Checkride Flashcards
What are the required documents and certificates to become a private pilot?
-17 years of age
- at least a 3rd class medical
- read, write, and speak English
- meet applicable and required aeronautical experience requirements
- pass the written
- receive required ground and flight endorsements
what are your privileges and limitations?
limitations
- cannot pay less than pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight made with passengers( fuel, oil, airports fees, and rental fees)
-private pilots cannot fly for hire or money
privileges
- you can demonstrate an aircraft to a prospective buyer as long as you are an aircraft sales person or broker and have at least 200 hours logged
- you may act as PIC of an aircraft towing a glider if you meet 14 CFR 61.69 requirements
how do you remain a private pilot?
-within the preceding 24 calendar months you must complete a flight review in an aircraft you’re rated in by a authorized flight instructor who will provide a logbook endorsement upon successful completion of the required ground instruction
and flight time.
-instead of a flight review additional rating such as instrument seaplane or multi by a flight instructor can replace a flight review
- to carry passengers you must complete 3 takeoff and landings within the preceding 90 days in the same category, class and type rating( if it’s a tail wheel the landings must be full stop( at night the pic must have made 3 landings to a full stop 1 hour after sunset 1 hour before sunrise))
what documents are required aboard the aircraft?
A- airworthiness certificate
R- registration
R- radio certificate (international only)
O- owners manual (flight manual)
W- weight and balance
14 CFR 91.203 and 91.9
E- external data plate
D- Deviation card
do aircraft registrations expire?
yes every 7 years the owner must re-register their aircraft with the FAA by submitting the appropriate form and registration fee
what documents must you always have with you?
-photo id
-pilot certificate( or student)
-medical
-maybe logbook to show proof of endorsements
what inspections are required for your aircraft?
AVIATES
A- AD’s (annual inspection)
V- VOR check every 30 days (ifr only)
I- inspections (annual and 100 hour)
A- altimeter every 24 calendar months (ifr only)
T- transponder every 24 calendar months
E- ELT every 12 calendar months
S- static system every 24 calendar months (ifr only)
14 CFR 91.409
* 100 hour inspection is for aircraft flown for hire only
what is the difference between a 100 hour an annual?
The difference involves the level of certification the mechanic signing off the work is required to have. An A&P (Airframe and Powerplant) mechanic can sign off a 100 hour inspection, while an A&P with Inspection Authorization is required to sign off an annual inspection
can a 100 hour inspection take the place of a annual?
NO, however and ANNUAL can take place of a 100 hour
14 CFR 91.409
what is a MEL?
mel stands for minimal equipment list. (the equipment that’s allowed to be broken and still fly)
AC 91-67
what is a special flight permit?
-A special flight permit gives temporary airworthiness to an aircraft that does not have current airworthy status. This is
usually for a flight on a certain day to only one airport
-local FSDO’s may approve me to fly with a special flight permit
explain the 3 types of medicals?
1st class medical
- pilots who fly professionally as atps are required to have this medical
- this is the highest grade and most extensive medical
- the duration of a 1st class medical is 12 months if under 40(6 months over 40)
- to be eligible for the first class medical certificate the applicant must( distant acuity of 20/20 in each eye and near vision 20/40, ability to distinguish aviation red aviation signal green and white, normal field of vision, normal field of hearing
2nd class medical
- pilots who hold and use a commercial license are required to have this medical
- the duration is 12 calendar months
distant acuity of 20/20 in each eye, and near vision 20/40
- ability to distinguish aviation red, aviation signal green and white
-normal field of vision
- normal field of hearing
3rd class medical
- every pilot holding a private pilot certificate or better
- duration is 60 calendar months for applicants under 40 (24 months for those over 40)
- distant acuity of 20/40 in each eye with or without corrective lenses, and near vision 20/40
- ability to distinguish aviation red, aviation signal green and white
-normal field of vision
- normal field of hearing
what is hypoxia?
hypoxia is most simply put as a lack of oxygen to the brain
what are the 4 types of hypoxia?
- hypoxic hypoxia is the most common and is caused by decreased oxygen or the inability to diffuse the oxygen across the lungs. if this happens the person has less than 100% saturation of the blood in the arteries. (over 12,500 feet or damaged lungs causes oxygen transfer to be impaired
- hypemic hypoxia is caused by the reduction of the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood. the oxygen is available but there isn’t enough blood to carry it. carbon monoxide poisoning also cause this type of hypoxia.
- stagnant hypoxia is caused by reduced cardiac output(the pump isn’t working well) or by venous pooling during high g stresses
- hiatotoxic hypoxia occurs when all systems are working but the cells can’t “take” the oxygen from the blood(alcohol or cyanide poisoning can cause this)
what are the symptoms of hypoxia?
headache, dizziness, cyanosis, and euphoria
explain hyperventilation?
Hyperventilation can also be called “over-breathing” the person is breathing at too rapid a rate and exhaling too much carbon dioxide from the blood. (best cure is the breathe into a bag or calm yourself or your passenger down) symptoms of hyperventilation and hypoxia are the exact same
name and explain the 8 types of special disorientation?
ICEFLAGS
the leans- The leans occur when a quick correction of a banked attitude happens too slowly. The sensors in your inner ear send your brain the sensation of banking in the
opposite direction.
coriolis illusion- Is caused by making a
quick head movement during a constant rate turn that has ceased stimulating the inner ear
graveyard spin- The pilot recovering from a spin that had stabilized enough to stop the movement of fluid in the inner ear can create the illusion that he or she has entered a spin in the other direction. The risk is that they will reenter the original spin.
graveyard spiral- While turning the airplane you notice you have lost altitude. Your sensory systems makes you feel as though you are in level flight so you pitch up. Although because you are actually in a turn, the abrupt pitching up tightens the turn and you lose even more altitude, increasing
your rate of descent.
somatogravic illusion- during takeoff the pilot gets pushed back into his seat giving the illusion he’s in a pitch up attitude to correct the pilot noses the plane over towards the earth
inversion illusion- a quick change from climb to level flight makes the pilot feel as though he or she is tumbling backwards
elevator illusion- On a turbulent day an updraft could cause extreme vertical acceleration the pilot mistakes for being in a climb.The pilot may correct for the mistaken impression of a climb by pitching the aircraft nose downward. This illusion also has the opposite effect with downdrafts. Although intense, this illusion presents relatively little danger, considering it usually happens at higher altitudes.
false horizon- can be caused by city lights sloping clouds, stars, and darkness
autokinesis- at night when staring at a light for too long it begins to “move”
what’s is standard temperature and pressure?
standard temp is 15c (59f) and 29.92 inches of mercury (1013.2 hectopascals)
what are the 3 main layers of atmosphere?
the troposphere, tropopause, and the stratosphere
the cause of all weather is a result of a?
heat exchange, uneven heating of the earths surface causes atmospheric circulation
wind is the result of?
changes/differences in pressure
name and explain the 4 types of fog?
radiation fog-This type of fog forms at night under clear skies with calm winds when heat absorbed by the earth’s surface during the
day is radiated into space. As the earth’s surface continues to cool, provided a deep enough layer of moist air is present
near the ground, the humidity will reach 100% and fog will form. Radiation fog varies in depth from 3 feet to about 1,000 feet and is always found at ground level and usually remains stationary.
advection fog-by the horizontal movement of warm moist air over a cold surface. This means that advection fog can sometimes be distinguished from radiation fog by its horizontal motion along the ground.
upslope fog- Upslope fog forms when light winds push moist air up a hillside or mountainside to a level where the air
becomes saturated and condensation occurs.
steam fog- Steam fog forms when cold air moves over warm water. when the cool air mixes with the warm moist air over the water, the moist air cools until its humidity reaches 100% and fog forms
compare stable vs. unstable air
stable air- calm air (statiform clouds, continuous precipitation, smooth air, and fair to poor visibility in haze and smoke)
unstable air- turbulent ( cumulus clouds, showery precipitation, good visibility, strong surface winds)
what is the difference between a air mass and a front?
air mass- An air mass is a large body of air that has similar temperature and moisture properties throughout
front- A front is defined as the transition zone between two air masses of different density.
fronts-Cold Front (1) - Leading edge of colder air that is replacing warmer air.
Warm Front (2) - Leading edge of warmer air that is replacing cooler air.
Stationary Front (3) - A front that is not moving.
Occluded Front (4) - When a cold front catches up to a warm front
what causes turbulence?
The main causes of turbulence are, convective currents, obstructions to wind flow, and wind shear.
name and explain the 3 types of icing?
-Clear, hard and glossy, forms after impact of large drops spread over the airfoil and freeze “sheet-like” over the airfoil
-Rime, brittle and frost like, created by small drops that freeze rapidly before the drop has time to spread across the airfoil
-Mixed, hard and rough, forms when drops vary in size or when snow is mixed in with the rain.
what 3 ingredients must be present for a thunderstorm to develop?
-sufficient water vapor
-uplifting
-and unstable lapse rate
what are the 3 stages of a thunderstorm?
-cumulus stage
-mature stage
-dissipating stage
what are isobars?
lines depicted on a weather chart showing areas of like pressure
what are metars, when are they issued and how long are they valid for?
-aviation routine weather reports
- issued 55 minutes past the hour
- hourly or special metal can be issued at any time significant weather changes
- 8 kilometers or 4.31 nm
what are TAF’s, when are they issued and for how long?
-terminal aerodrome forecasts
- usually valid for 24hrs
-issued 4 times a day
what are PIREPS and when are they issued
-PIREP’s are issued by you the pilot. PIREPS (Pilot Reports) are the best indication of the actual conditions of flight (turbulence, visibility, icing) a pilot can get, because they
reflect the actual experience of other pilots in the area.
what 4 forces are always acting on a airplane?
thrust, drag,weight, and lift
what is angle of attack?
the acute angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the direction of the air that strikes the airfoil
what is bernoullis principle?
It is the main principle which explains how lift is created. Since the pressure of a fluid is proportional to its velocity, airflow over the upper surface of an airfoil causes a reduction in air-pressure. This is because the airstream has been sped up in relation to slower moving, higher pressure airflow at the lower
surface.
Carb is another example of this
what is a stall?
Sudden loss of lift when the angle of attack increases to a point where the flow of air breaks away from the surface of the wing or airfoil, causing lift to be lost and the aircraft to drop.
what factors affect stall speed?
weight and center of gravity
what factors affect stall speed?
weight and center of gravity
what is p-factor
because the prop turns clockwise it forces the aircraft to pull to the left
what are the 2 types of drag?
parasite drag-this term is a catch-all for the forces that work to slow the aircraft. The three types of parasite drag are skin drag, form drag, and interference drag
induced drag- a product of producing lift
what is load factor?
-the load the wings are supporting divided by the total weight of the airplane (the ratio between the lift generated by the wings at any given time divided by the total weight of the aircraft. It’s often expressed in “G’s”, meaning a multiple of the force of gravity)
what effect does an increase in load factor have on stall speed?
A heavily loaded airplane has a higher stall speed than the same airplane with a light load. This is because the heavily loaded airplane must use a higher angle of attack to generate the required lift at any given time then when lightly loaded.
define maneuvering speed?
The max speed at which abrupt control deflections or maneuvers can be performed without over stressing the airplane.
-max takeoff weight squared divided by our landing weight and multiplied by our max VA
define ground effect?
Ground effect is a reduction of induced drag due to the interference of the ground (or water) with the airflow around the wing. It looks and feels like an increase in lift when within one wing-span of the ground
explain the different types of altitude?
indicated altitudes- altitude read right off the altimeter when it’s set to the correct local altimeter setting
true altitude- true altitude above sea level
absolute altitude- altitude above the ground
pressure altitude- when the altimeter is set to 29.92
density altitude- pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature
what is density altitude?
Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature variations. Air density is the single most important factor affecting aircraft performance. Density altitude is the altitude the airplane thinks it’s operating
at, based on the temperature and pressure as it actually exists.
what factors effect density altitude?
humidity increases density altitude because it decreases the density of the air (dry air is more dense than moist air)
what’s indicated airspeed?
the reading taken directly off the airspeed indicator
what is calibrated airspeed?
is indicated airspeed corrected for installation error or instrument error
what is true airspeed?
is the actual speed of the aircraft through the air
do we use our rods or cones when flying at night?
we use our rods at night and cones during the day
when are position lights required for night flight?
at all times during night flight
14CFR 91.205
when are anti collision lights required for night flight?
at all times if your aircraft was manufactured after august 11 1971
what color are taxiway lights
blue
what are REIL
runway end identifier lights
what procedures should be taken if you have engine failure at night?
you should try and land at a lighted area(roads are a good option) avoid dark areas as they may be above trees or water
what are the four cycles (strokes) of an engine?
intake, compression, power, and exhaust
what does the throttle control?
the amount of air allowed into the carburetor or induction system
which of our instruments operate on a gyroscope
attitude indicator, heading indicator, and turn coordinator
what are the main 2 fundamentals of a gyroscope?
-rigidity in space(The spinning gyro inside our instrument maintains a constant attitude as long as no outside force changes it)
-precession(When a deflective force is applied to the rim of a stationary gyro rotor, the rotor moves in the direction of the force. When the rotor is spinning, however, the same forces causes the rotor to move in a different direction, as though the force had been applied to a point 90° around the rim in the direction of rotation.)
name the compass errors
turning errors- UNOS (undershoot,north,overshoot,south)
dip errors-ANDS (accelerate,north,decelerate,south)
what is the purpose of alternate static source
as a backup incase our primary static source gets clogged
how does the pitot static system work
-It operates on the principle of pressure differential.
-The Airspeed Indicator compares static pressure to dynamic pressure, to show us our indicated air speed.
-The Vertical Speed Indicator compares changes in pressure to a calibrated leak in the instrument, to indicate how fast we are
moving up or down
-Altimeter compares static pressure to a reference pressure that we set
what instrument operate in the pitot static system?
airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, and altimeter
what’s the first indication of carb ice
drop in rpm
define detonation and pre-ignition
detonation-is an uncontrolled firing of the fuel to air mixture within a cylinder(usually caused by excessive temperatures or lower fuel grades)
pre-ignition- occurs when the fuel to air mixture ignites prematurely( usually caused by residual hot spot in the combustion chamber created by carbon deposits on a spark plug)
what steps need to be taken if detonation or pre-ignition is detected?
discontinue the flight asap, can be devastating for engines and expensive
what steps should be taken if you get a bad rpm drop while testing magnetos
run up engine 3-500 rpm’s above normal and lean mixture out towards peak exhaust gas temp
what does low oil pressure mean and what should you do about it?
NEVER a good sign, heads towards the nearest airport
what procedures should you take following a partial loss of power?
should be treated like a complete loss of power because a complete loss of failure is next to come
what procedure should you conduct following an engine fire in flight?
mixture-cutoff
fuel shutoff valve-off
master switch-off
cabin air-off
airspeed- emergency decent
what is the minimum altitude you can descend to while conducting a simulated emergency approach?
the minimum safe altitude over a non congested area is 500 feet AGL
what is CFIT?
controlled flight into terrain (flying a perfectly good airplane into the ground, or a mountain)
what should you do if the engine began running rough in flight?
LAND ASAP- “i’m going to find the nearest airport and start to head towards it, however i’m always gonna have a way out(open field) incase the conditions worsen”
in the event of a alternator failure how long will your battery last?
no more than 30 minutes
what will you lose if you lose your battery?
anything electronic- GPS, lights, radios, flaps (to conserve the battery it’s recommended to turn off all unused electronics)
if your vacuum system failed which instruments would you lose?
attitude indicator and heading indicator
what is class A airspace?
18,000 feet MSL to 59,999 MSL
it covers the entire nation
what are the VFR requirements in class A airspace?
class A airspace is IFR only
what is class B airspace and how is it depicted?
-surrounds the busiest airports and can extend up to 10,000 feet MSL and can extend 15 nautical miles around the airport tower
- depicted by a solid blue line
as a student pilot can you fly into class b airspace?
not without specific training and proper endorsements from instructor
what is required to fly into class B airspace? and what are the cloud clearance requirements?
-mode c transponder with altitude encoding within the 30nm veil
-two way radio communications and MUST hear (cleared into class bravo airspace)
-3 statute miles and clear of clouds
what is class C airspace and how is it depicted?
-airports that aren’t as big at B airports and differ quite a bit in requirements
- solid magenta lines depicting at least two layers of
as a student pilot can you fly solo into C airspace?
yes
what’s required to enter class C airspace?
-two way radio communication
-mode C transponder inside and above the airspace not needed when flying
what are VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements for class C?
3 statute miles, 1000 above, 500 below, 2000 to the sides
what is class D airspace and how is it depicted?
-class D are relatively small but still can be busy
- airport is colored blue and surrounded by blue dashed lines
can a student fly into class D and what are the entry and VFR requirements?
-yes students can
-two way radio communication
-3 statute miles,1000 above, 500 below, 2000 to the sides
what is class E airspace and is it controlled?
-it can start anywhere from the surface up to 17,999 MSL
- yes it is controlled but by pilots operating around the airport
what are the VFR visibility and cloud clearances for class E?
3 statute miles, 1000 above, 500 below, 2000 to the side
what are the different types of class E airspace?
SETVODA
S- surface(magenta dashed lines)
E- extension(dashed magenta lines)
T- transition, class E starting at 700AGL (faded magenta lines)
V- instrument victor airways are class E
O- offshore (blue zipper line (altitude listed))
D- domestic enroute, not depicted on sectionals, class E starts at 1200 AGL and extends up to 17,999 MSL
A- above 14,500 MSL
what is class G airspace?
class G is a layer of low lying airspace completely uncontrolled beginning at the surface extending up to 700AGL or 1200 AGL
what are visibility and cloud clearances for G airspace?
day- 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds
night- 3 statute miles and 1000 above 500 below 2000 to the sides
Name the different types of special use airspace?
(MC-PRAWN)
M-military operations area
C- controlled firing
P- prohibited area
R- restricted area
A- alert area
W- warning area
N- national security(TFR)
define military operations area
shown on your sectional as enclosed by a line of magenta hash marks with a sharp outer edge. Military operations such as training exercises come and go. Permission to fly in an MOA is not required
define controlled firing area
Here there may be military activity such as artillery fire that is suspended when radar detects approaching aircraft. Thus, these Controlled Firing Areas are not shown on the sectional
define prohibited area
A prohibited area, is shown and clearly
marked with the words “Prohibited” on your sectional, is an area enclosed in a unique wide blue border with a sharp outer edge. No Civil Aircraft can enter a prohibited area.
define restricted area
Restricted Areas of various shapes all pieced together. Unseen hazards such as artillery practice, missile firing and other activities may take place. Travel in a Restricted Area may be possible when it is not activated, but permission MUST be obtained by the controlling agency.
define alert areas
An Alert Area may involve high general
aviation traffic, unusual air operations or frequent student training. The area will be marked with a blue border with a word or two of explanation. We are allowed to fly into Alert Areas without prior permission.
define warning areas
this is a hazardous area that lies over international water beyond the three mile coastal limit
define national security TFR
TFR stands for temporary flight restriction. These can be found around sporting events,
presidential events etc… They are No-Fly zones.
what airspace falls under the “other airspace”
TRSA’s (terminal radar service area) military training routes, wildlife refuge area
define an aircraft accident
An occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage.
define an aircraft incident
An occurrence other than an accident, associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations.
when is immediate notification of the NTSB required
when a aircraft accident or one of the listed incidents occur
- flight control system malfunction or failure
inability of any required flight crew member to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness
- inflight fire
- aircraft collision in flight
- damage to property other than aircraft that exceeds $25k
define serious injury
-any injury that requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours commencing within 7 days of when injury was received
- results in a fracture of any bone(except fingers toes nose)
- causes severe hemorrhage, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage
- involves any internal organs
- involves second or third degree burns or any burns affecting more than 5% of the body
under what conditions may something be dropped from the airplane
no PIC may allow a object to be dropped in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property on the ground, however if proper precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property
what preflight actions must be taken before each flight
-For a flight not in the vicinity of an airport, weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays of which the pilot in command has been advised by ATC.
-For any flight, runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the following takeoff and landing distance information
-For civil aircraft for which an approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual containing takeoff and landing distance data is required, the takeoff and landing distance data contained therein; and other reliable information appropriate to the aircraft, relating to aircraft performance under expected values of airport elevation and runway slope, aircraft gross weight, and wind and temperature
when must seat belts be worn and by whom
No pilot may take off a U.S.-registered civil aircraft unless the pilot in command of that aircraft ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that person’s safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness. Each person must be properly secured during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing
what are right of way rules?
in distress- and aircraft in distress has the right of way over all other air traffic
converging- when aircraft of the same category are converging at the same altitude the aircraft to the right has the right of way
-ballon has right of way over any other category
- glider has right of way over an airship, powered parachute, weight shift controlled aircraft, airplane or rotorcraft
- an airship has the right of way over a powered parachute, weight shift controlled aircraft, airplane or rotorcraft
- an aircraft towing or refueling has right of way over all engine driven aircraft
- if approaching headon both aircraft must turn right
- an aircraft being over taken has the right of way over the aircraft overtaking
- landing, When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is on final approach to land or to overtake that aircraft.
what is the minimum safe altitude to operate an aircraft over a congested area
an altitude of 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2000 feet
what is the minimum safe altitude for non congested areas
500 feet above the surface except over open water or sparsely populated areas, in that case the aircraft may not operate closer than 500 feet to and person vehicle vessel or structure
explain the light gun signals
green- on ground cleared for takeoff/in flight cleared to land
flashing green- on ground cleared to taxi/ return to land
steady red- on ground stop/ in flight give way to other aircraft
flashing red- on ground taxi clear of runway/ in flight airport unsafe don’t land
flashing white- on ground return to starting point on airport/ in flight n/a
alternating green and red- on ground and in flight exercise extreme caution
what procedures should be taken to receive light gun signals
squawk 7600 enter traffic pattern 45* to the left downwind and watch the tower for signals
what are the fuel requirements for VFR DAY AND VFR NIGHT
during the day to fly after destination for 30 minutes
during night fly after destination for 45 minutes
what is a ELT
emergency locator transmitter
(406 mhz) is the current and standard and (121.5 mhz) are the older version
when is a ELT not required
-Aircraft while engaged in scheduled flights by scheduled air carriers;
-Aircraft while engaged in training operations conducted entirely within a 50-nautical mile radius of the airport from which such local flight operations began;
-Aircraft while engaged in flight operations incident to the aerial application of chemicals and other substances for agricultural purposes
- aircraft equipped to carry not more than one person
what are the requirements regarding the use of supplemental oxygen?
-12,500 ft MSL- 14,000 ft MSL- crew members must use oxygen at these altitudes for greater than 30 minutes
-14,000 MSL-15,000 MSL crew must use oxygen at all times at these altitudes
- 15,000 MSL and above passengers must be provided oxygen but not required to use it
what is wake turbulence and how do you avoid it
-wing tip vortices is a by product of lift created by all aircraft but more threatening from bigger aircraft
- on takeoff rotate before the previous aircraft and stay above their glide scope
- on landing land beyond previous aircraft and above their glide path
before departure what items should passengers be briefed on
-no smoking
-use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses
- location of exits
-location of survival equipment
- normal emergency procedures
what are the two most common ways to navigate
pilotage- navigation by visual references and landmarks
dead reckoning- deriving from current position to future position using compass and clock
what type of charts would you use for basic VFR navigation
a sectional chart and a terminal area chart
what is a isotonic line?
a line of equal magnetic variation
what is magnetic variation and how do you convert true and magnetic
-the difference between magnetic north and true north
- add or subtract magnetic variation depending on east or west
what is a VOR?
-acronym for (very high frequency omni range)
-radiates an omnidirectional signal in other words it goes out in all directions
what is a NDB
non directional beacon
what is RNAV
short for area navigation, it’s a method of navigation that allows aircraft to fly between a network of navigational aids
what is gps
gps operates by using satellites to establish a position (there are 27 orbiting us right now however only 24 are operating the other 3 are backup) you need 3 to 4 satellites to accurately display your position
what’s are the methods of checking a vor for accuracy?
ground checks- turn the OBS to a certain heading while on proper frequency and note accuracy (should be +-4)
airborne check- same guidelines at ground check except +-6 degrees
what is a DME
distance measuring equipment, when tuned to a VOR frequency that is within range is tells you how far you are from that facility (it measure slant range so your altitude may effect actual distant from the facility)
what are the 4 C’s of your lost procedure
confess- admit to yourself that you’re lost
communicate- inform others of your situation, contact local ATC to see if they can help
climb- altitude is your friend climb so you can see more
conserve- conserve your fuel you don’t know how long you’ll be lost for
how do you activate your vfr flight plan
ask ryan
when is a VFR FLIGHT plan required
any time flying over air defense identification zone (ADIZ)
what is CRM
crew resource management, how well are you using the resources available on the ground
What is basic med
Had to have a 3rd class medical after July 14 2006, driver license, complete medical examine from state physician and online medical education course
Can carry 6 passengers 7 including myself, max aircraft weight 12,500lbs, cannot fly for money or hire, at or below 18000, no greater than 250kts
How to recover from a spin
P- power idle
A- aileron neutral
R- rudder opposite direction of turn
E- elevator forward
What is a trough
An elongated area of relatively low atmospheric pressure
What is a squall line
a line of active thunderstorms, either continuous or with
breaks, including contiguous precipitation areas resulting from the
existence of the thunderstorms.
What is a dry line
a boundary separating moist and dry air masses.It typically lies
north-south across the central and southern high Plains states during the
spring and early summer, where it separates moist air from the Gulf of
Mexico (to the east) and dry desert air from the southwestern states (to
the west).
What is a tropical wave
a trough or cyclonic curvature maximum in the trade
wind easterlies.
What is a Frontogenesis
the initial formation of a surface front or frontal zone,
depicted on WPC’s surface analysis and forecast charts as a dashed line
with the graphical representation of the developing frontal type (the blue
triangle for cold fronts, the red semicircle for warm fronts, etc…) drawn on
each segment
What is a frontolysis
the dissipation or weakening of a front, depicted as a dashed
line with the graphical representation of the weakening frontal type
drawn on every other segment
What is adverse yaw
A flight condition in which the nose of the aircraft tends to turn away from the intended direction of turn. The drag from the down aileron on the wing that rolls higher in the turn, is greater than the up aileron on the wing that rolls low. It is this additional drag that causes adverse yaw
Explain the electrical system
24v battery with a 28v direct current system 60 amp alternator
What would you have to do if you move addresses
Report address change within 30 days
Does airworthiness expire
No as long as you adhere to the airworthiness directives
Who is responsible for keeping a plane in airworthy condition
Owner and operator
What’s the difference between Hobbs and tach time
Tach time- engine hours
Hobbs- battery/master time
Can you fly beyond a annual inspection
Yes if you get a special flight permit from the fsdo
what are the left turning tendencies
torque- equal and opposite reaction felt(high power low airspeed yaw to the left)
spiraling slipstream-wind from prop goes around plane and hits left vertical stabilizer
p-factor-the descending blade on the right takes a larger bite of air then the accenting blade on the left
gryoscopic procession- a force applied will be felt 90 degrees later in the direction of rotation
what is our atmosphere made up of
78% nitrogen 21% oxygen other gases including carbon dioxide make up the other 1%
when must a ELT be replaced or recharged
when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour or 50% of its useful life has expired
