Checkride GK Guide Flashcards
1
Q
Aircrew will not fly or assume control of aircraft when __________ was not obtained IAW Paragraph 3.1
A
Appropriate Crew Rest
2
Q
Aircrew will not fly or assume control of aircraft when any ________ was consumed within ___________ or if __________ to include the effects or after-effects
A
Alcohol, 12 hours prior to takeoff, impaired by alcohol or any other intoxicating substance
3
Q
Aircrew will not fly or assume control of aircraft anytime a __________ is suspected or known to be detrimental to the safe performance of flight duty
A
Physical or Psychological condition
4
Q
Aircrew will not fly or assume control of aircraft when __________ unless cleared by proper medical authority
A
self-medicating
5
Q
Aircrew will not fly or assume control of aircraft within _______ of donating blood, plasma, or bone marrow
A
72 hours
6
Q
Aircrew will not fly or assume control of aircraft within _______ of compressed gas diving including SCUBA
A
24 hours
7
Q
Commanders and supervisors will ensure aircrew are provided a _________ hour rest opportunity prior to beginning the flight duty period
A
12 hour
8
Q
Crew rest is free time and includes time for meals, transportation, and an opportunity for at least _____ hours of uninterrupted sleep
A
8 hours
9
Q
Crew rest is ______ for aircrew members
A
Compulsory
10
Q
Aircrew members must inform PIC or mission execution authority if not sufficiently ________ for flight duties
A
rested
11
Q
If ______ is interrupted, individuals will immediately inform the PIC or mission execution authority and will either _______ or ________ EXCEPTION: PIC may _______ without interrupting crew rest
A
Crew rest, begin a new crew rest period, not perform flight duties, initiate mission-related communication with official agencies
12
Q
The authority waiving the _______ crew-rest requirement must ensure the PIC is _______ prior to beginning crew rest. The PIC is ______ to accept reduced crew rest even with a waiver
A
12 hour, notified, not required
13
Q
When _____ or more consecutive flight duty periods of at least _______ duration are scheduled, crew rest may be reduced by the PIC to a minimum of ______ in order to maintain a 24 hour work/rest cycle
A
3, 12 hours, 10 hours
14
Q
Any reduction from the ________ crew rest requirement requires pre-coordination so that aircrew members are provided with ______ of uninterrupted sleep
A
12 hour, 8 hours
15
Q
The Flight Duty Period begins when an aircrew member ________ and ends at _______
A
First reports for official duty, final engine shutdown
16
Q
Flight Duty Period for UAS Aircrew ends at _______, _______, or _______ whichever occurs last
A
final engine shutdown, final in-flight handover briefing, final crew swap
17
Q
The PIC is authorized to extend Flight Duty Period a maximum of ______ to compensate for unplanned mission delays
A
2 hours
18
Q
If official post-flight duties are anticipated to exceed ______, consider reducing the ______ to ensure safe completion of those duties
A
2 hours, Flight Duty Period
19
Q
IMC is defined as ______
A
Weather conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds, and ceilings less than the minima specified for visual meteorological conditions
20
Q
VMC is defined as _____
A
Weather conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds, and ceilings equal to or better than specified minima
21
Q
IFR is defined as ______
A
A set of rules governing the conduct of instrument flight
22
Q
VFR is defined as _____
A
A set of rules for conducting flight under visual conditions
23
Q
What are the prioritized sources of weather information?
A
-MAJCOM-Approved weather source
-Regional Operational Weather Squadron
-Other DoD military weather sources
-Other US Government weather sources
-Foreign civil or military weather services
24
Q
File a Flight Plan in accordance with _______ or _______
A
FLIP General Planning or MAJCOM guidance
25
If unable to file on the ground, file a flight plan _______
As soon as practicable once airborne
26
Pilots operating in international airspace will file a ________
International Flight plan
27
The PIC will list passengers on a ______
DD Form 2131 Passenger Manifest
28
The PIC may make changes to the original filed flight plan without re-filing provided ______, ________, or _______
The change does not penetrate an ADIZ, the controlling ATC agency approves the change for an IFR flight, or the changes comply with applicable host-nation rules
29
When landing at a non-towered civilian airfield or part time towered airports when the control tower is not operating, the pilot is responsible for ensuring that ________
Flight Plans are closed
30
By Filing a flight plan, the PIC ensures that:
-The flight was authorized IAW DAFMAN 11-401
-Compliance with mission planning requirements
-The flight plan has been reviewed for completeness and accuracy
-The flight plan complies with ADIZ restrictions and special use airspace or MTR scheduling and coordination procedures specified in FLIP and NOTAMs
31
Who signs the flight plan?
The PIC
32
Do not depart IFR unless the weather conditions at the destination ________
From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA are forecast to be at or above lowest compatible approach minimums
33
For a straight in or sidestep approach, the forecast weather must meet _______
Required visibility minimums
34
For a circling approach, the forecast weather must meet both the _______ and ______ minimums
Ceiling, prevailing visibility
35
You must file an alternate when
-A compatible approach procedure is not available at the destination airfield
-Weather forecast indicates that from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, including TEMPO conditions, are less than a ceiling of 2,000 feet and visibility of 3 statute miles, and/or forecast crosswinds are outside aircraft limitations
36
Do not depart IFR unless the prevailing weather at the alternate, from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, including TEMPO conditions (except those caused by thunderstorms, rain showers, or snow showers) is forecast to be at or above ______
A ceiling of 1,000 feet, or 500 feet above lowest compatible approach minimums whichever is higher, and visibility of 2 statute miles, or 1 statute mile above lowest compatible approach minimums
37
If there is not a compatible instrument procedure published or available at the
alternate ______
the weather forecast, from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of
arrival, including TEMPO conditions, must permit a descent from the minimum en route
altitude, approach and landing under basic VFR
38
Do not select an airport as an alternate if
-All compatible approaches require an unmonitored NAVAID.
-The airfield does not report weather observations
-Alternate not authorized on all compatible approaches. (T-1)
-Any note disqualifying the airfield or all compatible approaches in the "IFR
Alternate Minimums" section.
39
Declare emergency or minimum fuel when the aircraft may land at the intended destination with _______
less than minimum or emergency fuel
40
When an alternate is required, fuel required for ________ must be included in the total flight plan if _________
An approach and missed approach at the intended destination, visibility only weather criteria is used at the destination
41
When an alternate is required, fuel required for ________ is not required if both _______ and ________ criteria are used
A missed approach, ceiling and visibility
42
Ensure the aircraft is carrying enough usable fuel on each flight to increase the total planned flight time between refueling points by ______ (up to a maximum of _______) or _______ whichever is greater
10%, 45 minutes, 20 minutes
43
What is the minimum weather for a normal departure?
The weather at the destination from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA not including TEMPO conditions must be at or above lowest compatible approach minimums
44
When making pitch corrections, a VVI of ______ prevents overshoots
1 to 2 times the amount of altitude deviation
45
Approaching the desired altitude, begin the pitch change to level off at approximately _______ of the vertical rate
10%
46
Ensure the aircraft can meet or exceed the standard IFR departure climb gradient of _______ (______ feet per NM) whichever is higher, with all engines operating
3.3%, 200 feet
47
The minimum turn altitude after takeoff is ________ above the DER unless required by a published procedure or ATC
400 feet
48
Do published or ATC climb gradients account for low close in obstacles?
No
49
Is low close in obstacle clearance assured when complying with IFR climb gradients?
No
50
What must an aircraft do to clear low close in obstacles?
Ensure aircraft can vertically or laterally clear applicable published low close in obstacles
51
For multi engine aircraft, pilots must plan a __________ to account for one engine inoperative on takeoff
Contingency procedure
52
Acceptable contingency procedures for one engine out multi engine aircraft on an IFR departure include:
-Meet the published climb gradient or 200 ft/nm whichever is greater with one engine out
-Use a Special Departure Procedure (SDP)
-Ensure weather is above non standard takeoff minimums in order to visually clear all obstacles
-If no other options are available, the PIC may after extensive planning, reduce up to 48 feet per nm from the required climb gradient
53
What is the TERPS IFR DER crossing restriction?
0 feet
54
What is the ICAO/NATO IFR DER crossing restriction?
16 feet
55
What is the NAS Hardened Runway >= 6000 feet IFR DER Crossing restriction?
0 feet
56
What is the NAS Unhardened runway/Runway < 6000 feet IFR DER Crossing restriction?
0-35 Feet
57
Obstacles within _____ statute miles of the DER identified during the diverse departure obstacle assessment that require a climb gradient greater than ______ are published under ____________ in the ______ section
3 SM, 200 ft/nm, TAKE-OFF OBSTACLE NOTES, Trouble T
58
Obstacles that require a climb gradient greater than _______ for a very short distance, only until the aircraft is ________ above the DER, are referred to as _________
200 ft/nm, 200 ft, Low Close-In Obstacles
59
Pilots flying pressurized operations will maintain a cabin altitude below ______ and must comply with _______
10,000 feet, supplemental oxygen requirements
60
Aircrew will use supplemental oxygen anytime the cabin pressure altitude exceeds _______
10,000 feet
61
When mission essential, trained aircrew may operate unpressurized aircraft up to ________
FL 250
62
Aircrew not breathing supplemental oxygen will not operate above _______
14,000 feet MSL
63
Aircrew not breathing supplemental oxygen will not exceed _______ hour in between ______ and ______ MSL if any portion of the flight is conducted in IMC, at night, while employing weapons, conducting airdrop, air refueling, or performing high G maneuvers
1 hour, 10,000 MSL, 12,500 MSL
64
Aircrew not breathing supplemental oxygen will not exceed ______ between _______ and _______
30 minutes, 12,500 MSL, 14,000 MSL
65
If any passenger is not Aerophys trained, aircrew will not exceed ________ and not exceed ____ hours above ______ while supplemental oxygen is not used
13,000 feet, 3 hours, 10,000 feet
66
Supplemental oxygen will be used by all occupants between _______ and ______. All occupants will wear functional pressure suits above ______
14,000 feet MSL, FL250, FL250
67
Who has the right of way above all other traffic?
Aircraft in distress
68
When aircraft of the same category are converging, who has the right of way?
The aircraft to the other's right
69
Aircraft of different categories have the following right of way in order of priority:
-Balloons
-Gliders
-Aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft
-Airships
-Rotary or fixed wing aircraft
70
If aircraft are approaching each other head on, each shall alter course to the ______
Right
71
Who has the right of way, an overtaking aircraft or the aircraft being overtaken?
The aircraft being overtaken
72
The overtaking aircraft must alter course to the ______
Right
73
An aircraft established on the final approach has the right of way over _______
Other aircraft on the ground or in the air, except when two or more aircraft are approaching to land, in which case the lower aircraft has the right of way but shall not use it to cut in front of another aircraft
74
The PIC will adhere to minimum altitudes published in ______ for all MTRs and Special Use Airspace
FLIP
75
The PIC will operate over non-congested areas at an altitude at or above ______ AGL except over open water or in sparsely populated areas in which case the PIC will not operate closer than ______ to any _____, ______, ______, or _______
500 AGL, 500 feet, person, vessel, vehicle, structure
76
The PIC will operate over congested areas or groups of people at an altitude that ensures at least _______ feet above the ___________
1000 feet, highest obstacle within a 2000 foot radius
77
The PIC will operate no lower than ______ (mission permitting) over National Parks, Monuments, Seashores, lakeshores, recreation areas, and scenic riverways administered by the NPS, national wildlife refuges, big game refuges, game ranges, and wildlife ranges administered by USFWS, and wilderness and primitive areas administered by the USFS
2000 feet AGL
78
The PIC will not operate within ______ unless the aircraft is assisting in disaster relief efforts and is authorized
designated disaster areas
79
The PIC will not exceed _____ below ______
250 knots, 10,000 feet MSL
80
Exceeding ______ below _____ is permitted when in ________, ________ rules permit, or when required to _________
250 knots, 10000 MSL, international airspace and mission requirements dictate, ICAO/host nation rules, maintain necessary minimum safe airspeed
81
Exceeding _____ below _____ is permitted within ______, _______, _______, or during
250 knots, 10000 feet MSL, Restricted areas or MOAs, DoD and FAA mutually developed Instrument Routes or Visual Routes, unpublished designated areas or routes, large scale exercises or short term special missions
82
The PIC will not exceed _____ at or below _____ within _____ of the primary airport in _____ or _____ airspace unless authorized by ATC or required to maintain minimum safe operating airspeed
200 knots, 2,500 feet AGL, 4NM, Class C or D
83
The PIC will not exceed ______ in the airspace underlying _______ airspce or in a ______ designated through _______ unless required to maintain minimum safe operating airspeed
200 knots, Class B, VFR Corridor, Class B
84
Holding speeds are in accordance with _______
FLIP or Aircraft Flight Manual Guidance
85
Can the PIC operate in any forecast or severe condition? (Turbulence, Icing, Bird watch condition?
NO
86
Can the PIC intentionally fly into a thunderstorm?
NO
87
Can the PIC intentionally fly into IMC near a thunderstorm?
Only with operable onboard weather radar
88
The PIC will not operate within ______ of known or reported _______ unless conducting rescue operations
50NM, Volcanic Ash
89
Study Airspace Classifications and Weather Minimums
Check
90
Do not operate under VFR within the lateral boundaries of controlled airspace designated to the surface for an airport when the ceiling is less than _______
1,000 feet
91
When conditions prevent completing the mission under VFR, __________, __________, or _________
Alter route to maintain VFR, Obtain an IFR clearance, land at a suitable location
92
When conducting tactical operations, fly under ______ unless compliance with ______ degrades mission accomplishment
VFR, VFR
93
Are VFR flight plans automatically closed upon landing?
NO, the PIC must close the flight plan after landing to prevent unnecessary SAR operations
94
What is the VFR Vis and Cloud Clearance required for Class B airspace?
3SM, Clear of Clouds
95
What is the VFR Vis and Cloud Clearance required for Class C airspace?
3SM, 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal
96
What is the VFR Vis and Cloud Clearance required for Class D airspace?
3SM, 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal
97
What is the VFR Vis and Cloud Clearance required for Class E and G airspace below 10000 feet MSL?
3SM, 500 below,1000 above, 2000 horizontal
98
What is the VFR Vis and Cloud Clearance required for Class E and G airspace above 10000 MSL?
5SM, 1000 below, 1000 above, 1SM horizontal
99
Fly appropriate VFR hemispheric altitudes when higher than ______ AGL
3000 AGL
100
Flight Following services are provided if _______ and ________
Requested by pilot, ATC workload and equipment capability permits
101
ATC should provide _______ during a flight following but the ultimate responsibility to see and avoid rests with the ______
Separation from IFR traffic and participating VFR traffic, PIC
102
Pilots will not file a flight plan nor accept a clearance that requires navigating direct to a navigational fix unless _______
The primary navigation equipment onboard the aircraft is certified for the appropriate RNAV capability
103
Substitute means of navigation refers to using ______ in lieu of ________
A suitable RNAV system, out of service conventional NAVAIDS
104
Alternate means of navigation refers to using ______ in lieu of _______
A suitable RNAV system, Operational conventional NAVAIDS without monitoring those navaids
105
Use of a suitable RNAV system to navigate on a final approach segment of a VOR, TACAN, or NDB approach is allowed provided that ______
The underlying NAVAID is operational and the NAVAID is monitored for course guidance
106
Suitable RNAV systems may be used to _________ even if a facility is required on a procedure
-Determine aircraft position relative to a distance from a conventional NAVAID
-Navigate to or from a conventional NAVAID
-Hold over a conventional NAVAID or DME navigational fix
-Fly an Arc based on DME
107
Suitable RNAV systems may NOT be used for the following:
-Substituting for a NAVAID providing lateral course guidance during the final approach segment of a VOR/TACAN/NDB approach
-Lateral navigation on localizer based courses without referencing the raw localizer data
-Navigation with DME systems unless specifically authorized by NOTAM or FAA guidance
-Use of a procedure identified as NA (Not Authorized)
108
Standard holding pattern turns are made to the _____
Right
109
Non standard holding pattern turns are made to the ______
Left
110
Maximum holding airspeed for Cat B aircraft below 14000 MSL is ______
170 Knots
111
Holding timing is ______ at or below _____ and _______ above _______
1 minute, 14000 MSL, 1.5 minutes, 14000 MSL
112
Holding timing is based on the _______
Inbound leg
113
Holding timing begins _______ or ______ the fix
Over or Abeam
114
After entering the holding pattern, the pilot is expected to ________ to arrive at ________
Compensate for known winds, arrive at an outbound position from which a turn places the aircraft on the inbound holding course
115
When outbound in holding, ______ the inbound calculated drift correction
Triple
116
The alternate minimums symbol informs pilots that the alternate weather minimums for an airfield are _______
Non-Standard
117
True or False: Air Force pilots are not required to comply with the weather minimums listed in the IFR ALTERNATE MINIMUMS section of the Terminal Procedures Publication
True, except there may be other requirements in the IFR ALTERNATE MINIMUMS section that do apply to Air Force Pilots
118
If ATC says "Cleared Tyler One Arrival" what must the PIC do?
-Follow the lateral profile of the arrival
-No descent is authorized
119
If ATC says "Cleared Tyler One Arrival, descend and maintain flight level two four zero" what must the PIC do?
-Follow the lateral profile of the arrival
-Descend to the cleared altitude and maintain this altitude until cleared for further descent or told "descend via"
120
If ATC says "Cleared Tyler One arrival, descend at pilot's discretion, maintain FL180" what must the PIC do?
-Follow the Lateral Profile of the Arrival
-Descend at pilot's discretion to the cleared altitude, maintain this altitude until cleared for further descent with a newly assigned altitude or "descend via"
121
If ATC says "Descend via the Tyler One arrival" what must the PIC do?
-Follow the lateral profile of the arrival
-Descend at pilots discretion and comply with published altitude restrictions
122
If ATC says "Descend via the Tyler One arrival except after Grant maintain nine thousand" what must the PIC do?
-Follow the lateral profile of the arrival
-Descend at pilot's discretion and comply with published altitude restrictions until the ATC assigned "maintain" altitude
123
If ATC says "Descend via the Tyler One arrival, except cross SCOTT at nine thousand then maintain six thousand" what must the PIC do?
-Follow the lateral profile of the arrival
-Descend at pilot's discretion and comply with published altitude restrictions, cross the point at the ATC assigned altitude, and then continue the descent to the ATC assigned "maintain" altitude
124
If ATC says "Proceed Direct DILLY, cross DILLY at or above FL200, then descend via the Tyler One arrival" what must the PIC do?
-Proceed direct to the assigned point
-Follow the lateral profile of the arrival
-Descend at pilot's discretion to the published or assigned altitude at the ATC-assigned point then comply with published altitude restrictions
125
At all other times, unless specifically requested by the pilot, an aircraft is vectored to intercept the final approach course at least _____ from the FAF at a maximum intercept angle of _____
3 miles, 45 degrees
126
Maintain _____ when cleared for the approach until _________
Last assigned altitude, established on a published segment of the approach
127
Approach clearances ______ any previously assigned airspeed adjustments. Pilots are expected to _____ to complete the approach unless restated by ATC
Cancel, make their own airspeed adjustments
128
Can the pilot reject a speed adjustment from ATC?
Yes, when minimum safe airspeed is greater than the speed adjustment
129
What is TORA?
Takeoff Run available is the runway length declared available and suitable for the ground run of an airplane taking off, typically the physical length of the runway but may be shorter in order to satisfy design requirements
130
What is TODA?
Takeoff Distance Available is the takeoff run available plus the length of any runway or clearway beyond the far end of the takeoff run available. The TODA is the distance declared available for satisfying takeoff distance requirements for aircraft that allow clearways for consideration in TOLD
131
What is ASDA?
Accelerate stop distance available is the runway plus stopway length declared available and suitable for the acceleration and deceleration of an airplane aborting a takeoff
132
What is LDA?
Landing distance available is the runway length declared suitable and available for a landing airplane. The LDA may be less than the physical length of the runway remaining beyond a displaced threshold if necessary to satisfy design standards
133
What are Declared Distances?
Declared distances for a runway represent the maximum distances available and suitable for meeting takeoff and landing distance performance requirements
134
When authorized by MAJCOM, PICs will do what when practicing instrument approaches under VFR?
-Maintain VFR cloud clearances and visibilities
-Use terminal radar services when available
-Make all position reports
-Receive ATC approval to fly the published missed approach
135
What is the title of a circling only approach?
The name of the approach Navaid followed by a single letter
136
What is a visual approach?
An IFR procedure conducted in VMC
137
If instructed by ATC to follow another aircraft on a visual approach, notify the controller if _______
Other aircraft is not in sight
138
Acceptance of a visual approach constitutes PIC agreement to ______
Maintain a safe approach interval and adequate wake turbulence separation
139
What is the maximum holding airspeed at 6,000 MSL?
200 Knots
140
What is the maximum holding airspeed at 14,000 MSL?
230 Knots
141
What is the maximum holding airspeed at or above 20,000 MSL?
265 Knots
142
What happens if the glideslope fails or is unavailable?
The approach reverts to an approach without glidepath guidance
143
What happens if the localizer course becomes unreliable during an ILS or LOC approach?
The ILS or LOC approach must be discontinued
144
What happens if you get full scale deflection on the CDI on final approach for an ILS or LOC?
The ILS or LOC approach must be discontinued
145
When the ceiling is less than _____ and visibility less than ______, vehicles and aircraft are not authorized in or over the ILS critical area when an arriving aircraft is between the ILS FAF and the airfield (except for aircraft that ______, ______, ______, or _______)
800 ft, 2 SM, land, exit a runway, depart, execute a missed approach
146
Set the published localizer front course in the course selector window prior to attempting localizer interception for _____, ______, and _________ approaches
ILS, LOC, LOC BC
147
For a LOC BC approach, the front course refers to the inbound course depicted on the __________
ILS or LOC approach for the opposite runway
148
How do you fly a LOC BC approach if the aircraft does not have reverse sensing capability?
Steer the aircraft in the direction opposite the needle deflection
149
Do not descend below MDA, DA, or DH unless _________ and __________
Sufficent visual reference with the runway environment has been established, the aircraft is in a position to execute a safe landing
150
Do Not Descend below ______ feet above the threshold elevation or touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the ________ or ________ are visible
100 feet, red termination bars, red side row bars
151
What is an ESA (Emergency Safe Altitude)?
A single altitude that provides 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance (2,000 feet in mountainous terrain) within 100nm of the facility or fix
152
What is a Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA)?
An altitude that provides at least 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance within 25nm of the facility or fix within that sector (Maximum of 4 sectors) It does not guarantee Navaid Reception
153
For a precision approach or approach with vertical guidance, the final approach segment begins where the glidepath intercepts the _______
Minimum glidepath intercept altitude indicated by the lightning bolt symbol (unless ATC authorizes a lower intercept altitude)
154
For a non precision approach, the final approach segment begins either at the ______ or at the point where the aircraft is _________ where no ______ is depicted
FAF, established inbound on the final approach course, FAF
155
Timing is required when ________
The final approach does not terminate at a published fix
156
When timing is used to identify the the MAP, begin timing when passing the _______ or the _________
FAF, starting point designated in the timing block on the instrument procedure (usually the FAF)
157
Time and distance charts for timing on approach plates are based on what kind of speed?
Groundspeed
158
Is timing authorized when it is not specifically depicted on the instrument approach procedure?
NO
159
If both timing and another method of identifying the MAP are published on the instrument approach plate, timing is normally used as a ________
Backup, unless the other method is not operational
160
What constitutes the runway environment?
-Runway or Runway Markings
-Runway end identifier lights
-Runway lights
-Visual Glideslope indicator
-Threshold, threshold markings, or threshold lights
-Touchdown zone, touchdown zone markings, or touchdown zone lights
-Approach light system
161
The pilot will not descend below 100 feet above the TDZE using the _______ as a reference unless the _______ or _______ are visible and identifiable
Approach lights, red terminating bars, red side row lights
162
When the missed approach is initiated prior to the MAP, what should the pilot do?
Unless otherwise cleared by ATC, fly the instrument procedure as specified on the plate, including altitude restrictions, to the MAP at or above the MDA, DA, or DH before executing the missed approach procedure
163
Any turns on the missed approach will not begin until the aircraft reaches the ______
Missed approach point
164
If the aircraft reaches the MAP before descending to the MDA, the missed approach will be initiated at the ________
MAP
165
If unable to maintain visual references while circling or if you need to execute the missed approach procedure due to a possible unsafe landing, begin by executing a _________, then execute _________
Climbing turn within the protected circling area towards the landing runway up to circling altitude or higher, the missed approach procedure as published.
166
A circling missed approach will be executed whenever __________
An identifiable part of the airfield is not distinctly visible to the pilot unless momentary due to bank
167
For inoperative ALSF 1&2, MALSR, and SSALR on an ILS, MLS, and PAR approach, increase visibility required by
1/4 mile
168
For inoperative ALSF 1&2, MALSR, and SSALR on an ILS approach with a visibility minimum of 1,800 RVR, increase visibility required to
4000 RVR
169
For Inoperative TDZL RCLS RVR, on an ILS approach with visibility minimums of 1,800 RVR, increase visibility required to
1/2 mile
170
For Non precision approaches with ALSF 1 & 2, MALSR, and SSALR inoperative, increase visibility required by
1/2 mile
171
For Non precision approaches with MALS, SSALS, or ODALS inoperative, increase visibility required by
1/4 mile
172
A CDFA (Continuous Descent Final Approach) is a method where pilots _______
Fly the final approach segment of a non precision approach as a continuous descent
173
A CDFA starts at an altitude or height ________
At or above the FAF
174
A CDFA ends at an altitude or height approximately _______ above the landing runway or to a point where _______
50 feet above, flare maneuver should begin
175
Should you descend below the MDA when executing a missed approach from a CDFA?
NO
176
What is a DDA (Derived Decision Altitude)?
An altitude above the MDA where a missed approach should be initiated to ensure the aircraft does not descend below the published MDA during a CDFA
177
CDFA requires the use of a published _____ or ________
VDA, Barometric vertical guidance on the instrument procedure
178
If the VDA or glideslope is published or known, aircrew should use the _______ to determine __________
Instrument Takeoff or Approach Procedure Charts Rate of Climb/Descent Table on the inside back cover (or EFB Legend) of the terminal procedures publication, descent rate
179
How do you calculate the descent rate for a CDFA in FPM?
Use Figure 16.7 in the 202v3 to convert glideslope angle and groundspeed to a descent rate
180
Aircraft with retractable landing gear will report their gear is down prior to _______
Crossing the threshold
181
Aircraft with _______ may omit the gear down call to ATC if ________
Multiple crew positions, crew has independently verified the landing gear is down prior to crossing the threshold
182
Who is the final authority whether to land, takeoff, or continue a touch and go when LAHSO is in effect?
The PIC
183
Can the PIC of a fixed wing aircraft accept a LAHSO clearance without MAJCOM training?
NO (But they can passively participate as in land or takeoff when another aircraft has been given a LAHSO clearance)
184
What is an OROCA?
Off Route Obstacle Clearance Altitude (Big Shaded Numbers) is an off route altitude that provides 1,000 feet of obstruction clearance (2,000 in mountainous areas) in that sector of the chart
185
What is a MEA?
Minimum Enroute Altitude is the lowest published altitude between radio fixes that ensures acceptable navigational signal coverage
186
What is a Minimum Reception Altitude (MRA)?
An altitude that is the lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined for routes that require off-route NAVAIDS to determine an intersection
187
What is a Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA)?
The lowest published altitude in effect between fixes on VOR airways, off airway routes, or route segments that meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment. It also ensures acceptable signal coverage within 22NM of a VOR
188
What is a Minimum Crossing Altitude (MCA)?
The lowest altitude at certain fixes at which the aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher minimum en route IFR altitude
189
What is a Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA)?
Established by ATC for lowest altitude they can vector you at. Provides 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle (2,000 in mountainous terrain)
190
What is Reduced Vertical Separation Minimums (RVSM)?
The reduction of the standard vertical separation required between aircraft flying at levels between FL290 and FL410 from 2,000 feet down to 1,000 feet
191
Can anyone fly in RVSM airspace?
NO, only aircraft with specially certified altimeters and autopilots
192
Can non-RVSM aircraft transit through RVSM airspace?
Yes, provided that they are given continuous climb throughout the RVSM airspace and 2,000 feet vertical separation is provided
193
Military Training Routes with no segment above 1500 feet AGL are identified with how many numbers?
4
194
Military Training routes that include one or more segments above 1500 AGL are identified by how many numbers?
3
195
Normal localizer coverage is _____ Degrees within ______ NM and ______ Degrees within _______ NM
35 Degrees, 10NM,
10 Degrees, 18NM
196
At _____ from the point of touchdown the glideslope is useable and approximately _____ feet thick
10NM, 1500 feet thick
197
What does an outer marker identify?
A position at which an aircraft at the appropriate altitude on the localizer will intercept the glidepath
198
What does a middle marker identify?
3,500 feet from the threshold, where the glideslope is about 200 feet above TDZE
199
What does an inner marker identify?
Decision Height
200
What is Joker Fuel?
The brevity term for a pre briefed fuel quantity above bingo at which separation, bug out, or event termination should begin and proceed with the remainder of the mission
201
What is Bingo Fuel?
The brevity term for a pre-briefed fuel quantity that allows the aircraft to return to the base of intended landing or alternate using preplanned recovery parameters and arriving with normal recovery fuel
202
What location on the approach is normal recovery fuel defined at?
The fuel on initial or at the final approach fix at the base of intended landing or alternate if required
203
When will you declare minimum or emergency fuel?
When it becomes apparent that the fuel remaining at final touchdown will be less than minimum or emergency fuel
204
When are LDG flaps discouraged?
When crosswinds (steady state or gusts) exceed 10 Knots
205
When should the LDG flaps setting be used?
When the heavy weight flaps up landing distance is greater than or equal to 80% of actual field length
206
Aircrews will not ______ when cleared low approach
Allow the aircraft to touch the ground
207
Aircrews will not ______ when cleared restricted low approach
Descend below 500 feet AGL
208
Unit and/or aircrew will not conduct flights over land within training or operating areas when steady state surface winds exceed _______
35 Knots
209
Overwater flights with forecast or actual wave heights exceeding ______ require OG/CC approval
10 Feet
210
Surface winds exceeding _____ requires OG/CC approval
25 Knots
211
Aircrews will only accomplish RNAV procedures in ________
Day VMC conditions
212
Aircrews will check _____, ______, and ______ before every flight in which the GPS database is to be used.
Jeppesen NAVDATA alerts, change notices, NOTAMS
213
Can aircrews use the GPS as a primary source of IFR navigation with an expired database?
NO
214
Aircrews will check _____ before using GPS as a primary source of navigation because a loss of it constitutes unacceptable degradation of system performance
FDE
215
Can aircrews fly SIDs, STARs, and DPs with RNAV in the title?
NO
216
Aircrews will not operate within an uncontrolled airfield pattern with more than ____ aircraft total in the pattern
4
217
Aircrews will not fly _______ with civilian aircraft in the pattern
Overhead patterns
218
Aircrews will maintain ______ or less airspeed for pattern and approach operations within ______ Feet AGL and ______ NM of an uncontrolled airfield
200 Knots, 1500 Feet AGL, 3 NM
219
What are Lost Comms Procedures when IFR?
AVEnue FAME
-Assigned Route
-Vectored aircraft fly direct to the next point in vector clearance
-Expect further clearance route
-Filed flight plan route
(Highest altitude of)
-Altitude Last Assigned
-Minimum altitude for your route (no lower)
-Expect further clearance altitude
220
What is the general definition of minimum/emergency safe altitude per the GP?
The altitude below which it is hazardous to fly owing to presence of high obstacles
221
During a Radar Approach, Initiate lost comms procedures if no transmissions are recieved for approximately _____ minute(s) while being vectored to final, ______ seconds while on ASR final approach, and _______ seconds while on PAR final approach
1 Minute, 15 seconds, 5 seconds
222
Severe windshear causes airspeed changes greater than ______ knots or vertical speed changes greater than _____ FPM
15 Knots, 500 FPM
223
What are the 3 types of Icing?
Clear Ice, Rime Ice, Mixed Ice
224
Conditions most favorable for clear icing are ______?
High water content, large droplet size, temperatures slightly below freezing
225
Rime ice most frequently occurs within _____ clouds at temperatures between _____ and _____ Degrees C
Stratus, -8, -10
226
Mixed icing forms at temperatures between _____ and _____ degrees C
-10, -15
227
The T-6 is approved for transit through a layer of _____ feet of ________ icing
5,000 feet, light rime
228
At first indication of Icing, crews will ensure that the ______ is on
Probes Anti-Ice
229
At first indication of icing, crews will _____ or _____ from the icing layer
Ascend, Descend
230
Aerobatics after icing are __________ until ice on the aircraft is melted or sublimated
Prohibited
231
Maneuvers with ice accumulation are restricted to ______ degrees bank and _____ to _____ Gs
30 degrees, 0, 2
232
For the landing configuration and in the landing phase, with ice accumulation, approach speed must be increased by ______
10 Knots
233
