Checkride

Question 1

What are the required documents and certificates to become a private pilot?

Answer 1

-17 years of age
- at least a 3rd class medical
- read, write, and speak English
- meet applicable and required aeronautical experience requirements
- pass the written
- receive required ground and flight endorsements

Question 2

what are your privileges and limitations?

Answer 2

limitations
- cannot pay less than pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight made with passengers( fuel, oil, airports fees, and rental fees)
-private pilots cannot fly for hire or money
privileges
- you can demonstrate an aircraft to a prospective buyer as long as you are an aircraft sales person or broker and have at least 200 hours logged
- you may act as PIC of an aircraft towing a glider if you meet 14 CFR 61.69 requirements

Question 3

how do you remain a private pilot?

Answer 3

-within the preceding 24 calendar months you must complete a flight review in an aircraft you’re rated in by a authorized flight instructor who will provide a logbook endorsement upon successful completion of the required ground instruction
and flight time.
-instead of a flight review additional rating such as instrument seaplane or multi by a flight instructor can replace a flight review
- to carry passengers you must complete 3 takeoff and landings within the preceding 90 days in the same category, class and type rating( if it’s a tail wheel the landings must be full stop( at night the pic must have made 3 landings to a full stop 1 hour after sunset 1 hour before sunrise))

Question 4

what documents are required aboard the aircraft?

Answer 4

A- airworthiness certificate
R- registration
R- radio certificate (international only)
O- owners manual (flight manual)
W- weight and balance
14 CFR 91.203 and 91.9
E- external data plate
D- Deviation card

Question 5

do aircraft registrations expire?

Answer 5

yes every 7 years the owner must re-register their aircraft with the FAA by submitting the appropriate form and registration fee

Question 6

what documents must you always have with you?

Answer 6

-photo id
-pilot certificate( or student)
-medical
-maybe logbook to show proof of endorsements

Question 7

what inspections are required for your aircraft?

Answer 7

AVIATES
A- AD’s (annual inspection)
V- VOR check every 30 days (ifr only)
I- inspections (annual and 100 hour)
A- altimeter every 24 calendar months (ifr only)
T- transponder every 24 calendar months
E- ELT every 12 calendar months
S- static system every 24 calendar months (ifr only)
14 CFR 91.409
* 100 hour inspection is for aircraft flown for hire only

Question 8

what is the difference between a 100 hour an annual?

Answer 8

The difference involves the level of certification the mechanic signing off the work is required to have. An A&P (Airframe and Powerplant) mechanic can sign off a 100 hour inspection, while an A&P with Inspection Authorization is required to sign off an annual inspection

Question 9

can a 100 hour inspection take the place of a annual?

Answer 9

NO, however and ANNUAL can take place of a 100 hour
14 CFR 91.409

Question 10

what is a MEL?

Answer 10

mel stands for minimal equipment list. (the equipment that’s allowed to be broken and still fly)
AC 91-67

Question 11

what is a special flight permit?

Answer 11

-A special flight permit gives temporary airworthiness to an aircraft that does not have current airworthy status. This is
usually for a flight on a certain day to only one airport
-local FSDO’s may approve me to fly with a special flight permit

Question 12

explain the 3 types of medicals?

Answer 12

1st class medical
- pilots who fly professionally as atps are required to have this medical
- this is the highest grade and most extensive medical
- the duration of a 1st class medical is 12 months if under 40(6 months over 40)
- to be eligible for the first class medical certificate the applicant must( distant acuity of 20/20 in each eye and near vision 20/40, ability to distinguish aviation red aviation signal green and white, normal field of vision, normal field of hearing
2nd class medical
- pilots who hold and use a commercial license are required to have this medical
- the duration is 12 calendar months
distant acuity of 20/20 in each eye, and near vision 20/40
- ability to distinguish aviation red, aviation signal green and white
-normal field of vision
- normal field of hearing
3rd class medical
- every pilot holding a private pilot certificate or better
- duration is 60 calendar months for applicants under 40 (24 months for those over 40)
- distant acuity of 20/40 in each eye with or without corrective lenses, and near vision 20/40
- ability to distinguish aviation red, aviation signal green and white
-normal field of vision
- normal field of hearing

Question 13

what is hypoxia?

Answer 13

hypoxia is most simply put as a lack of oxygen to the brain

Question 14

what are the 4 types of hypoxia?

Answer 14

1. hypoxic hypoxia is the most common and is caused by decreased oxygen or the inability to diffuse the oxygen across the lungs. if this happens the person has less than 100% saturation of the blood in the arteries. (over 12,500 feet or damaged lungs causes oxygen transfer to be impaired
2. hypemic hypoxia is caused by the reduction of the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood. the oxygen is available but there isn’t enough blood to carry it. carbon monoxide poisoning also cause this type of hypoxia.
3. stagnant hypoxia is caused by reduced cardiac output(the pump isn’t working well) or by venous pooling during high g stresses
4. hiatotoxic hypoxia occurs when all systems are working but the cells can’t “take” the oxygen from the blood(alcohol or cyanide poisoning can cause this)

Question 15

what are the symptoms of hypoxia?

Answer 15

headache, dizziness, cyanosis, and euphoria

Question 16

explain hyperventilation?

Answer 16

Hyperventilation can also be called “over-breathing” the person is breathing at too rapid a rate and exhaling too much carbon dioxide from the blood. (best cure is the breathe into a bag or calm yourself or your passenger down) symptoms of hyperventilation and hypoxia are the exact same

Question 17

name and explain the 8 types of special disorientation?

Answer 17

ICEFLAGS
the leans- The leans occur when a quick correction of a banked attitude happens too slowly. The sensors in your inner ear send your brain the sensation of banking in the
opposite direction.
coriolis illusion- Is caused by making a
quick head movement during a constant rate turn that has ceased stimulating the inner ear
graveyard spin- The pilot recovering from a spin that had stabilized enough to stop the movement of fluid in the inner ear can create the illusion that he or she has entered a spin in the other direction. The risk is that they will reenter the original spin.
graveyard spiral- While turning the airplane you notice you have lost altitude. Your sensory systems makes you feel as though you are in level flight so you pitch up. Although because you are actually in a turn, the abrupt pitching up tightens the turn and you lose even more altitude, increasing
your rate of descent.
somatogravic illusion- during takeoff the pilot gets pushed back into his seat giving the illusion he’s in a pitch up attitude to correct the pilot noses the plane over towards the earth
inversion illusion- a quick change from climb to level flight makes the pilot feel as though he or she is tumbling backwards
elevator illusion- On a turbulent day an updraft could cause extreme vertical acceleration the pilot mistakes for being in a climb.The pilot may correct for the mistaken impression of a climb by pitching the aircraft nose downward. This illusion also has the opposite effect with downdrafts. Although intense, this illusion presents relatively little danger, considering it usually happens at higher altitudes.
false horizon- can be caused by city lights sloping clouds, stars, and darkness
autokinesis- at night when staring at a light for too long it begins to “move”

Question 18

what’s is standard temperature and pressure?

Answer 18

standard temp is 15c (59f) and 29.92 inches of mercury (1013.2 hectopascals)

Question 19

what are the 3 main layers of atmosphere?

Answer 19

the troposphere, tropopause, and the stratosphere

Question 20

the cause of all weather is a result of a?

Answer 20

heat exchange, uneven heating of the earths surface causes atmospheric circulation

Question 21

wind is the result of?

Answer 21

changes/differences in pressure

Question 22

name and explain the 4 types of fog?

Answer 22

radiation fog-This type of fog forms at night under clear skies with calm winds when heat absorbed by the earth’s surface during the
day is radiated into space. As the earth’s surface continues to cool, provided a deep enough layer of moist air is present
near the ground, the humidity will reach 100% and fog will form. Radiation fog varies in depth from 3 feet to about 1,000 feet and is always found at ground level and usually remains stationary.
advection fog-by the horizontal movement of warm moist air over a cold surface. This means that advection fog can sometimes be distinguished from radiation fog by its horizontal motion along the ground.
upslope fog- Upslope fog forms when light winds push moist air up a hillside or mountainside to a level where the air
becomes saturated and condensation occurs.
steam fog- Steam fog forms when cold air moves over warm water. when the cool air mixes with the warm moist air over the water, the moist air cools until its humidity reaches 100% and fog forms

Question 23

compare stable vs. unstable air

Answer 23

stable air- calm air (statiform clouds, continuous precipitation, smooth air, and fair to poor visibility in haze and smoke)
unstable air- turbulent ( cumulus clouds, showery precipitation, good visibility, strong surface winds)

Question 24

what is the difference between a air mass and a front?

Answer 24

air mass- An air mass is a large body of air that has similar temperature and moisture properties throughout

front- A front is defined as the transition zone between two air masses of different density.
fronts-Cold Front (1) - Leading edge of colder air that is replacing warmer air.
Warm Front (2) - Leading edge of warmer air that is replacing cooler air.
Stationary Front (3) - A front that is not moving.
Occluded Front (4) - When a cold front catches up to a warm front

Question 25

what causes turbulence?

Answer 25

The main causes of turbulence are, convective currents, obstructions to wind flow, and wind shear.

Question 26

name and explain the 3 types of icing?

Answer 26

-Clear, hard and glossy, forms after impact of large drops spread over the airfoil and freeze “sheet-like” over the airfoil -Rime, brittle and frost like, created by small drops that freeze rapidly before the drop has time to spread across the airfoil -Mixed, hard and rough, forms when drops vary in size or when snow is mixed in with the rain.

Question 27

what 3 ingredients must be present for a thunderstorm to develop?

Answer 27

-sufficient water vapor -uplifting -and unstable lapse rate

Question 28

what are the 3 stages of a thunderstorm?

Answer 28

-cumulus stage -mature stage -dissipating stage

Question 29

what are isobars?

Answer 29

lines depicted on a weather chart showing areas of like pressure

Question 30

what are metars, when are they issued and how long are they valid for?

Answer 30

-aviation routine weather reports - issued 55 minutes past the hour - hourly or special metal can be issued at any time significant weather changes - 8 kilometers or 4.31 nm

Question 31

what are TAF’s, when are they issued and for how long?

Answer 31

-terminal aerodrome forecasts - usually valid for 24hrs -issued 4 times a day

Question 32

what are PIREPS and when are they issued

Answer 32

-PIREP’s are issued by you the pilot. PIREPS (Pilot Reports) are the best indication of the actual conditions of flight (turbulence, visibility, icing) a pilot can get, because they reflect the actual experience of other pilots in the area.

Question 33

what 4 forces are always acting on a airplane?

Answer 33

thrust, drag,weight, and lift

Question 34

what is angle of attack?

Answer 34

the acute angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the direction of the air that strikes the airfoil

Question 35

what is bernoullis principle?

Answer 35

It is the main principle which explains how lift is created. Since the pressure of a fluid is proportional to its velocity, airflow over the upper surface of an airfoil causes a reduction in air-pressure. This is because the airstream has been sped up in relation to slower moving, higher pressure airflow at the lower surface. Carb is another example of this

Question 36

what is a stall?

Answer 36

Sudden loss of lift when the angle of attack increases to a point where the flow of air breaks away from the surface of the wing or airfoil, causing lift to be lost and the aircraft to drop.

Question 37

what factors affect stall speed?

Answer 37

weight and center of gravity

Question 38

what factors affect stall speed?

Answer 38

weight and center of gravity

Question 39

what is p-factor

Answer 39

because the prop turns clockwise it forces the aircraft to pull to the left

Question 40

what are the 2 types of drag?

Answer 40

parasite drag-this term is a catch-all for the forces that work to slow the aircraft. The three types of parasite drag are skin drag, form drag, and interference drag induced drag- a product of producing lift

Question 41

what is load factor?

Answer 41

-the load the wings are supporting divided by the total weight of the airplane (the ratio between the lift generated by the wings at any given time divided by the total weight of the aircraft. It’s often expressed in “G’s”, meaning a multiple of the force of gravity)

Question 42

what effect does an increase in load factor have on stall speed?

Answer 42

A heavily loaded airplane has a higher stall speed than the same airplane with a light load. This is because the heavily loaded airplane must use a higher angle of attack to generate the required lift at any given time then when lightly loaded.

Question 43

define maneuvering speed?

Answer 43

The max speed at which abrupt control deflections or maneuvers can be performed without over stressing the airplane. -max takeoff weight squared divided by our landing weight and multiplied by our max VA

Question 44

define ground effect?

Answer 44

Ground effect is a reduction of induced drag due to the interference of the ground (or water) with the airflow around the wing. It looks and feels like an increase in lift when within one wing-span of the ground

Question 45

explain the different types of altitude?

Answer 45

indicated altitudes- altitude read right off the altimeter when it’s set to the correct local altimeter setting true altitude- true altitude above sea level absolute altitude- altitude above the ground pressure altitude- when the altimeter is set to 29.92 density altitude- pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature

Question 46

what is density altitude?

Answer 46

Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature variations. Air density is the single most important factor affecting aircraft performance. Density altitude is the altitude the airplane thinks it’s operating at, based on the temperature and pressure as it actually exists.

Question 47

what factors effect density altitude?

Answer 47

humidity increases density altitude because it decreases the density of the air (dry air is more dense than moist air)

Question 48

what’s indicated airspeed?

Answer 48

the reading taken directly off the airspeed indicator

Question 49

what is calibrated airspeed?

Answer 49

is indicated airspeed corrected for installation error or instrument error

Question 50

what is true airspeed?

Answer 50

is the actual speed of the aircraft through the air

Question 51

do we use our rods or cones when flying at night?

Answer 51

we use our rods at night and cones during the day

Question 52

when are position lights required for night flight?

Answer 52

at all times during night flight 14CFR 91.205

Question 53

when are anti collision lights required for night flight?

Answer 53

at all times if your aircraft was manufactured after august 11 1971

Question 54

what color are taxiway lights

Answer 54

blue

Question 55

what are REIL

Answer 55

runway end identifier lights

Question 56

what procedures should be taken if you have engine failure at night?

Answer 56

you should try and land at a lighted area(roads are a good option) avoid dark areas as they may be above trees or water

Question 57

what are the four cycles (strokes) of an engine?

Answer 57

intake, compression, power, and exhaust

Question 58

what does the throttle control?

Answer 58

the amount of air allowed into the carburetor or induction system

Question 59

which of our instruments operate on a gyroscope

Answer 59

attitude indicator, heading indicator, and turn coordinator

Question 60

what are the main 2 fundamentals of a gyroscope?

Answer 60

-rigidity in space(The spinning gyro inside our instrument maintains a constant attitude as long as no outside force changes it) -precession(When a deflective force is applied to the rim of a stationary gyro rotor, the rotor moves in the direction of the force. When the rotor is spinning, however, the same forces causes the rotor to move in a different direction, as though the force had been applied to a point 90° around the rim in the direction of rotation.)

Question 61

name the compass errors

Answer 61

turning errors- UNOS (undershoot,north,overshoot,south) dip errors-ANDS (accelerate,north,decelerate,south)

Question 62

what is the purpose of alternate static source

Answer 62

as a backup incase our primary static source gets clogged

Question 63

how does the pitot static system work

Answer 63

-It operates on the principle of pressure differential. -The Airspeed Indicator compares static pressure to dynamic pressure, to show us our indicated air speed. -The Vertical Speed Indicator compares changes in pressure to a calibrated leak in the instrument, to indicate how fast we are moving up or down -Altimeter compares static pressure to a reference pressure that we set

Question 64

what instrument operate in the pitot static system?

Answer 64

airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, and altimeter

Question 65

what’s the first indication of carb ice

Answer 65

drop in rpm

Question 66

define detonation and pre-ignition

Answer 66

detonation-is an uncontrolled firing of the fuel to air mixture within a cylinder(usually caused by excessive temperatures or lower fuel grades) pre-ignition- occurs when the fuel to air mixture ignites prematurely( usually caused by residual hot spot in the combustion chamber created by carbon deposits on a spark plug)

Question 67

what steps need to be taken if detonation or pre-ignition is detected?

Answer 67

discontinue the flight asap, can be devastating for engines and expensive

Question 68

what steps should be taken if you get a bad rpm drop while testing magnetos

Answer 68

run up engine 3-500 rpm’s above normal and lean mixture out towards peak exhaust gas temp

Question 69

what does low oil pressure mean and what should you do about it?

Answer 69

NEVER a good sign, heads towards the nearest airport

Question 70

what procedures should you take following a partial loss of power?

Answer 70

should be treated like a complete loss of power because a complete loss of failure is next to come

Question 71

what procedure should you conduct following an engine fire in flight?

Answer 71

mixture-cutoff fuel shutoff valve-off master switch-off cabin air-off airspeed- emergency decent

Question 72

what is the minimum altitude you can descend to while conducting a simulated emergency approach?

Answer 72

the minimum safe altitude over a non congested area is 500 feet AGL

Question 73

what is CFIT?

Answer 73

controlled flight into terrain (flying a perfectly good airplane into the ground, or a mountain)

Question 74

what should you do if the engine began running rough in flight?

Answer 74

LAND ASAP- “i’m going to find the nearest airport and start to head towards it, however i’m always gonna have a way out(open field) incase the conditions worsen”

Question 75

in the event of a alternator failure how long will your battery last?

Answer 75

no more than 30 minutes

Question 76

what will you lose if you lose your battery?

Answer 76

anything electronic- GPS, lights, radios, flaps (to conserve the battery it’s recommended to turn off all unused electronics)

Question 77

if your vacuum system failed which instruments would you lose?

Answer 77

attitude indicator and heading indicator

Question 78

what is class A airspace?

Answer 78

18,000 feet MSL to 59,999 MSL it covers the entire nation

Question 79

what are the VFR requirements in class A airspace?

Answer 79

class A airspace is IFR only

Question 80

what is class B airspace and how is it depicted?

Answer 80

-surrounds the busiest airports and can extend up to 10,000 feet MSL and can extend 15 nautical miles around the airport tower - depicted by a solid blue line

Question 81

as a student pilot can you fly into class b airspace?

Answer 81

not without specific training and proper endorsements from instructor

Question 82

what is required to fly into class B airspace? and what are the cloud clearance requirements?

Answer 82

-mode c transponder with altitude encoding within the 30nm veil -two way radio communications and MUST hear (cleared into class bravo airspace) -3 statute miles and clear of clouds

Question 83

what is class C airspace and how is it depicted?

Answer 83

-airports that aren’t as big at B airports and differ quite a bit in requirements - solid magenta lines depicting at least two layers of

Question 84

as a student pilot can you fly solo into C airspace?

Answer 84

yes

Question 85

what’s required to enter class C airspace?

Answer 85

-two way radio communication -mode C transponder inside and above the airspace not needed when flying

Question 86

what are VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements for class C?

Answer 86

3 statute miles, 1000 above, 500 below, 2000 to the sides

Question 87

what is class D airspace and how is it depicted?

Answer 87

-class D are relatively small but still can be busy - airport is colored blue and surrounded by blue dashed lines

Question 88

can a student fly into class D and what are the entry and VFR requirements?

Answer 88

-yes students can -two way radio communication -3 statute miles,1000 above, 500 below, 2000 to the sides

Question 89

what is class E airspace and is it controlled?

Answer 89

-it can start anywhere from the surface up to 17,999 MSL - yes it is controlled but by pilots operating around the airport

Question 90

what are the VFR visibility and cloud clearances for class E?

Answer 90

3 statute miles, 1000 above, 500 below, 2000 to the side

Question 91

what are the different types of class E airspace?

Answer 91

SETVODA S- surface(magenta dashed lines) E- extension(dashed magenta lines) T- transition, class E starting at 700AGL (faded magenta lines) V- instrument victor airways are class E O- offshore (blue zipper line (altitude listed)) D- domestic enroute, not depicted on sectionals, class E starts at 1200 AGL and extends up to 17,999 MSL A- above 14,500 MSL

Question 92

what is class G airspace?

Answer 92

class G is a layer of low lying airspace completely uncontrolled beginning at the surface extending up to 700AGL or 1200 AGL

Question 93

what are visibility and cloud clearances for G airspace?

Answer 93

day- 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds night- 3 statute miles and 1000 above 500 below 2000 to the sides

Question 94

Name the different types of special use airspace?

Answer 94

(MC-PRAWN) M-military operations area C- controlled firing P- prohibited area R- restricted area A- alert area W- warning area N- national security(TFR)

Question 95

define military operations area

Answer 95

shown on your sectional as enclosed by a line of magenta hash marks with a sharp outer edge. Military operations such as training exercises come and go. Permission to fly in an MOA is not required

Question 96

define controlled firing area

Answer 96

Here there may be military activity such as artillery fire that is suspended when radar detects approaching aircraft. Thus, these Controlled Firing Areas are not shown on the sectional

Question 97

define prohibited area

Answer 97

A prohibited area, is shown and clearly marked with the words "Prohibited" on your sectional, is an area enclosed in a unique wide blue border with a sharp outer edge. No Civil Aircraft can enter a prohibited area.

Question 98

define restricted area

Answer 98

Restricted Areas of various shapes all pieced together. Unseen hazards such as artillery practice, missile firing and other activities may take place. Travel in a Restricted Area may be possible when it is not activated, but permission MUST be obtained by the controlling agency.

Question 99

define alert areas

Answer 99

An Alert Area may involve high general aviation traffic, unusual air operations or frequent student training. The area will be marked with a blue border with a word or two of explanation. We are allowed to fly into Alert Areas without prior permission.

Question 100

define warning areas

Answer 100

this is a hazardous area that lies over international water beyond the three mile coastal limit

Question 101

define national security TFR

Answer 101

TFR stands for temporary flight restriction. These can be found around sporting events, presidential events etc... They are No-Fly zones.

Question 102

what airspace falls under the “other airspace”

Answer 102

TRSA’s (terminal radar service area) military training routes, wildlife refuge area

Question 103

define an aircraft accident

Answer 103

An occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage.

Question 104

define an aircraft incident

Answer 104

An occurrence other than an accident, associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations.

Question 105

when is immediate notification of the NTSB required

Answer 105

when a aircraft accident or one of the listed incidents occur - flight control system malfunction or failure inability of any required flight crew member to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness - inflight fire - aircraft collision in flight - damage to property other than aircraft that exceeds $25k

Question 106

define serious injury

Answer 106

-any injury that requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours commencing within 7 days of when injury was received - results in a fracture of any bone(except fingers toes nose) - causes severe hemorrhage, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage - involves any internal organs - involves second or third degree burns or any burns affecting more than 5% of the body

Question 107

under what conditions may something be dropped from the airplane

Answer 107

no PIC may allow a object to be dropped in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property on the ground, however if proper precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property

Question 108

what preflight actions must be taken before each flight

Answer 108

-For a flight not in the vicinity of an airport, weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays of which the pilot in command has been advised by ATC. -For any flight, runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the following takeoff and landing distance information -For civil aircraft for which an approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual containing takeoff and landing distance data is required, the takeoff and landing distance data contained therein; and other reliable information appropriate to the aircraft, relating to aircraft performance under expected values of airport elevation and runway slope, aircraft gross weight, and wind and temperature

Question 109

when must seat belts be worn and by whom

Answer 109

No pilot may take off a U.S.-registered civil aircraft unless the pilot in command of that aircraft ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that person's safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness. Each person must be properly secured during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing

Question 110

what are right of way rules?

Answer 110

in distress- and aircraft in distress has the right of way over all other air traffic converging- when aircraft of the same category are converging at the same altitude the aircraft to the right has the right of way -ballon has right of way over any other category - glider has right of way over an airship, powered parachute, weight shift controlled aircraft, airplane or rotorcraft - an airship has the right of way over a powered parachute, weight shift controlled aircraft, airplane or rotorcraft - an aircraft towing or refueling has right of way over all engine driven aircraft - if approaching headon both aircraft must turn right - an aircraft being over taken has the right of way over the aircraft overtaking - landing, When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is on final approach to land or to overtake that aircraft.

Question 111

what is the minimum safe altitude to operate an aircraft over a congested area

Answer 111

an altitude of 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2000 feet

Question 112

what is the minimum safe altitude for non congested areas

Answer 112

500 feet above the surface except over open water or sparsely populated areas, in that case the aircraft may not operate closer than 500 feet to and person vehicle vessel or structure

Question 113

explain the light gun signals

Answer 113

green- on ground cleared for takeoff/in flight cleared to land flashing green- on ground cleared to taxi/ return to land steady red- on ground stop/ in flight give way to other aircraft flashing red- on ground taxi clear of runway/ in flight airport unsafe don’t land flashing white- on ground return to starting point on airport/ in flight n/a alternating green and red- on ground and in flight exercise extreme caution

Question 114

what procedures should be taken to receive light gun signals

Answer 114

squawk 7600 enter traffic pattern 45* to the left downwind and watch the tower for signals

Question 115

what are the fuel requirements for VFR DAY AND VFR NIGHT

Answer 115

during the day to fly after destination for 30 minutes during night fly after destination for 45 minutes

Question 116

what is a ELT

Answer 116

emergency locator transmitter (406 mhz) is the current and standard and (121.5 mhz) are the older version

Question 117

when is a ELT not required

Answer 117

-Aircraft while engaged in scheduled flights by scheduled air carriers; -Aircraft while engaged in training operations conducted entirely within a 50-nautical mile radius of the airport from which such local flight operations began; -Aircraft while engaged in flight operations incident to the aerial application of chemicals and other substances for agricultural purposes - aircraft equipped to carry not more than one person

Question 118

what are the requirements regarding the use of supplemental oxygen?

Answer 118

-12,500 ft MSL- 14,000 ft MSL- crew members must use oxygen at these altitudes for greater than 30 minutes -14,000 MSL-15,000 MSL crew must use oxygen at all times at these altitudes - 15,000 MSL and above passengers must be provided oxygen but not required to use it

Question 119

what is wake turbulence and how do you avoid it

Answer 119

-wing tip vortices is a by product of lift created by all aircraft but more threatening from bigger aircraft - on takeoff rotate before the previous aircraft and stay above their glide scope - on landing land beyond previous aircraft and above their glide path

Question 120

before departure what items should passengers be briefed on

Answer 120

-no smoking -use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses - location of exits -location of survival equipment - normal emergency procedures

Question 121

what are the two most common ways to navigate

Answer 121

pilotage- navigation by visual references and landmarks dead reckoning- deriving from current position to future position using compass and clock

Question 122

what type of charts would you use for basic VFR navigation

Answer 122

a sectional chart and a terminal area chart

Question 123

what is a isotonic line?

Answer 123

a line of equal magnetic variation

Question 124

what is magnetic variation and how do you convert true and magnetic

Answer 124

-the difference between magnetic north and true north - add or subtract magnetic variation depending on east or west

Question 125

what is a VOR?

Answer 125

-acronym for (very high frequency omni range) -radiates an omnidirectional signal in other words it goes out in all directions

Question 126

what is a NDB

Answer 126

non directional beacon

Question 127

what is RNAV

Answer 127

short for area navigation, it’s a method of navigation that allows aircraft to fly between a network of navigational aids

Question 128

what is gps

Answer 128

gps operates by using satellites to establish a position (there are 27 orbiting us right now however only 24 are operating the other 3 are backup) you need 3 to 4 satellites to accurately display your position

Question 129

what’s are the methods of checking a vor for accuracy?

Answer 129

ground checks- turn the OBS to a certain heading while on proper frequency and note accuracy (should be +-4) airborne check- same guidelines at ground check except +-6 degrees

Question 130

what is a DME

Answer 130

distance measuring equipment, when tuned to a VOR frequency that is within range is tells you how far you are from that facility (it measure slant range so your altitude may effect actual distant from the facility)

Question 131

what are the 4 C’s of your lost procedure

Answer 131

confess- admit to yourself that you’re lost communicate- inform others of your situation, contact local ATC to see if they can help climb- altitude is your friend climb so you can see more conserve- conserve your fuel you don’t know how long you’ll be lost for

Question 132

how do you activate your vfr flight plan

Answer 132

ask ryan

Question 133

when is a VFR FLIGHT plan required

Answer 133

any time flying over air defense identification zone (ADIZ)

Question 134

what is CRM

Answer 134

crew resource management, how well are you using the resources available on the ground

Question 135

What is basic med

Answer 135

Had to have a 3rd class medical after July 14 2006, driver license, complete medical examine from state physician and online medical education course Can carry 6 passengers 7 including myself, max aircraft weight 12,500lbs, cannot fly for money or hire, at or below 18000, no greater than 250kts

Question 136

How to recover from a spin

Answer 136

P- power idle A- aileron neutral R- rudder opposite direction of turn E- elevator forward

Question 137

What is a trough

Answer 137

An elongated area of relatively low atmospheric pressure

Question 138

What is a squall line

Answer 138

a line of active thunderstorms, either continuous or with breaks, including contiguous precipitation areas resulting from the existence of the thunderstorms.

Question 139

What is a dry line

Answer 139

a boundary separating moist and dry air masses.  It typically lies north-south across the central and southern high Plains states during the spring and early summer, where it separates moist air from the Gulf of Mexico (to the east) and dry desert air from the southwestern states (to the west).

Question 140

What is a tropical wave

Answer 140

a trough or cyclonic curvature maximum in the trade wind easterlies.

Question 141

What is a Frontogenesis

Answer 141

the initial formation of a surface front or frontal zone, depicted on WPC's surface analysis and forecast charts as a dashed line with the graphical representation of the developing frontal type (the blue triangle for cold fronts, the red semicircle for warm fronts, etc...) drawn on each segment

Question 142

What is a frontolysis

Answer 142

the dissipation or weakening of a front, depicted as a dashed line with the graphical representation of the weakening frontal type drawn on every other segment

Question 143

What is adverse yaw

Answer 143

A flight condition in which the nose of the aircraft tends to turn away from the intended direction of turn. The drag from the down aileron on the wing that rolls higher in the turn, is greater than the up aileron on the wing that rolls low. It is this additional drag that causes adverse yaw

Question 144

Explain the electrical system

Answer 144

24v battery with a 28v direct current system 60 amp alternator

Question 145

What would you have to do if you move addresses

Answer 145

Report address change within 30 days

Question 146

Does airworthiness expire

Answer 146

No as long as you adhere to the airworthiness directives

Question 147

Who is responsible for keeping a plane in airworthy condition

Answer 147

Owner and operator

Question 148

What’s the difference between Hobbs and tach time

Answer 148

Tach time- engine hours Hobbs- battery/master time

Question 149

Can you fly beyond a annual inspection

Answer 149

Yes if you get a special flight permit from the fsdo

Question 150

what are the left turning tendencies

Answer 150

torque- equal and opposite reaction felt(high power low airspeed yaw to the left) spiraling slipstream-wind from prop goes around plane and hits left vertical stabilizer p-factor-the descending blade on the right takes a larger bite of air then the accenting blade on the left gryoscopic procession- a force applied will be felt 90 degrees later in the direction of rotation

Question 151

what is our atmosphere made up of

Answer 151

78% nitrogen 21% oxygen other gases including carbon dioxide make up the other 1%

Question 152

when must a ELT be replaced or recharged

Answer 152

when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour or 50% of its useful life has expired