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NAV CHECKRIDE > Checkride GK Guide > Flashcards

Checkride GK Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Aircrew will not fly or assume control of aircraft when __________ was not obtained IAW Paragraph 3.1

A

Appropriate Crew Rest

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2
Q

Aircrew will not fly or assume control of aircraft when any ________ was consumed within ___________ or if __________ to include the effects or after-effects

A

Alcohol, 12 hours prior to takeoff, impaired by alcohol or any other intoxicating substance

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3
Q

Aircrew will not fly or assume control of aircraft anytime a __________ is suspected or known to be detrimental to the safe performance of flight duty

A

Physical or Psychological condition

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4
Q

Aircrew will not fly or assume control of aircraft when __________ unless cleared by proper medical authority

A

self-medicating

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5
Q

Aircrew will not fly or assume control of aircraft within _______ of donating blood, plasma, or bone marrow

A

72 hours

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6
Q

Aircrew will not fly or assume control of aircraft within _______ of compressed gas diving including SCUBA

A

24 hours

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7
Q

Commanders and supervisors will ensure aircrew are provided a _________ hour rest opportunity prior to beginning the flight duty period

A

12 hour

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8
Q

Crew rest is free time and includes time for meals, transportation, and an opportunity for at least _____ hours of uninterrupted sleep

A

8 hours

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9
Q

Crew rest is ______ for aircrew members

A

Compulsory

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10
Q

Aircrew members must inform PIC or mission execution authority if not sufficiently ________ for flight duties

A

rested

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11
Q

If ______ is interrupted, individuals will immediately inform the PIC or mission execution authority and will either _______ or ________ EXCEPTION: PIC may _______ without interrupting crew rest

A

Crew rest, begin a new crew rest period, not perform flight duties, initiate mission-related communication with official agencies

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12
Q

The authority waiving the _______ crew-rest requirement must ensure the PIC is _______ prior to beginning crew rest. The PIC is ______ to accept reduced crew rest even with a waiver

A

12 hour, notified, not required

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13
Q

When _____ or more consecutive flight duty periods of at least _______ duration are scheduled, crew rest may be reduced by the PIC to a minimum of ______ in order to maintain a 24 hour work/rest cycle

A

3, 12 hours, 10 hours

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14
Q

Any reduction from the ________ crew rest requirement requires pre-coordination so that aircrew members are provided with ______ of uninterrupted sleep

A

12 hour, 8 hours

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15
Q

The Flight Duty Period begins when an aircrew member ________ and ends at _______

A

First reports for official duty, final engine shutdown

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16
Q

Flight Duty Period for UAS Aircrew ends at _______, _______, or _______ whichever occurs last

A

final engine shutdown, final in-flight handover briefing, final crew swap

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17
Q

The PIC is authorized to extend Flight Duty Period a maximum of ______ to compensate for unplanned mission delays

A

2 hours

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18
Q

If official post-flight duties are anticipated to exceed ______, consider reducing the ______ to ensure safe completion of those duties

A

2 hours, Flight Duty Period

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19
Q

IMC is defined as ______

A

Weather conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds, and ceilings less than the minima specified for visual meteorological conditions

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20
Q

VMC is defined as _____

A

Weather conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds, and ceilings equal to or better than specified minima

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21
Q

IFR is defined as ______

A

A set of rules governing the conduct of instrument flight

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22
Q

VFR is defined as _____

A

A set of rules for conducting flight under visual conditions

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23
Q

What are the prioritized sources of weather information?

A

-MAJCOM-Approved weather source
-Regional Operational Weather Squadron
-Other DoD military weather sources
-Other US Government weather sources
-Foreign civil or military weather services

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24
Q

File a Flight Plan in accordance with _______ or _______

A

FLIP General Planning or MAJCOM guidance

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25
Q

If unable to file on the ground, file a flight plan _______

A

As soon as practicable once airborne

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26
Q

Pilots operating in international airspace will file a ________

A

International Flight plan

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27
Q

The PIC will list passengers on a ______

A

DD Form 2131 Passenger Manifest

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28
Q

The PIC may make changes to the original filed flight plan without re-filing provided ______, ________, or _______

A

The change does not penetrate an ADIZ, the controlling ATC agency approves the change for an IFR flight, or the changes comply with applicable host-nation rules

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29
Q

When landing at a non-towered civilian airfield or part time towered airports when the control tower is not operating, the pilot is responsible for ensuring that ________

A

Flight Plans are closed

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30
Q

By Filing a flight plan, the PIC ensures that:

A

-The flight was authorized IAW DAFMAN 11-401
-Compliance with mission planning requirements
-The flight plan has been reviewed for completeness and accuracy
-The flight plan complies with ADIZ restrictions and special use airspace or MTR scheduling and coordination procedures specified in FLIP and NOTAMs

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31
Q

Who signs the flight plan?

A

The PIC

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32
Q

Do not depart IFR unless the weather conditions at the destination ________

A

From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA are forecast to be at or above lowest compatible approach minimums

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33
Q

For a straight in or sidestep approach, the forecast weather must meet _______

A

Required visibility minimums

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34
Q

For a circling approach, the forecast weather must meet both the _______ and ______ minimums

A

Ceiling, prevailing visibility

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35
Q

You must file an alternate when

A

-A compatible approach procedure is not available at the destination airfield
-Weather forecast indicates that from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, including TEMPO conditions, are less than a ceiling of 2,000 feet and visibility of 3 statute miles, and/or forecast crosswinds are outside aircraft limitations

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36
Q

Do not depart IFR unless the prevailing weather at the alternate, from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, including TEMPO conditions (except those caused by thunderstorms, rain showers, or snow showers) is forecast to be at or above ______

A

A ceiling of 1,000 feet, or 500 feet above lowest compatible approach minimums whichever is higher, and visibility of 2 statute miles, or 1 statute mile above lowest compatible approach minimums

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37
Q

If there is not a compatible instrument procedure published or available at the
alternate ______

A

the weather forecast, from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of
arrival, including TEMPO conditions, must permit a descent from the minimum en route
altitude, approach and landing under basic VFR

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38
Q

Do not select an airport as an alternate if

A

-All compatible approaches require an unmonitored NAVAID.
-The airfield does not report weather observations
-Alternate not authorized on all compatible approaches. (T-1)
-Any note disqualifying the airfield or all compatible approaches in the “IFR
Alternate Minimums” section.

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39
Q

Declare emergency or minimum fuel when the aircraft may land at the intended destination with _______

A

less than minimum or emergency fuel

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40
Q

When an alternate is required, fuel required for ________ must be included in the total flight plan if _________

A

An approach and missed approach at the intended destination, visibility only weather criteria is used at the destination

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41
Q

When an alternate is required, fuel required for ________ is not required if both _______ and ________ criteria are used

A

A missed approach, ceiling and visibility

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42
Q

Ensure the aircraft is carrying enough usable fuel on each flight to increase the total planned flight time between refueling points by ______ (up to a maximum of _______) or _______ whichever is greater

A

10%, 45 minutes, 20 minutes

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43
Q

What is the minimum weather for a normal departure?

A

The weather at the destination from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA not including TEMPO conditions must be at or above lowest compatible approach minimums

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44
Q

When making pitch corrections, a VVI of ______ prevents overshoots

A

1 to 2 times the amount of altitude deviation

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45
Q

Approaching the desired altitude, begin the pitch change to level off at approximately _______ of the vertical rate

A

10%

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46
Q

Ensure the aircraft can meet or exceed the standard IFR departure climb gradient of _______ (______ feet per NM) whichever is higher, with all engines operating

A

3.3%, 200 feet

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47
Q

The minimum turn altitude after takeoff is ________ above the DER unless required by a published procedure or ATC

A

400 feet

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48
Q

Do published or ATC climb gradients account for low close in obstacles?

A

No

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49
Q

Is low close in obstacle clearance assured when complying with IFR climb gradients?

A

No

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50
Q

What must an aircraft do to clear low close in obstacles?

A

Ensure aircraft can vertically or laterally clear applicable published low close in obstacles

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51
Q

For multi engine aircraft, pilots must plan a __________ to account for one engine inoperative on takeoff

A

Contingency procedure

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52
Q

Acceptable contingency procedures for one engine out multi engine aircraft on an IFR departure include:

A

-Meet the published climb gradient or 200 ft/nm whichever is greater with one engine out
-Use a Special Departure Procedure (SDP)
-Ensure weather is above non standard takeoff minimums in order to visually clear all obstacles
-If no other options are available, the PIC may after extensive planning, reduce up to 48 feet per nm from the required climb gradient

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53
Q

What is the TERPS IFR DER crossing restriction?

A

0 feet

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54
Q

What is the ICAO/NATO IFR DER crossing restriction?

A

16 feet

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55
Q

What is the NAS Hardened Runway >= 6000 feet IFR DER Crossing restriction?

A

0 feet

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56
Q

What is the NAS Unhardened runway/Runway < 6000 feet IFR DER Crossing restriction?

A

0-35 Feet

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57
Q

Obstacles within _____ statute miles of the DER identified during the diverse departure obstacle assessment that require a climb gradient greater than ______ are published under ____________ in the ______ section

A

3 SM, 200 ft/nm, TAKE-OFF OBSTACLE NOTES, Trouble T

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58
Q

Obstacles that require a climb gradient greater than _______ for a very short distance, only until the aircraft is ________ above the DER, are referred to as _________

A

200 ft/nm, 200 ft, Low Close-In Obstacles

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59
Q

Pilots flying pressurized operations will maintain a cabin altitude below ______ and must comply with _______

A

10,000 feet, supplemental oxygen requirements

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60
Q

Aircrew will use supplemental oxygen anytime the cabin pressure altitude exceeds _______

A

10,000 feet

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61
Q

When mission essential, trained aircrew may operate unpressurized aircraft up to ________

A

FL 250

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62
Q

Aircrew not breathing supplemental oxygen will not operate above _______

A

14,000 feet MSL

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63
Q

Aircrew not breathing supplemental oxygen will not exceed _______ hour in between ______ and ______ MSL if any portion of the flight is conducted in IMC, at night, while employing weapons, conducting airdrop, air refueling, or performing high G maneuvers

A

1 hour, 10,000 MSL, 12,500 MSL

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64
Q

Aircrew not breathing supplemental oxygen will not exceed ______ between _______ and _______

A

30 minutes, 12,500 MSL, 14,000 MSL

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65
Q

If any passenger is not Aerophys trained, aircrew will not exceed ________ and not exceed ____ hours above ______ while supplemental oxygen is not used

A

13,000 feet, 3 hours, 10,000 feet

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66
Q

Supplemental oxygen will be used by all occupants between _______ and ______. All occupants will wear functional pressure suits above ______

A

14,000 feet MSL, FL250, FL250

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67
Q

Who has the right of way above all other traffic?

A

Aircraft in distress

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68
Q

When aircraft of the same category are converging, who has the right of way?

A

The aircraft to the other’s right

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69
Q

Aircraft of different categories have the following right of way in order of priority:

A

-Balloons
-Gliders
-Aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft
-Airships
-Rotary or fixed wing aircraft

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70
Q

If aircraft are approaching each other head on, each shall alter course to the ______

A

Right

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71
Q

Who has the right of way, an overtaking aircraft or the aircraft being overtaken?

A

The aircraft being overtaken

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72
Q

The overtaking aircraft must alter course to the ______

A

Right

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73
Q

An aircraft established on the final approach has the right of way over _______

A

Other aircraft on the ground or in the air, except when two or more aircraft are approaching to land, in which case the lower aircraft has the right of way but shall not use it to cut in front of another aircraft

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74
Q

The PIC will adhere to minimum altitudes published in ______ for all MTRs and Special Use Airspace

A

FLIP

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75
Q

The PIC will operate over non-congested areas at an altitude at or above ______ AGL except over open water or in sparsely populated areas in which case the PIC will not operate closer than ______ to any _____, ______, ______, or _______

A

500 AGL, 500 feet, person, vessel, vehicle, structure

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76
Q

The PIC will operate over congested areas or groups of people at an altitude that ensures at least _______ feet above the ___________

A

1000 feet, highest obstacle within a 2000 foot radius

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77
Q

The PIC will operate no lower than ______ (mission permitting) over National Parks, Monuments, Seashores, lakeshores, recreation areas, and scenic riverways administered by the NPS, national wildlife refuges, big game refuges, game ranges, and wildlife ranges administered by USFWS, and wilderness and primitive areas administered by the USFS

A

2000 feet AGL

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78
Q

The PIC will not operate within ______ unless the aircraft is assisting in disaster relief efforts and is authorized

A

designated disaster areas

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79
Q

The PIC will not exceed _____ below ______

A

250 knots, 10,000 feet MSL

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80
Q

Exceeding ______ below _____ is permitted when in ________, ________ rules permit, or when required to _________

A

250 knots, 10000 MSL, international airspace and mission requirements dictate, ICAO/host nation rules, maintain necessary minimum safe airspeed

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81
Q

Exceeding _____ below _____ is permitted within ______, _______, _______, or during

A

250 knots, 10000 feet MSL, Restricted areas or MOAs, DoD and FAA mutually developed Instrument Routes or Visual Routes, unpublished designated areas or routes, large scale exercises or short term special missions

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82
Q

The PIC will not exceed _____ at or below _____ within _____ of the primary airport in _____ or _____ airspace unless authorized by ATC or required to maintain minimum safe operating airspeed

A

200 knots, 2,500 feet AGL, 4NM, Class C or D

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83
Q

The PIC will not exceed ______ in the airspace underlying _______ airspce or in a ______ designated through _______ unless required to maintain minimum safe operating airspeed

A

200 knots, Class B, VFR Corridor, Class B

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84
Q

Holding speeds are in accordance with _______

A

FLIP or Aircraft Flight Manual Guidance

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85
Q

Can the PIC operate in any forecast or severe condition? (Turbulence, Icing, Bird watch condition?

A

NO

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86
Q

Can the PIC intentionally fly into a thunderstorm?

A

NO

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87
Q

Can the PIC intentionally fly into IMC near a thunderstorm?

A

Only with operable weather radar

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88
Q

The PIC will not operate within ______ of known or reported _______ unless conducting rescue operations

A

50NM, Volcanic Ash

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89
Q

Study Airspace Classifications and Weather Minimums

A

Check

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90
Q

Do not operate under VFR within the lateral boundaries of controlled airspace designated to the surface for an airport when the ceiling is less than _______

A

1,000 feet

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91
Q

When conditions prevent completing the mission under VFR, __________, __________, or _________

A

Alter route to maintain VFR, Obtain an IFR clearance, land at a suitable location

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92
Q

When conducting tactical operations, fly under ______ unless compliance with ______ degrades mission accomplishment

A

VFR, VFR

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93
Q

Are VFR flight plans automatically closed upon landing?

A

NO, the PIC must close the flight plan after landing to prevent unnecessary SAR operations

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94
Q

What is the VFR Vis and Cloud Clearance required for Class B airspace?

A

3SM, Clear of Clouds

95
Q

What is the VFR Vis and Cloud Clearance required for Class C airspace?

A

3SM, 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal

96
Q

What is the VFR Vis and Cloud Clearance required for Class D airspace?

A

3SM, 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal

97
Q

What is the VFR Vis and Cloud Clearance required for Class E and G airspace below 10000 feet MSL?

A

3SM, 500 below,1000 above, 2000 horizontal

98
Q

What is the VFR Vis and Cloud Clearance required for Class E and G airspace above 10000 MSL?

A

5SM, 1000 below, 1000 above, 1SM horizontal

99
Q

Fly appropriate VFR hemispheric altitudes when higher than ______ AGL

A

3000 AGL

100
Q

Flight Following services are provided if _______ and ________

A

Requested by pilot, ATC workload and equipment capability permits

101
Q

ATC should provide _______ during a flight following but the ultimate responsibility to see and avoid rests with the ______

A

Separation from IFR traffic and participating VFR traffic, PIC

102
Q

Pilots will not file a flight plan nor accept a clearance that requires navigating direct to a navigational fix unless _______

A

The primary navigation equipment onboard the aircraft is certified for the appropriate RNAV capability

103
Q

Substitute means of navigation refers to using ______ in lieu of ________

A

A suitable RNAV system, out of service conventional NAVAIDS

104
Q

Alternate means of navigation refers to using ______ in lieu of _______

A

A suitable RNAV system, Operational conventional NAVAIDS without monitoring those navaids

105
Q

Use of a suitable RNAV system to navigate on a final approach segment of a VOR, TACAN, or NDB approach is allowed provided that ______

A

The underlying NAVAID is operational and the NAVAID is monitored for course guidance

106
Q

Suitable RNAV systems may be used to _________ even if a facility is required on a procedure

A

-Determine aircraft position relative to a distance from a conventional NAVAID
-Navigate to or from a conventional NAVAID
-Hold over a conventional NAVAID or DME navigational fix
-Fly an Arc based on DME

107
Q

Suitable RNAV systems may NOT be used for the following:

A

-Substituting for a NAVAID providing lateral course guidance during the final approach segment of a VOR/TACAN/NDB approach
-Lateral navigation on localizer based courses without referencing the raw localizer data
-Navigation with DME systems unless specifically authorized by NOTAM or FAA guidance
-Use of a procedure identified as NA (Not Authorized)

108
Q

Standard holding pattern turns are made to the _____

A

Right

109
Q

Non standard holding pattern turns are made to the ______

A

Left

110
Q

Maximum holding airspeed for Cat B aircraft below 14000 MSL is ______

A

170 Knots

111
Q

Holding timing is ______ at or below _____ and _______ above _______

A

1 minute, 14000 MSL, 1.5 minutes, 14000 MSL

112
Q

Holding timing is based on the _______

A

Inbound leg

113
Q

Holding timing begins _______ or ______ the fix

A

Over or Abeam

114
Q

After entering the holding pattern, the pilot is expected to ________ to arrive at ________

A

Compensate for known winds, arrive at an outbound position from which a turn places the aircraft on the inbound holding course

115
Q

When outbound in holding, ______ the inbound calculated drift correction

A

Triple

116
Q

The alternate minimums symbol informs pilots that the alternate weather minimums for an airfield are _______

A

Non-Standard

117
Q

True or False: Air Force pilots are not required to comply with the weather minimums listed in the IFR ALTERNATE MINIMUMS section of the Terminal Procedures Publication

A

True, except there may be other requirements in the IFR ALTERNATE MINIMUMS section that do apply to Air Force Pilots

118
Q

If ATC says “Cleared Tyler One Arrival” what must the PIC do?

A

-Follow the lateral profile of the arrival
-No descent is authorized

119
Q

If ATC says “Cleared Tyler One Arrival, descend and maintain flight level two four zero” what must the PIC do?

A

-Follow the lateral profile of the arrival
-Descend to the cleared altitude and maintain this altitude until cleared for further descent or told “descend via”

120
Q

If ATC says “Cleared Tyler One arrival, descend at pilot’s discretion, maintain FL180” what must the PIC do?

A

-Follow the Lateral Profile of the Arrival
-Descend at pilot’s discretion to the cleared altitude, maintain this altitude until cleared for further descent with a newly assigned altitude or “descend via”

121
Q

If ATC says “Descend via the Tyler One arrival” what must the PIC do?

A

-Follow the lateral profile of the arrival
-Descend at pilots discretion and comply with published altitude restrictions

122
Q

If ATC says “Descend via the Tyler One arrival except after Grant maintain nine thousand” what must the PIC do?

A

-Follow the lateral profile of the arrival
-Descend at pilot’s discretion and comply with published altitude restrictions until the ATC assigned “maintain” altitude

123
Q

If ATC says “Descend via the Tyler One arrival, except cross SCOTT at nine thousand then maintain six thousand” what must the PIC do?

A

-Follow the lateral profile of the arrival
-Descend at pilot’s discretion and comply with published altitude restrictions, cross the point at the ATC assigned altitude, and then continue the descent to the ATC assigned “maintain” altitude

124
Q

If ATC says “Proceed Direct DILLY, cross DILLY at or above FL200, then descend via the Tyler One arrival” what must the PIC do?

A

-Proceed direct to the assigned point
-Follow the lateral profile of the arrival
-Descend at pilot’s discretion to the published or assigned altitude at the ATC-assigned point then comply with published altitude restrictions

125
Q

At all other times, unless specifically requested by the pilot, an aircraft is vectored to intercept the final approach course at least _____ from the FAF at a maximum intercept angle of _____

A

3 miles, 45 degrees

126
Q

Maintain _____ when cleared for the approach until _________

A

Last assigned altitude, established on a published segment of the approach

127
Q

Approach clearances ______ any previously assigned airspeed adjustments. Pilots are expected to _____ to complete the approach unless restated by ATC

A

Cancel, make their own airspeed adjustments

128
Q

Can the pilot reject a speed adjustment from ATC?

A

Yes, when minimum safe airspeed is greater than the speed adjustment

129
Q

What is TORA?

A

Takeoff Run available is the runway length declared available and suitable for the ground run of an airplane taking off, typically the physical length of the runway but may be shorter in order to satisfy design requirements

130
Q

What is TODA?

A

Takeoff Distance Available is the takeoff run available plus the length of any runway or clearway beyond the far end of the takeoff run available. The TODA is the distance declared available for satisfying takeoff distance requirements for aircraft that allow clearways for consideration in TOLD

131
Q

What is ASDA?

A

Accelerate stop distance available is the runway plus stopway length declared available and suitable for the acceleration and deceleration of an airplane aborting a takeoff

132
Q

What is LDA?

A

Landing distance available is the runway length declared suitable and available for a landing airplane. The LDA may be less than the physical length of the runway remaining beyond a displaced threshold if necessary to satisfy design standards

133
Q

What are Declared Distances?

A

Declared distances for a runway represent the maximum distances available and suitable for meeting takeoff and landing distance performance requirements

134
Q

When authorized by MAJCOM, PICs will do what when practicing instrument approaches under VFR?

A

-Maintain VFR cloud clearances and visibilities
-Use terminal radar services when available
-Make all position reports
-Receive ATC approval to fly the published missed approach

135
Q

What is the title of a circling only approach?

A

The name of the approach Navaid followed by a single letter

136
Q

What is a visual approach?

A

An IFR procedure conducted in VMC

137
Q

If instructed by ATC to follow another aircraft on a visual approach, notify the controller if _______

A

Other aircraft is not in sight

138
Q

Acceptance of a visual approach constitutes PIC agreement to ______

A

Maintain a safe approach interval and adequate wake turbulence separation

139
Q

What is the maximum holding airspeed at 6,000 MSL?

A

200 Knots

140
Q

What is the maximum holding airspeed at 14,000 MSL?

A

230 Knots

141
Q

What is the maximum holding airspeed at or above 20,000 MSL?

A

265 Knots

142
Q

What happens if the glideslope fails or is unavailable?

A

The approach reverts to an approach without glidepath guidance

143
Q

What happens if the localizer course becomes unreliable during an ILS or LOC approach?

A

The ILS or LOC approach must be discontinued

144
Q

What happens if you get full scale deflection on the CDI on final approach for an ILS or LOC?

A

The ILS or LOC approach must be discontinued

145
Q

When the ceiling is less than _____ and visibility less than ______, vehicles and aircraft are not authorized in or over the ILS critical area when an arriving aircraft is between the ILS FAF and the airfield (except for aircraft that ______, ______, ______, or _______)

A

800 ft, 2 SM, land, exit a runway, depart, execute a missed approach

146
Q

Set the published localizer front course in the course selector window prior to attempting localizer interception for _____, ______, and _________ approaches

A

ILS, LOC, LOC BC

147
Q

For a LOC BC approach, the front course refers to the inbound course depicted on the __________

A

ILS or LOC approach for the opposite runway

148
Q

How do you fly a LOC BC approach if the aircraft does not have reverse sensing capability?

A

Steer the aircraft in the direction opposite the needle deflection

149
Q

Do not descend below MDA, DA, or DH unless _________ and __________

A

Sufficent visual reference with the runway environment has been established, the aircraft is in a position to execute a safe landing

150
Q

Do Not Descend below ______ feet above the threshold elevation or touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the ________ or ________ are visible

A

100 feet, red termination bars, red side row bars

151
Q

What is an ESA (Emergency Safe Altitude)?

A

A single altitude that provides 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance (2,000 feet in mountainous terrain) within 100nm of the facility or fix

152
Q

What is a Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA)?

A

An altitude that provides at least 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance within 25nm of the facility or fix within that sector (Maximum of 4 sectors) It does not guarantee Navaid Reception

153
Q

For a precision approach or approach with vertical guidance, the final approach segment begins where the glidepath intercepts the _______

A

Minimum glidepath intercept altitude indicated by the lightning bolt symbol (unless ATC authorizes a lower intercept altitude)

154
Q

For a non precision approach, the final approach segment begins either at the ______ or at the point where the aircraft is _________ where no ______ is depicted

A

FAF, established inbound on the final approach course, FAF

155
Q

Timing is required when ________

A

The final approach does not terminate at a published fix

156
Q

When timing is used to identify the the MAP, begin timing when passing the _______ or the _________

A

FAF, starting point designated in the timing block on the instrument procedure (usually the FAF)

157
Q

Time and distance charts for timing on approach plates are based on what kind of speed?

A

Groundspeed

158
Q

Is timing authorized when it is not specifically depicted on the instrument approach procedure?

A

NO

159
Q

If both timing and another method of identifying the MAP are published on the instrument approach plate, timing is normally used as a ________

A

Backup, unless the other method is not operational

160
Q

What constitutes the runway environment?

A

-Runway or Runway Markings
-Runway end identifier lights
-Runway lights
-Visual Glideslope indicator
-Threshold, threshold markings, or threshold lights
-Touchdown zone, touchdown zone markings, or touchdown zone lights
-Approach light system

161
Q

The pilot will not descend below 100 feet above the TDZE using the _______ as a reference unless the _______ or _______ are visible and identifiable

A

Approach lights, red terminating bars, red side row lights

162
Q

When the missed approach is initiated prior to the MAP, what should the pilot do?

A

Unless otherwise cleared by ATC, fly the instrument procedure as specified on the plate, including altitude restrictions, to the MAP at or above the MDA, DA, or DH before executing the missed approach procedure

163
Q

Any turns on the missed approach will not begin until the aircraft reaches the ______

A

Missed approach point

164
Q

If the aircraft reaches the MAP before descending to the MDA, the missed approach will be initiated at the ________

A

MAP

165
Q

If unable to maintain visual references while circling or if you need to execute the missed approach procedure due to a possible unsafe landing, begin by executing a _________, then execute _________

A

Climbing turn within the protected circling area towards the landing runway up to circling altitude or higher, the missed approach procedure as published.

166
Q

A circling missed approach will be executed whenever __________

A

An identifiable part of the airfield is not distinctly visible to the pilot unless momentary due to bank

167
Q

For inoperative ALSF 1&2, MALSR, and SSALR on an ILS, MLS, and PAR approach, increase visibility required by

A

1/4 mile

168
Q

For inoperative ALSF 1&2, MALSR, and SSALR on an ILS approach with a visibility minimum of 1,800 RVR, increase visibility required to

A

4000 RVR

169
Q

For Inoperative TDZL RCLS RVR, on an ILS approach with visibility minimums of 1,800 RVR, increase visibility required to

A

1/2 mile

170
Q

For Non precision approaches with ALSF 1 & 2, MALSR, and SSALR inoperative, increase visibility required by

A

1/2 mile

171
Q

For Non precision approaches with MALS, SSALS, or ODALS inoperative, increase visibility required by

A

1/4 mile

172
Q

A CDFA (Continuous Descent Final Approach) is a method where pilots _______

A

Fly the final approach segment of a non precision approach as a continuous descent

173
Q

A CDFA starts at an altitude or height ________

A

At or above the FAF

174
Q

A CDFA ends at an altitude or height approximately _______ above the landing runway or to a point where _______

A

50 feet above, flare maneuver should begin

175
Q

Should you descend below the MDA when executing a missed approach from a CDFA?

A

NO

176
Q

What is a DDA (Derived Decision Altitude)?

A

An altitude above the MDA where a missed approach should be initiated to ensure the aircraft does not descend below the published MDA during a CDFA

177
Q

CDFA requires the use of a published _____ or ________

A

VDA, Barometric vertical guidance on the instrument procedure

178
Q

If the VDA or glideslope is published or known, aircrew should use the _______ to determine __________

A

Instrument Takeoff or Approach Procedure Charts Rate of Climb/Descent Table on the inside back cover (or EFB Legend) of the terminal procedures publication, descent rate

179
Q

How do you calculate the descent rate for a CDFA in FPM?

A

Use Figure 16.7 in the 202v3 to convert glideslope angle and groundspeed to a descent rate

180
Q

Aircraft with retractable landing gear will report their gear is down prior to _______

A

Crossing the threshold

181
Q

Aircraft with _______ may omit the gear down call to ATC if ________

A

Multiple crew positions, crew has independently verified the landing gear is down prior to crossing the threshold

182
Q

Who is the final authority whether to land, takeoff, or continue a touch and go when LAHSO is in effect?

A

The PIC

183
Q

Can the PIC of a fixed wing aircraft accept a LAHSO clearance without MAJCOM training?

A

NO (But they can passively participate as in land or takeoff when another aircraft has been given a LAHSO clearance)

184
Q

What is an OROCA?

A

Off Route Obstacle Clearance Altitude (Big Shaded Numbers) is an off route altitude that provides 1,000 feet of obstruction clearance (2,000 in mountainous areas) in that sector of the chart

185
Q

What is a MEA?

A

Minimum Enroute Altitude is the lowest published altitude between radio fixes that ensures acceptable navigational signal coverage

186
Q

What is a Minimum Reception Altitude (MRA)?

A

An altitude that is the lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined for routes that require off-route NAVAIDS to determine an intersection

187
Q

What is a Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA)?

A

The lowest published altitude in effect between fixes on VOR airways, off airway routes, or route segments that meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment. It also ensures acceptable signal coverage within 22NM of a VOR

188
Q

What is a Minimum Crossing Altitude (MCA)?

A

The lowest altitude at certain fixes at which the aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher minimum en route IFR altitude

189
Q

What is a Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA)?

A

Established by ATC for lowest altitude they can vector you at. Provides 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle (2,000 in mountainous terrain)

190
Q

What is Reduced Vertical Separation Minimums (RVSM)?

A

The reduction of the standard vertical separation required between aircraft flying at levels between FL290 and FL410 from 2,000 feet down to 1,000 feet

191
Q

Can anyone fly in RVSM airspace?

A

NO, only aircraft with specially certified altimeters and autopilots

192
Q

Can non-RVSM aircraft transit through RVSM airspace?

A

Yes, provided that they are given continuous climb throughout the RVSM airspace and 2,000 feet vertical separation is provided

193
Q

Military Training Routes with no segment above 1500 feet AGL are identified with how many numbers?

A

4

194
Q

Military Training routes that include one or more segments above 1500 AGL are identified by how many numbers?

A

3

195
Q

Normal localizer coverage is _____ Degrees within ______ NM and ______ Degrees within _______ NM

A

35 Degrees, 10NM,
10 Degrees, 18NM

196
Q

At _____ from the point of touchdown the glideslope is useable and approximately _____ feet thick

A

10NM, 1500 feet thick

197
Q

What does an outer marker identify?

A

A position at which an aircraft at the appropriate altitude on the localizer will intercept the glidepath

198
Q

What does a middle marker identify?

A

3,500 feet from the threshold, where the glideslope is about 200 feet above TDZE

199
Q

What does an inner marker identify?

A

Decision Height

200
Q

What is Joker Fuel?

A

The brevity term for a pre briefed fuel quantity above bingo at which separation, bug out, or event termination should begin and proceed with the remainder of the mission

201
Q

What is Bingo Fuel?

A

The brevity term for a pre-briefed fuel quantity that allows the aircraft to return to the base of intended landing or alternate using preplanned recovery parameters and arriving with normal recovery fuel

202
Q

What location on the approach is normal recovery fuel defined at?

A

The fuel on initial or at the final approach fix at the base of intended landing or alternate if required

203
Q

When will you declare minimum or emergency fuel?

A

When it becomes apparent that the fuel remaining at final touchdown will be less than minimum or emergency fuel

204
Q

When are LDG flaps discouraged?

A

When crosswinds (steady state or gusts) exceed 10 Knots

205
Q

When should the LDG flaps setting be used?

A

When the heavy weight flaps up landing distance is greater than or equal to 80% of actual field length

206
Q

Aircrews will not ______ when cleared low approach

A

Allow the aircraft to touch the ground

207
Q

Aircrews will not ______ when cleared restricted low approach

A

Descend below 500 feet AGL

208
Q

Unit and/or aircrew will not conduct flights over land within training or operating areas when steady state surface winds exceed _______

A

35 Knots

209
Q

Overwater flights with forecast or actual wave heights exceeding ______ require OG/CC approval

A

10 Feet

210
Q

Surface winds exceeding _____ requires OG/CC approval

A

25 Knots

211
Q

Aircrews will only accomplish RNAV procedures in ________

A

Day VMC conditions

212
Q

Aircrews will check _____, ______, and ______ before every flight in which the GPS database is to be used.

A

Jeppesen NAVDATA alerts, change notices, NOTAMS

213
Q

Can aircrews use the GPS as a primary source of IFR navigation with an expired database?

A

NO

214
Q

Aircrews will check _____ before using GPS as a primary source of navigation because a loss of it constitutes unacceptable degradation of system performance

A

FDE

215
Q

Can aircrews fly SIDs, STARs, and DPs with RNAV in the title?

A

NO

216
Q

Aircrews will not operate within an uncontrolled airfield pattern with more than ____ aircraft total in the pattern

A

4

217
Q

Aircrews will not fly _______ with civilian aircraft in the pattern

A

Overhead patterns

218
Q

Aircrews will maintain ______ or less airspeed for pattern and approach operations within ______ Feet AGL and ______ NM of an uncontrolled airfield

A

200 Knots, 1500 Feet AGL, 3 NM

219
Q

What are Lost Comms Procedures when IFR?

A

AVEnue FAME
-Assigned Route
-Vectored aircraft fly direct to the next point in vector clearance
-Expect further clearance route
-Filed flight plan route
(Highest altitude of)
-Altitude Last Assigned
-Minimum altitude for your route (no lower)
-Expect further clearance altitude

220
Q

What is the general definition of minimum/emergency safe altitude per the GP?

A

The altitude below which it is hazardous to fly owing to presence of high obstacles

221
Q

During a Radar Approach, Initiate lost comms procedures if no transmissions are recieved for approximately _____ minute(s) while being vectored to final, ______ seconds while on ASR final approach, and _______ seconds while on PAR final approach

A

1 Minute, 15 seconds, 5 seconds

222
Q

Severe windshear causes airspeed changes greater than ______ knots or vertical speed changes greater than _____ FPM

A

15 Knots, 500 FPM

223
Q

What are the 3 types of Icing?

A

Clear Ice, Rime Ice, Mixed Ice

224
Q

Conditions most favorable for clear icing are ______?

A

High water content, large droplet size, temperatures slightly below freezing

225
Q

Rime ice most frequently occurs within _____ clouds at temperatures between _____ and _____ Degrees C

A

Stratus, -8, -10

226
Q

Mixed icing forms at temperatures between _____ and _____ degrees C

A

-10, -15

227
Q

The T-6 is approved for transit through a layer of _____ feet of ________ icing

A

5,000 feet, light rime

228
Q

At first indication of Icing, crews will ensure that the ______ is on

A

Probes Anti-Ice

229
Q

At first indication of icing, crews will _____ or _____ from the icing layer

A

Ascend, Descend

230
Q

Aerobatics after icing are __________ until ice on the aircraft is melted or sublimated

A

Prohibited

231
Q

Maneuvers with ice accumulation are restricted to ______ degrees bank and _____ to _____ Gs

A

30 degrees, 0, 2

232
Q

For the landing configuration and in the landing phase, with ice accumulation, approach speed must be increased by ______

A

10 Knots

233
Q
A

NAV CHECKRIDE (2 decks)

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