Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Women's Health > Check Yourself: PKM Lectures > Flashcards

Check Yourself: PKM Lectures Flashcards

1
Q

According to ACOG, a baby delivered between 39 and 40 weeks 6 days is considered ____ term

A

Full

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

According to ACOG, a baby delivered between 37 and 38 weeks 6 days is considered ____ term

A

Early

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

According to ACOG, a baby delivered less than or equal to 36 weeks 6 days is considered ____ term

A

Pre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

According to ACOG, a baby delivered in the 41st week is considered ____ term

A

Later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

According to ACOG, a baby delivered after 42 weeks is considered ____ term

A

Post

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The number of times a woman has been pregnant

A

Gravida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The number of times a woman has birthed a fetus of 20 weeks gestation regardless of outcome or presence of multiples

A

Parity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A woman who has never been pregnant NOR carried a pregnancy past 20 weeks is considered a ____

A

Nulliparous woman (nullip)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A woman who has had more than one pregnancy is considered ____ gravida

A

Multi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A woman who has never been pregnant is considered ____ gravida

A

Nulli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A woman who is in her first pregnancy is considered ____ gravida

A

Primi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A woman who has had 4 or more pregnancies is considered ____

A

Grand Multipara

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A woman who has had 7 or more pregnancies is considered ____

A

Great Grand Multip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T/F Parity is determined by the number of pregnancies resulting in fetuses delivered.

A

FALSE. It is determined by the number of pregnancies reaching 20 weeks REGARDLESS of fetuses delivered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Term (T) = number of infants born at or after ____ weeks gestation

A

37

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Preterm (P) = number of infants born before ____ weeks but after ____ weeks

A

37, 24 (viability)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Abortions (A) = number of spontaneous or induced abortions from ____ to ____ weeks

A

Impregnation, 24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Living (L) = number of children ____

A

Alive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A woman who has been pregnant twice who lost one fetus at 11 weeks and carried twins to 34 weeks gestation with both babies surviving delivery and living today…

A

G2T0P2A1L2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A woman who has been pregnant three times who lost two twin fetuses at 22 weeks, lost another at 10 weeks, and carried one to to 38 weeks 5 days gestation with one child surviving delivery and living today…

A

G3T1P0A3L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A woman who displays linea nigra, chloasma, and amenorrhea is showing ____ signs and symptoms of pregnancy

A

Presumptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A woman who’s breasts and montgomery tubercles are getting larger, is experiencing some mastodynia, and who’s nipples are getting darker is showing ____ signs and symptoms of pregnancy

A

Presumptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A woman who is displaying chadwick sign, uterine soufflé, and hegar sign is showing ____ signs and symptoms of pregnancy

A

Probable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia as a result of increased blood flow

A

Chadwick sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A blowing sound coordinated with cardiac systole heard on auscultation of the pregnant uterus

A

Uterine souffle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The softening and compressibility of the lower segment of the uterus

A

Hegar sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The presence of fetal skeleton on radiograph, detection of fetal heart tones, and observable fetal heart activity are all ____ signs and symptoms of pregnancy

A

Positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When is a immunological pregnancy test usually positive?

A

4-7 days after missed period of pregnant woman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

T/F HCG can be detected earlier by urine test than by blood test.

A

FALSE. Presence of HCG in the blood can be detected about 11 days after conception while HCG levels in the urine cannot be detected until about 12-14 days after conception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In general, HCG levels double every ____ hours reaching a peak at ____ to ____ weeks of pregnancy before it declines and levels off.

A

72, 8, 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A fetal heart beat should be detectable by ultrasound by about ____ weeks

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In general, pregnancy lasts ____ days or ____ weeks or ____ months +/- ____ weeks from the ____ day of the LNMP

A

280, 40, 9, 2, first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

In Oregon, pregnancy is ____ days or ____ weeks +/- ____ weeks from the ____ ovulation in a normal ____ day cycle

A

266, 38, 2, last, 28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Use Naegele’s rule to calculate the due date of the following woman:

Last LNMP: July 24th, 2013

A

July 24th, 2013 - 3 months = April 24th, 2013
April 24th, 2013 + 7 days = May 1st, 2013
May 1st, 2013 + 1 year = May 1st 2014 due date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

T/F Pregnancy is a normal physiological event that is complicated only about 20-25% of the time.

A

FALSE. Though it is a very normal physiological event, it is only complicated 5-20% of the time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

‘POPRAS’ stands for…

A

Problem Oriented Prenatal Risk Assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A pelvic type that resembles an oval running anterior to posterior is considered ____

A

Anthropoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A pelvic type that resembles a circle is considered ____

A

Gynecoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A pelvic type that resembles an oval running laterally is considered ____

A

Platypelloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A pelvic type that resembles a heart with the ‘point’ of the heart at the pubic symphysis is considered ____

A

Android

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The classic prenatal screening test is the ____ screen

A

Triple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The quadruple screen includes the ____, ____, and ____ of the triple screen and adds ____

A

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), beta - HCG, and estriol (uE3), hormone inhibin-A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Universal screening for gestational diabetes should be performed between ____ and ____ weeks and is done by giving a ____ gram glucose challenge

A

26, 28, 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When should you perform a RhoGAM?

A

28 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When should you perform a group B beta-hemolytic strep culture?

A

36 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

T/F Prenatal visits are usually schedule every 4 weeks from 0-32 weeks gestation, every 2 weeks from 32-36 weeks gestation, then every week from 36 weeks to delivery.

A

TRUE DAT!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The components of the A-F screening include…

A 
A) Amniotic fluid - Leak or Gush?
B) Bleeding?
C) Contractions 5-10 min apart or closer?
D) Dysuria?
E) Eclampsia/Preeclampsia?
F) Fetal Movements?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

S/S of Eclampsia or Preeclampsia include…

A

Headache, vision changes, abdominal/epigastric changes, marked edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which of the following are NOT a common complaint of pregnancy? Increased urination, dependent edema, joint/back/pelvic pain/pressure, leg cramps, craziness, breast soreness, fatigue, varicose veins, dizziness, gingival hypertrophy, stretch marks, weight loss, hemorrhoids, morning sickness, heavy bleeding.

A

Craziness, dizziness, weight loss, heavy bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

ACOG and March of Dimes recommend ____ to ____ pounds of weight gain in a “normally” weighted pregnant woman.

A

25-35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

T/F A pregnant woman should increase her caloric intake by about 100-300kcal per day.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Recommended weight gain for a woman pregnant with twins is ____ to ____ pounds.

A

35, 45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

T/F The greater a pregnant woman’s BMI, the more weight she should plan to gain during pregnancy

A

FALSE. The opposite is true

54
Q

Average first labor lasts ____ hours with subsequent labors lasting an average of ____ hours

A

24, 12

55
Q

Frequency of contractions is measure from the ____ of one contraction to the ____ of the next contraction

A

Start, start

56
Q

Contactions accomplish 4 things, they are….

A

Effacement of cervix, dilation of cervix, movement of the fetus through the stations, neonate respiratory stimulation

57
Q

T/F Effacement is measured in ____ and dilation is measured in ____

A

%, centimeters

58
Q

T/F A 2cm dilation can accommodate a fingertip

A

TRUE

59
Q

A woman who is in labor and dilated to a 7 is in the ____ stage of labor

A

First

60
Q

A woman who has delivered a baby and has not yet delivered the placenta is in the ____ stage of labor

A

Third

61
Q

A woman is fully dilated and the babies head is protruding from the vagina is in ____ stage of labor

A

Second

62
Q

The first hour after a woman delivers the baby is often referred to as the ____ stage of labor

A

Fourth

63
Q

The active labor phase of stage one is when a woman is dilated to ____

A

4-7cm

64
Q

The early labor phase of stage one is when a woman is dilated to ____

A

0-4cm

65
Q

The transition phase of labor of stage one is when a woman is dilated to ____

A

8-10cm

66
Q

____ signals the beginning of stage 2 labor

A

Pushing

67
Q

____% of fetuses present vertex/cephalic

A

95%

68
Q

Lie is the relationship between the long axis of the ____ to the long axis of the ____ and is either ____ or ____

A

Fetus, uterus, transverse, longitudinal

69
Q

T/F Left Occiput Anterior (LOA) is the most common presentation

A

TRUE

70
Q

While assessing the fontanelles of an unborn child in order to determine where the occiput is, you feel a TRIANGULAR shaped fontanelle…this fontanelle is the ____ fontanelle and is ____ to the occiput

A

Posterior, closest

71
Q

While assessing the fontanelles of an unborn child in order to determine where the occiput is, you feel a DIAMOND shaped fontanelle…this fontanelle is the ____ fontanelle and is ____ the occiput

A

Anterior, furthest away from

72
Q

T/F A midline episiotomy will prevent further tearing toward the anus

A

FALSE. A medio-lateral episiotomy may prevent further tearing by opening the passageway, relieving pressure on the perineum, and potentially preventing tearing toward the anus

73
Q

T/F It is normal for the placenta to deliver an hour or two after delivery of the baby

A

FALSE. It should deliver within 5-15 minutes

74
Q

____% of breast tissue is made up of epithelial elements (lobules with branching ducts to the nipple)

A

20%

75
Q

____% of breast tissue is made up of stromal elements (adipose and fibrous connective tissue)

A

80%

76
Q

“Each breast has ____ to ____sections, called ____, that are arranged like the ____ of a ____.”

A

15, 20, lobes, petals, daisy

77
Q

_____ ligaments - fibrous
bands that connect the superficial and
deep pectoral fascial layers

A

Cooper

78
Q

A clinical breast exam detects up to ____% of cancers not found on mammogram

A

5%

79
Q

T/F Only breast abnormalities and masses larger than 2cm should be fully evaluated.

A

FALSE. Any and all abnormalities or masses should be fully evaluated.

80
Q

T/F Breast cancer is usually associated with pain.

A

FALSE. Only 1-6% of cases

81
Q

Top 3 treatments for mastalgia are…

A

NSAIDs, warm compresses/ice packs, proper breast support

82
Q

Mastitis, breast abscesses, and galactoceles are examples of…

A

Infections/inflammation of the breast

83
Q

Fibroadenomas, ductal hyperplasia, and intraductal papillomas are examples of…

A

Proliferative breast lesions without atypia

84
Q

Cysts and fibrocysts are examples of…

A

Nonproliferative breast lesions

85
Q

Atypical ductal hyperplasia, atypical lobular hyperplasia are examples of…

A

Atypical hyperplasia

86
Q

T/F Benign disorders are far more common than malignancies.

A

TRUE

87
Q

T/F Breast cancer is the most common malignancy among women.

A

TRUE

88
Q

Breast cancer comes second behind ____ cancer in female deaths.

A

Lung

89
Q

1 in ____ women living beyond 90 years of age will develop breast cancer

A

8

90
Q

A woman presents with fever, chills, malaise, and flu-like symptoms. She has myalgia and a hard, red, tender, warm, and swollen breast. She is currently a breast-feeding mother. What are you thinking? What is the likely etiology? How would you treat it?

A

Lactational Mastitis. Breast feeding introduced staph A or strep. 10-14 diclox, augmentin, continue breastfeeding

91
Q

If mastitis doesn’t improve within a few days of diclixacillin, ____ should be considered and treated with bacterium or doxycycline

A

MRSA

92
Q

If mastitis doesn’t improve regardless of antibiotic therapy, ____ should be considered and a ____ biopsy should be performed.

A

Inflammatory breast cancer, skin punch

93
Q

A mother has shooting/burning sensations in her breast. She also notices thrush and a sever diaper rash in her infant. What are you thinking? How could you treat it?

A

Candidal Infection. Topically or with Fluconazole

94
Q

A mother notices a fluctuant tender mass in her right breast that does not resolve with antibiotic therapy. Her PCP suggests she only breast feed from the opposite side and attempt to express milk from the affected side. What might this be? How common is it? How might you have to treat it?

A

Breast Abscess. 0.1% incidence. May require incision and drainage.

95
Q

A breastfeeding mother suddenly noticed a lump with tenderness in her left breast. A thick, creamy, oily, cheesy material has been coming from her breast. What could this be? How is it treated? When should it go away if at all?

A

Galactocele. Active management that may require needle aspiration. It should resolve on its own within 72 hours.

96
Q

Paget disease is a (Rare/Common) cancer involving the ____ and ____

A

Rare (1-4%), nipple, areola

97
Q

A woman presents with an eczematous appearing area over the nipple and areola. There is slight discharge from her nipple, the affected side appears larger, and the nipple is retracted. What might this be? When should you worry?

A

Paget disease of the breast. If it lasts longer than 1 month, a mammogram and/or biopsy should be considered

98
Q

T/F Fibrocystic changes are very common.

A

TRUE

99
Q

A woman presents to clinic concerned about a “lump” she felt in her breast. It is well-defined, mobile, slightly tender, and rubbery. What might this be? When would you offer drainage? What other solution may be an option if this recurs?

A

Simple breast cyst. Drainage could be offered if it is larger than 2cm. Excision could be an option if it recurs twice after an aspiration.

100
Q

____% of postmenopausal women experience fibrocystic changes.

A

60%

101
Q

Normal but exaggerated response of breast tissue to female hormones and caffeine, cyclic engorgement with increased density of breast, lumpy and/or painful breasts may be…

A

Fibrocystic changes

102
Q

T/F Fibrocystic changes commonly occur on the outer quadrants.

A

TRUE

103
Q

How is ductal hyperplasia diagnosed?

A

Biopsy prompted by other investigation

104
Q

Increased number of cells within a duct that is more than 2 but no more than 4 cells in depth

A

Mild ductal hyperplasia

105
Q

A woman presents with multiple lumps and some mild nipple discharge. On ductography, it is determined that cells from the wall of multiple cysts have grown into the associated lumens. This might be? This may/may not increase the woman’s risk for cancer. How is it treated?

A

Intraductal papilloma. It may INCREASE the risk of breast cancer. A central duct excision may be required.

106
Q

What are the two types of atypical hyperplasia of the breast?

A

Lobular, ductal

107
Q

Which of the atypical types of hyperplasia of the breast is associated with an increased risk of subsequent cancer?

A

BOTH!!!

108
Q

A woman presents with nipple discharge from both breast, multiple ducts, with breast manipulation. This is generally considered a (Benign/Suspicious) presentation.

A

Benign

109
Q

A woman presents with blood-tinged nipple discharge from one breast, from a single duct, with and without breast manipulation. The discharge tests positive for blood and is guaiac positive as well. This is generally considered a (Benign/Suspicious) presentation.

A

Suspicious

110
Q

The most common cause of pathologic

nipple discharge is a ____

A

Papilloma (52-57%)

111
Q

Malignancy is found in ____ to ____ percent of

cases of pathologic nipple discharge

A

5, 15%

112
Q

Most common breast malignancy is ____

A

DCIS

113
Q

Women who breastfed were less likely

to have what?

A

HTN, DM, Hyperlipidemia, and CVD

114
Q

A hard, gritty, irregular mass with hard edges has the features of a ____ tumor

A

Malignant

115
Q

A soft, cystic, mobile mass with regular borders has the features of a ____ tumor

A

Benign

116
Q

The three components of a diagnostic triad for breast cancer include…

A

Physical exam, mammography, needle examination

117
Q

The standard test for breast cancer screening and detection.

A

Mammogram

118
Q

____% of cancers detected by mammography are node negative

A

75%

119
Q

The sensitivity of mammogram is ____

A

75-90%

120
Q

Of 2cm cancerous masses, ____% have already metastasized

A

50%

121
Q

At what ages are women routinely screened for breast cancer?

A

50-69 years

122
Q

If you are a woman and have a first degree relative with breast cancer, you should be screened beginning at age ____

A

40

123
Q

According to ACOG, biannual breast cancer screening should begin at ____

A

40

124
Q

T/F Mammograms work best on breasts that consist mostly of fat

A

TRUE

125
Q

On mammographic features of breast cancer include all of the following except: micro calcifications, spiculated ill-defined mass, multiple dilated ducts, architectural distortion, and focal symmetric density.

A

Multiple dilated ducts are not usually present, but rather a single dilated duct. Focal symmetric density is not usually present, but rather focal asymmetric density

126
Q

T/F Breast ultrasound is a good way to screen for cancer.

A

FALSE. It is not a screening method but rather a diagnostic f/u method after a mammogram has identified an abnormality

127
Q

T/F A breast MRI is more sensitive but less specific than a mammogram

A

TRUE

128
Q

T/F Imaging studies are the best most cost effective way to diagnose cancer

A

FALSE. Imaging DOES NOT diagnose cancer

129
Q

The ____ type of breast cancer is the most common type is infiltrating ductal carcinoma

A

Epithelial

130
Q

____ usually presents as a diffuse thickening of the breast rather than a discrete mass

A

Infiltrating lobular carcinoma

131
Q

The removal of the entire breast AND associated lymph nodes

A

Modified radical mastectomy

Women's Health (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions