sudden collapse of the sides of the excavation
c) The sudden precipitation of cracks in the sides or the excavation
d) Any of the above

A

d) Any of the above

170
Q

Under Health and Safety Law, the initials COSHH stand for:

a) Control of Systems Harmful to Humans
b) Control of Substances Harmful to Humans
c) Control of Substances Hazardous to Health
d) Control of Systems Hazardous to Health

A

c) Control of Substances Hazardous to Health

171
Q

In concrete which of the following is not associated with granular stacking:

a) Improving the compactness of concrete
b) Reducing the porousness
c) Reducing the tensile strength of concrete
d) Reducing the plastic shrinkage of concrete
e) Improving the compressive strength of concrete

A

c) Reducing the tensile strength of concrete

172
Q

When concrete is designated as SRPC it is important to reduce the
volume share of one of the four early setting oxides readily present in
cement, Which oxide is reduced?

a) C3A
b) C2S
c) C3S
d) C4AF

A

a) C3A

173
Q

Based on-Based on same oxide is left in the cement meant to be SRPC your answer to question 172, what percentage of the

a) 5.5%
b) 4.5%
c) 3.5%
d) 2.5%

A

3.5%

174
Q

What is the name of the oxide responsible for the rapid strength in
in concrete?

a) C3A
b) C2S
c) C3S
d) C4AF

A

C3S

175
Q

what is the oxide in concrete that is responsible for the long
gain of concrete?

a) C3A
b) C2S
c) C3S
d) C4AF

A

C2S

176
Q

Which of the following would Not be fixed to the a hip rafter?

a) Ridge ventilator
b) Hip tiles
c) Bonnet tiles
d) Hip ventilaton

A

a) Ridge ventilator

177
Q

You are responsible for specifying timber wall ties. Faced with the option below which one would be the most suitable if seeking the highest corrosion resistance

a) Stainless steel
b) Austenitic Steel
c) Galvanized steel
d) Matenistic steel

A

b) Austenitic Steel

178
Q

Which of the following pozzolanic lightweight aggregates would be the
most suitable for improving the mechanical properties of a soil known to be ridden with sulfates?

a) Aggregates containing mild levels of silicates
b) Ground granulated blast furnace slag
c) Pulverised Fuelash
d) Silica fume
e) All of the above

A

e) All of the above

179
Q

In timber, the point at which allEthe moisture in a felled trunk escapes
except that in the cell walls is known as

a) The Fibre Moisture Reduction Point (FMRP)
b) The Fibre Saturation Point (FSP)
c) The Fibre Moisture Concentration point (FMC)
d) The Fibre Moisture Point (FMP)

A

b) The Fibre Saturation Point (FSP)

180
Q

Timber can carry load in two directions. The property is also referred
to as:

a) Amisotropicity
b) Anesitropicity
c) Anisotropicity
d) nesotropicity

A

c) Anisotropicity

181
Q

In ordinary OPC, how much is the ultimate strength of concrete gained in 7 days?:

a) 40-to 50%
b) 50 to 60%
c) 80 to 85%
d) 90 to 100%

A

b) 50 to 60%

182
Q 
What is the amount of slump which if given would certainly point to
a concrete that is self compacting?
a) S1 (10 - 40)
b) S2 (50 - 90)
c) S3 (100 - 150)
d) S4 (160 - 210)
e) None of the above
A

d) S4 (160 - 210)

183
Q

The type of apparatus for testing concrete shown in Figure 32 is known as:

a) The Slump test
b) The J-Rebar test
c) J-ring test
d) J-slump test

A

J-ring test

184
Q

The test shown in Figure 32 is used to measure:

a) The ease of concrete flow in rounded reinforcement
b) The ease of concrete flow in ribbed steel reinforcement
c) The ease of concrete flow in reinforcement
d) The ease with which concrete can solidify without reinforcement

A

c) The ease of concrete flow in reinforcement

185
Q

During the early days of hydration and when concrete is just beginning to cure, the cracks that appear due to a sudden drop in temperature result in severe cracks called?

a) Plastic shrinkage cracks
b) Thermal contraction cracks
c) Crazy cracks
d) Drying shrinkage

A

b) Thermal contraction cracks

186
Q

Which of the following statements is not true about why Clay soil is
particularly vulnerable to sulfate attack?

a) Its tiniest pore structure implies that each molecule is surrounded by a
water filament thus overall more likely to trap a higher amount of moisture at its molecular structure

b) Its lower drainage run property implies that it traps a higher amount of moisture at its molecular structure
c) Its-high drainage run property implies that it traps a higher amount of moisture at its molecular structure
d) All of the above

A

c) Its-high drainage run property implies that it traps a higher amount of moisture at its molecular structure

187
Q

As a prior treatment solution, which of the following materials
would be suitable to mix with a soil known to be ridden with sulfates?

a) Cementitious aggregates containing mild levels of silicates
b) Aggregates associated with a less exothermic reaction
c) Lightweight aggregates from PFA
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

188
Q

i. A chemical reaction that occurs between sulfate and hydrated C3A
in cement produces an expansive compound called calcium

a) Ferrite
b) Oxidization
c) Sulphoaluminate
d) None of the above

ii. As a follow up to question 194, which of the following would be the
most accurate alternative name to the expansive compound:

a) Limestone
b) Yellow stone
c) White stone
d) None of the above

A

i. c) Sulphoaluminate

ii. None of the above
Entringite

189
Q

Which of the following represents a combination of methods used to prepare concrete for early strength gain and durability?

A. Extra water added to improve the workability of concrete on site
B Hand vibration and Mechanical vibration
C. Choosing well graded coarse aggregates and fine aggregates
D. All of the above

A

B Hand vibration and Mechanical vibration

190
Q

Which of the following is recommended as a method of handling concrete on site so its full compaction can be achieved?

A. Placing concrete from a height to its final place
B. Adding a small amount of water to improve its consistency
C. Using a poker vibrator on a large industrial floor slab
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

191
Q

Which of the following is the most efficient way of minimising the air present in concrete ON SITE:

a) Mechanical vibration or hand tamping of concrete
b) Adding only the right amount of water at the manufacturing stage
c) Pouring concrete as near as possible to its final place
d) Casting concrete during cooler temperatures of the day

A

a) Mechanical vibration or hand tamping of concrete

192
Q

1% of air in concrete causes cement to lose its compressive strength by how much

A. 2%
B. 3%
С. 4%
D. 5%
E. None of the above
A

D. 5%

193
Q

In any typical excavation, the gross pressure experienced by
the support system is the result of which of the following:

a) The soil, air and moisture
b) The soil, air, moisture and equipment
c) The soil, air, moisture and gravity
d) The soil, air, moisture, personnel, equipment and gravity

A

d)The soil, air, moisture, personnel, equipment and gravity

194
Q

Which of following is a benefit associated with the paste of concrete
having a high level of consistency?

a) Ability to be pumped
b) Ability to finished without loss of homogeneity
c) Ability to be placed without segregation
d) Ability to be compacted without excessive settlement
e) All of the above

A

All of the above

195
Q

On a construction project, what should not be added to concrete to improve its workability?

a) Pozzolans
b) Water
c) Entraining agents
d) Additives

A

b) Water

196
Q

Which of the following is the property of concrete that should reduced in order to improve its resistance to segregation and breeding

a) its cohesiveness
b) its consistenc
c) its workability
d) its viscosity
e) None of the above

A

d) its viscosity

197
Q

Which of the following, is the correct description of the barrier shown in figure 33:

a) Fire stop to a vented timber frame external wall
b) Fire stop to a vented timber frame external wall
c) Party wall cavity barrier to-a non vented timber frame external wall
d) Cavity fire barrier to a vented external wall junction with party wall
e) None of the above

A

c) Party wall cavity barrier to-a non vented timber frame external wall

198
Q

A cavity barrier is shown in Figure 34. This application is ideal for:

a) Non-vented external timber frame wall
b) Vented external timber frame wall
c) Both vented and unvented timber frame
d) All of the above

A

a) Non-vented external timber frame wall

199
Q

A cavity barrier is shown in Figure 34. This application is ideal for:

a) a vented external timber frame wall
b) both vented and unvented timber frame
c) non-vented external timber frame wall
d) All of the above

A

c) non-vented external timber frame wall

200
Q

A cavity barrier is shown in Figure 37. This application is ideal for:

a) Non vented external mansony wall
b) Vented external mansony wall
c) Both vented and unvented external mansony walls
d) All of the above

A

a) Non vented external mansony wall

201
Q

of the following, which is NOT a correct description for the barrier shown in Figure 37:

a) Horizontal cavity barrier
b) Horizontal fire stop
c) Horizontal party floor cavity barrier
d) Vertical cavity barrier

A

d) Vertical cavity barrier

202
Q

A cavity barrier is shown in Figure 35. This application is ideal for:

a) both vented and unvented external timber frame walls
b) a non vented external timber frame wall
c) a vented external timber frame wall
d) all of the above.

A

b) a non vented external timber frame wall

203
Q

A cavity barrier is shown in Figure 36. This application is ideal for:

a) both vented and unvented external timber frame walls
b) a non vented external timber frame wall
c) a vented external timber frame wall
d) all of the above

A

b) a non vented external timber frame wall

204
Q

A cavity barrier is shown in Figure 38. This application is ideal for:

a) both vented and unvented external timber frame walls
b) a non vented external timber frame wall
c) a vented external timber frame wall
d) all of the above

A

b) a non vented external timber frame wall

205
Q

A cavity barrier is shown in Figure 39. This application is ideal for:

a) both vented and unvented external timber frame walls
b) a non vented external timber frame wall
c) a vented external timber frame wall
d) all of the above.

A

c) a vented external timber frame wall

206
Q

A cavity barrier is shown in Figure 40. This application is ideal for:

a) both vented and unvented external timber frame walls
b) a vented external timber frame wall
c) a non vented external timber frame wall
d) all of the above.

A

b) a vented external timber frame wall

207
Q

Which of the following is the most accurate. In case of fire, how does the cavity barrier in figure 40 react?

a) produces fumes quenching the fire
b) does not change dimeson or shrink thereby stopping fire or smoke from spreading within the cavity
c) expands to seal the entire cavity stopping the spread of fire
d) remains in fixed position to stop the spread of fire and smoke

A

c) expands to seal the entire cavity stopping the spread of fire

Sandwiches For Me (1 decks)

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