Chatgbt Flashcards

1
Q

What defines peripheral venous access?

A

Tip terminates outside of central vasculature

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2
Q

What is the max osmolarity for peripheral parenteral nutrition (PPN)?

A

<900 mOsm/L

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3
Q

What are disadvantages of PPN?

A

Short-term use, risk of phlebitis, limited calorie delivery

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4
Q

What is a single-lumen catheter?

A

One channel for infusion

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5
Q

What is a double-lumen catheter?

A

Two channels—can infuse different solutions simultaneously

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6
Q

What is a triple-lumen catheter?

A

Three channels—used in critical care or multiple infusions

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7
Q

Why are multiple lumens helpful?

A

Separate administration of incompatible medications/nutrition

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8
Q

What is a nasogastric (NG) tube?

A

Inserted through the nose into the stomach—short-term use

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9
Q
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10
Q

What is a nasojejunal (NJ) tube?

A

Inserted through the nose into the jejunum—post-pyloric feeding

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11
Q
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12
Q

What is a gastrostomy (G-tube)?

A

Tube placed directly into the stomach—long-term EN

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13
Q
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14
Q

What is a jejunostomy (J-tube)?

A

Tube placed directly into the jejunum—used if stomach not functional

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15
Q
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16
Q

What is a PEG tube?

A

Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy—G-tube placed via endoscopy

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17
Q
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18
Q

What is a PEJ tube?

A

Percutaneous endoscopic jejunostomy—J-tube placed via endoscopy

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19
Q
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20
Q

What is the difference between balloon vs. non-balloon G-tube?

A

Balloon: easier at-home replacement; Non-balloon: more secure

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21
Q
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22
Q

What is a low-profile G-tube?

A

Flush with skin, used for active patients

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23
Q
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24
Q

How is enteral tube patency maintained?

A

Flush with water before/after feeding or medication

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25
Q
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26
Q

What is a common cause of tube occlusion?

A

Medication residue, inadequate flushing

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27
Q
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28
Q

How can clogged tubes be cleared?

A

Warm water flushes, enzyme-based unclogging kits (no soda or juice)

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29
Q
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30
Q

What is a drug-nutrient interaction?

A

A reaction between a drug and a nutrient that affects absorption, metabolism, or excretion of either

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31
Q
A
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32
Q

What is the interaction between phenytoin and EN?

A

EN decreases phenytoin absorption

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33
Q
A
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34
Q

How to manage phenytoin interaction with EN?

A

Hold tube feeds 1–2 hours before and after dosing

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35
Q
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36
Q

How does warfarin interact with nutrition?

A

Vitamin K intake can reduce warfarin effectiveness

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37
Q
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38
Q

How to manage warfarin interaction?

A

Maintain consistent vitamin K intake

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39
Q
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40
Q

What nutrient deficiencies can PPIs cause?

A

Vitamin B12, magnesium, calcium

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41
Q
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42
Q

What are nutrition concerns with corticosteroids?

A

Hyperglycemia, increased protein breakdown, bone loss

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43
Q
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44
Q

What are nutrient losses associated with loop diuretics?

A

Potassium, magnesium, calcium, thiamine

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45
Q
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46
Q

What is a key nutritional concern with thiazide diuretics?

A

Hypercalcemia and potassium loss

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47
Q
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48
Q

What nutrient interactions occur with cholestyramine?

A

Decreases absorption of fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K)

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49
Q
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50
Q

What is a common nutrient concern with prolonged antibiotic use?

A

Vitamin K deficiency and altered gut microbiota

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51
Q
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52
Q

What decreases iron absorption?

A

Calcium, PPIs, antacids, tannins (tea/coffee)

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53
Q
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54
Q

What enhances iron absorption?

A

Vitamin C and acidic environment

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55
Q
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56
Q

What nutrient should be supplemented with methotrexate?

A

Folic acid

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57
Q
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58
Q

What nutrient competes with levodopa for absorption?

A

Protein—high protein meals can reduce drug effectiveness

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59
Q
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60
Q

What drug is lipid-based and contributes calories?

A

Propofol (1.1 kcal/mL)

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61
Q
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62
Q

What vitamins are light-sensitive and degrade in TPN?

A

Vitamins A, C, and B1 (thiamine)

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63
Q
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64
Q

What trace element should be monitored in patients on long-term PPI or H2RA therapy?

A

Magnesium

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65
Q
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66
Q

What are the indications for enteral nutrition (EN)?

A

Functioning GI tract, unable to meet needs orally for >2–3 days

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67
Q
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68
Q

When should EN be initiated in critically ill patients?

A

Within 24–48 hours of ICU admission

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69
Q
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70
Q

What are contraindications to EN?

A

Non-functioning GI tract, bowel obstruction, hemodynamic instability

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71
Q
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72
Q

What are common routes for EN?

A

Nasogastric, nasojejunal, gastrostomy, jejunostomy

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73
Q
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74
Q

What is the difference between gastric and post-pyloric feeding?

A

Gastric: easier placement, higher aspiration risk; Post-pyloric: lower aspiration risk, for high reflux/vomiting

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75
Q
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76
Q

What are polymeric formulas?

A

Standard EN formulas with intact protein, fat, and carbohydrates

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77
Q
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78
Q

What are elemental/semi-elemental formulas?

A

Formulas with hydrolyzed proteins, for malabsorption or GI dysfunction

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79
Q
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80
Q

What is a modular formula?

A

Customizable formula components (e.g., protein powder, glucose polymers)

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81
Q
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82
Q

What is the recommended protein intake in EN for critically ill adults?

A

1.2–2.0 g/kg/day

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83
Q
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84
Q

What is the typical goal for EN advancement?

A

Reach goal rate within 48–72 hours if tolerated

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85
Q
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86
Q

What are signs of EN intolerance?

A

High gastric residuals, abdominal distension, vomiting, diarrhea

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87
Q
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88
Q

What is refeeding syndrome?

A

Fluid and electrolyte shifts (↓phos, K, Mg) when feeding is initiated after starvation

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89
Q
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90
Q

How can refeeding syndrome be prevented?

A

Start low and go slow, supplement electrolytes, monitor labs closely

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91
Q
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92
Q

How should medications be given via feeding tube?

A

Use liquid forms or crushable tablets, flush before/after administration

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93
Q
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94
Q

Which drugs interact with tube feeds?

A

Phenytoin, warfarin, fluoroquinolones—require holding feeds before/after

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95
Q
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96
Q

What is the difference between open vs. closed EN systems?

A

Open: decanted, increased contamination risk; Closed: prefilled, safer, longer hang time

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97
Q
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98
Q

What is the typical hang time for open EN systems?

A

4–8 hours

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99
Q
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100
Q

What is the typical hang time for closed EN systems?

A

Up to 24–48 hours

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101
Q
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102
Q

How much free water is in most standard EN formulas?

A

About 80%

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103
Q
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104
Q

What is the typical calorie density of standard EN formulas?

A

1.0–1.2 kcal/mL

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105
Q
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106
Q

What calorie density is considered energy-dense?

A

≥1.5 kcal/mL, used for fluid restriction

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107
Q
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108
Q

What is the typical fluid requirement for adults?

A

30–35 mL/kg/day

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109
Q
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110
Q

What is the Holliday-Segar method for pediatric fluid needs?

A

100 mL/kg for first 10 kg + 50 mL/kg for next 10 kg + 20 mL/kg for weight >20 kg

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111
Q
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112
Q

What are signs of fluid overload?

A

Edema, hypertension, pulmonary congestion

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113
Q
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114
Q

What are signs of dehydration?

A

Hypotension, tachycardia, decreased urine output, elevated BUN/Cr

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115
Q
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116
Q

Normal serum sodium range?

A

135–145 mEq/L

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117
Q
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118
Q

What does hyponatremia indicate?

A

Fluid overload, SIADH, renal failure

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119
Q
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120
Q

What does hypernatremia indicate?

A

Dehydration, diabetes insipidus

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121
Q
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122
Q

Normal serum potassium range?

A

3.5–5.0 mEq/L

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123
Q
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124
Q

Causes of hypokalemia?

A

Diuretics, GI losses, refeeding syndrome

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125
Q
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126
Q

Causes of hyperkalemia?

A

Renal failure, acidosis, tissue breakdown

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127
Q
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128
Q

Normal serum calcium range?

A

8.5–10.5 mg/dL

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129
Q
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130
Q

What should you check in hypoalbuminemia?

A

Corrected calcium

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131
Q
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132
Q

Corrected calcium formula?

A

Measured Ca + 0.8 × (4 - serum albumin)

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133
Q
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134
Q

Causes of hypocalcemia?

A

Vitamin D deficiency, pancreatitis, low magnesium

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135
Q
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136
Q

Causes of hypercalcemia?

A

Hyperparathyroidism, malignancy

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137
Q
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138
Q

Normal serum phosphorus range?

A

2.5–4.5 mg/dL

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139
Q
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140
Q

Causes of hypophosphatemia?

A

Refeeding syndrome, TPN without phosphorus, DKA

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141
Q
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142
Q

Causes of hyperphosphatemia?

A

Renal failure, tumor lysis syndrome

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143
Q
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144
Q

Normal serum magnesium range?

A

1.5–2.5 mg/dL

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145
Q
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146
Q

Causes of hypomagnesemia?

A

Diarrhea, alcoholism, diuretics

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147
Q
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148
Q

Causes of hypermagnesemia?

A

Renal failure, excessive supplementation

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149
Q
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150
Q

What is metabolic acidosis?

A

Low pH, low HCO3; causes: diarrhea, renal failure, ketoacidosis

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151
Q
A
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152
Q

What is metabolic alkalosis?

A

High pH, high HCO3; causes: vomiting, diuretics

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153
Q
A
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154
Q

What is respiratory acidosis?

A

Low pH, high CO2; causes: hypoventilation, COPD

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155
Q
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156
Q

What is respiratory alkalosis?

A

High pH, low CO2; causes: hyperventilation, anxiety

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157
Q
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158
Q

Where does most nutrient absorption occur?

A

Small intestine (primarily jejunum)

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159
Q
A
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160
Q

What is the function of the ileum?

A

Absorbs bile salts, vitamin B12, and some water/electrolytes

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161
Q
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162
Q

What is the role of the colon in digestion?

A

Absorbs water, electrolytes, short-chain fatty acids

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163
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164
Q

What is the function of the pancreas in digestion?

A

Secretes enzymes for digestion of protein, fat, and carbohydrates

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165
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166
Q

Where is intrinsic factor produced and what is its role?

A

Stomach; binds to vitamin B12 for absorption in the ileum

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167
Q
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168
Q

What is short bowel syndrome (SBS)?

A

Malabsorption from significant loss of small bowel surface area

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169
Q
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170
Q

What are nutrition concerns in SBS?

A

Fluid/electrolyte imbalance, fat malabsorption, nutrient deficiencies

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171
Q
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172
Q

Which part of the bowel can adapt best after resection?

A

Jejunum

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173
Q
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174
Q

Which part is most difficult to compensate for if resected?

A

Ileum

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175
Q
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176
Q

What is the role of the colon in patients with SBS?

A

Colon helps absorb fluids, SCFAs—important if ileum resected

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177
Q
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178
Q

What is small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO)?

A

Excessive bacteria in small bowel causing bloating, diarrhea, malabsorption

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179
Q
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180
Q

Risk factors for SIBO?

A

Stasis, strictures, blind loops, motility disorders

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181
Q
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182
Q

What is the role of bile salts?

A

Emulsify fats for digestion and absorption

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183
Q
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184
Q

What happens when bile salts are malabsorbed?

A

Fat malabsorption, steatorrhea, loss of fat-soluble vitamins

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185
Q
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186
Q

What is the concern with pancreatic insufficiency?

A

Inadequate digestion of fat/protein, leading to steatorrhea and malnutrition

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187
Q
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188
Q

How is pancreatic insufficiency managed?

A

Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy (PERT) with meals/snacks

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189
Q
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190
Q

What is a chyle leak?

A

Loss of lymphatic fluid rich in fat/protein/electrolytes

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191
Q
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192
Q

How is a chyle leak managed nutritionally?

A

Low-fat or MCT-based diet; may require EN or PN

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193
Q
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194
Q

What is bile acid diarrhea?

A

Occurs after ileal resection; bile salts enter colon causing fluid secretion

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195
Q
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196
Q

Treatment for bile acid diarrhea?

A

Bile acid sequestrants (e.g., cholestyramine)

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197
Q
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198
Q

What is an anastomosis?

A

Surgical connection between two parts of the bowel

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199
Q
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200
Q

What is a fistula?

A

Abnormal connection between bowel and another surface or organ

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201
Q
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202
Q

What is high-output fistula defined as?

A

> 500 mL/day output

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203
Q
A
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204
Q

Normal fasting glucose range?

A

70–99 mg/dL

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205
Q
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206
Q

What is hyperglycemia defined as?

A

> 180 mg/dL

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207
Q
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208
Q

What is hypoglycemia defined as?

A

<70 mg/dL

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209
Q
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210
Q

Normal sodium range?

A

135–145 mEq/L

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211
Q
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212
Q

Normal potassium range?

A

3.5–5.0 mEq/L

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213
Q
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214
Q

Normal chloride range?

A

98–106 mEq/L

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215
Q
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216
Q

Normal CO2 (bicarb) range?

A

22–28 mEq/L

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217
Q
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218
Q

Normal calcium range?

A

8.5–10.5 mg/dL

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219
Q
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220
Q

Normal magnesium range?

A

1.5–2.5 mg/dL

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221
Q
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222
Q

Normal phosphorus range?

A

2.5–4.5 mg/dL

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223
Q
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224
Q

What does elevated AST/ALT suggest?

A

Hepatocellular injury

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225
Q
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226
Q

What does elevated ALP and bilirubin suggest?

A

Cholestasis or bile duct obstruction

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227
Q
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228
Q

What does elevated direct bilirubin indicate?

A

Obstructive or hepatocellular jaundice

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229
Q
A
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230
Q

What is prealbumin used to assess?

A

Short-term changes in nutrition status

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231
Q
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232
Q

Why is prealbumin not reliable in critically ill patients?

A

It is a negative acute-phase reactant

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233
Q
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234
Q

What is CRP used for?

A

Marker of inflammation

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235
Q
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236
Q

What does a high CRP indicate?

A

Acute inflammation, infection, or trauma

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237
Q
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238
Q

What does elevated BUN/creatinine indicate?

A

Dehydration or renal dysfunction

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239
Q
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240
Q

What does a high BUN:Cr ratio suggest?

A

Pre-renal azotemia (often due to dehydration)

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241
Q
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242
Q

What is a normal BUN:Cr ratio?

A

10:1 to 20:1

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243
Q
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244
Q

What lab reflects iron storage?

A

Ferritin

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245
Q
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246
Q

What lab reflects recent iron status?

A

Serum iron, transferrin saturation

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247
Q
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248
Q

What labs suggest iron deficiency anemia?

A

Low Hgb, low Hct, low ferritin, high TIBC

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249
Q
A
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250
Q

What lab is used to assess vitamin D status?

A

25(OH)D

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251
Q
A
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252
Q

What lab decreases in zinc deficiency?

A

Alkaline phosphatase

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253
Q
A
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254
Q

What labs are monitored for refeeding syndrome?

A

Phosphorus, potassium, magnesium

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255
Q
A
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256
Q

What does elevated ammonia indicate?

A

Liver failure, especially in hepatic encephalopathy

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257
Q
A
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258
Q

What does an RQ >1.0 suggest?

A

Overfeeding, lipogenesis

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259
Q
A
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260
Q

How many kcal/gram does dextrose provide in PN?

A

3.4 kcal/gram

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261
Q
A
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262
Q

How many kcal/gram does protein provide in EN/PN?

A

4 kcal/gram

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263
Q
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264
Q

How many kcal/gram does lipid provide in PN?

A

10 kcal/gram (from 20% lipid emulsion)

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265
Q
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266
Q

How many kcal/gram does lipid provide in EN?

A

9 kcal/gram

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267
Q
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268
Q

What is the typical non-protein calorie to nitrogen ratio (NPC:N) in PN?

A

100–150:1

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269
Q
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270
Q

What is the purpose of the NPC:N ratio?

A

To ensure adequate calories to spare protein for tissue repair and growth

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271
Q
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272
Q

How many grams of nitrogen are in 1 gram of protein?

A

1 gram of nitrogen = 6.25 grams of protein

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273
Q
A
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274
Q

What macronutrient has the highest respiratory quotient (RQ)?

A

Carbohydrates (RQ ~1.0)

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275
Q
A
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276
Q

What macronutrient has the lowest respiratory quotient (RQ)?

A

Fat (RQ ~0.7)

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277
Q
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278
Q

What is the typical protein range in PN for a critically ill adult?

A

1.2–2.0 g/kg/day

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279
Q
A
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280
Q

What is the minimum amount of carbohydrate needed to prevent ketosis?

A

100–150 g/day

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281
Q
A
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282
Q

What is a concern with excessive carbohydrate intake in PN?

A

Hyperglycemia, increased CO2 production, hepatic steatosis

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283
Q
A
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284
Q

What is a concern with excessive fat intake in PN?

A

Hypertriglyceridemia, impaired immune function

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285
Q
A
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286
Q

What are the components of TPN macronutrients?

A

Dextrose, amino acids, lipids

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287
Q
A
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288
Q

What are the phases of metabolic response to stress?

A

Ebb phase and Flow phase

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289
Q
A
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290
Q

What occurs during the ebb phase?

A

Hypovolemia, decreased metabolic rate, reduced tissue perfusion

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291
Q
A
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292
Q

What occurs during the flow phase?

A

Hypermetabolism, increased energy expenditure, catabolism, increased glucose production

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293
Q
A
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294
Q

What hormones increase during stress?

A

Cortisol, catecholamines (epinephrine/norepinephrine), glucagon

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295
Q
A
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296
Q

What are the consequences of prolonged stress response?

A

Muscle wasting, insulin resistance, negative nitrogen balance

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297
Q
A
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298
Q

What is gluconeogenesis?

A

Formation of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources like amino acids

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299
Q
A
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300
Q

What is lipolysis?

A

Breakdown of fat stores to free fatty acids and glycerol

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301
Q
A
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302
Q

What is proteolysis?

A

Breakdown of muscle protein into amino acids

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303
Q
A
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304
Q

What is the preferred fuel source in stress and sepsis?

A

Glucose

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305
Q
A
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306
Q

What is insulin resistance?

A

Decreased cellular response to insulin, common in critical illness

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307
Q
A
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308
Q

What metabolic changes occur during sepsis?

A

Increased glucose and lactate, altered protein metabolism

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309
Q
A
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310
Q

How does starvation differ from stress metabolism?

A

Starvation leads to fat adaptation and protein sparing; stress causes protein catabolism

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311
Q
A
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312
Q

What is the respiratory quotient (RQ) for carbohydrate metabolism?

A

1

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313
Q
A
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314
Q

What is the RQ for fat metabolism?

A

0.7

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315
Q
A
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316
Q

What RQ suggests overfeeding?

A

> 1.0

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317
Q
A
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318
Q

What is nitrogen balance and what does a negative balance indicate?

A

Difference between nitrogen intake and loss; negative balance indicates catabolism

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319
Q
A
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320
Q

How do you calculate nitrogen balance?

A

Nitrogen in (g protein/6.25) – (UUN + 4)

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321
Q
A
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322
Q

What condition increases nitrogen losses?

A

Burns, trauma, sepsis, wounds

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323
Q
A
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324
Q

What is the goal of nutrition in the critically ill?

A

Prevent further loss of lean body mass, support immune function, promote healing

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325
Q
A
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326
Q

What is the function of iron?

A

Oxygen transport via hemoglobin and myoglobin

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327
Q
A
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328
Q

What are symptoms of iron deficiency?

A

Microcytic anemia, fatigue, pallor

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329
Q
A
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330
Q

What are causes of iron toxicity?

A

Hemochromatosis, iron overload from transfusions

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331
Q
A
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332
Q

Which populations are at risk for iron deficiency?

A

Infants, menstruating women, GI bleed patients

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333
Q
A
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334
Q

Which nutrients/meds interfere with iron absorption?

A

Calcium, tannins, PPIs

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335
Q
A
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336
Q

What is the function of zinc?

A

Wound healing, immune function, taste perception

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337
Q
A
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338
Q

What are symptoms of zinc deficiency?

A

Poor wound healing, alopecia, dermatitis, taste changes

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339
Q
A
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340
Q

Who is at risk for zinc deficiency?

A

Burn patients, diarrhea, TPN without zinc

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341
Q
A
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342
Q

What inhibits zinc absorption?

A

High phytate intake, high calcium/iron

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343
Q
A
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344
Q

What is the function of copper?

A

Iron metabolism, antioxidant activity

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345
Q
A
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346
Q

Symptoms of copper deficiency?

A

Microcytic anemia, neutropenia, myelopathy

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347
Q
A
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348
Q

Who is at risk for copper deficiency?

A

Gastric bypass, high zinc intake, long-term PN

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349
Q
A
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350
Q

Function of selenium?

A

Antioxidant (glutathione peroxidase), thyroid function

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351
Q
A
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352
Q

Symptoms of selenium deficiency?

A

Cardiomyopathy, muscle weakness, immune dysfunction

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353
Q
A
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354
Q

Who is at risk for selenium deficiency?

A

TPN without selenium, GI surgery

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355
Q
A
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356
Q

Function of manganese?

A

Cofactor for enzymes, bone formation

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357
Q
A
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358
Q

Toxicity risk for manganese?

A

Cholestatic liver disease—can cause neurotoxicity

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359
Q
A
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360
Q

Function of chromium?

A

Enhances insulin action

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361
Q
A
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362
Q

Symptoms of chromium deficiency?

A

Glucose intolerance, neuropathy

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363
Q
A
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364
Q

Who is at risk for chromium deficiency?

A

Long-term PN without chromium

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365
Q
A
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366
Q

Function of iodine?

A

Thyroid hormone synthesis

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367
Q
A
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368
Q

Symptoms of iodine deficiency?

A

Goiter, hypothyroidism

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369
Q
A
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370
Q

Toxicity of iodine?

A

Thyroid dysfunction

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371
Q
A
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372
Q

Function of fluoride?

A

Dental and bone health

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373
Q
A
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374
Q

Toxicity of fluoride?

A

Dental fluorosis, GI upset

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375
Q
A
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376
Q

Function of molybdenum?

A

Cofactor in amino acid metabolism

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377
Q
A
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378
Q

Deficiency symptoms?

A

Rare—tachycardia, headache, neurologic issues

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379
Q
A
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380
Q

What are the six ASPEN malnutrition assessment characteristics?

A

Energy intake, weight loss, body fat loss, muscle loss, fluid accumulation, functional status

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381
Q
A
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382
Q

How many criteria are needed to diagnose malnutrition per ASPEN?

A

At least 2 of the 6

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383
Q
A
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384
Q

What defines severe malnutrition (chronic)?

A

> 5% weight loss in 1 month or >10% in 6 months with minimal intake for >1 month

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385
Q
A
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386
Q

What is functional status typically assessed with?

A

Handgrip strength

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387
Q
A
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388
Q

What does SGA stand for?

A

Subjective Global Assessment

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389
Q
A
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390
Q

What are the components of SGA?

A

Weight change, dietary intake, GI symptoms, functional capacity, physical exam (fat/muscle loss, edema)

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391
Q
A
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392
Q

What are the SGA classifications?

A

A: well nourished, B: moderately malnourished, C: severely malnourished

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393
Q
A
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394
Q

What is the NUTRIC score used for?

A

Assessing nutrition risk in critically ill patients

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395
Q
A
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396
Q

What factors are included in NUTRIC?

A

Age, APACHE II, SOFA score, number of comorbidities, days from hospital to ICU

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397
Q
A
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398
Q

What does a high NUTRIC score indicate?

A

Greater risk of adverse outcomes, more likely to benefit from nutrition intervention

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399
Q
A
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400
Q

What is MUST?

A

Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool—used in community and outpatient settings

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401
Q
A
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402
Q

What is the MST?

A

Malnutrition Screening Tool—quick, uses weight loss and appetite

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403
Q
A
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404
Q

What is the MNA?

A

Mini Nutritional Assessment—used for elderly patients

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405
Q
A
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406
Q

What does %IBW =?

A

(Current weight / Ideal body weight) × 100

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407
Q
A
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408
Q

What does %UBW =?

A

(Current weight / Usual body weight) × 100

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409
Q
A
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410
Q

What does weight loss % =?

A

((Usual weight – current weight) / usual weight) × 100

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411
Q
A
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412
Q

What is considered significant weight loss?

A

> 5% in 1 month or >10% in 6 months

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413
Q
A
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414
Q

What is BMI =?

A

Weight (kg) / height (m)^2

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415
Q
A
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416
Q

What BMI is considered underweight?

A

<18.5 kg/m²

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417
Q
A
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418
Q

What BMI range is normal?

A

18.5–24.9 kg/m²

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419
Q
A
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420
Q

What are indications for parenteral nutrition (PN)?

A

Non-functioning GI tract, failed EN trial, bowel obstruction, severe malabsorption

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421
Q
A
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422
Q

When should PN be initiated in critically ill adults?

A

If EN is not feasible after 7 days (or earlier in malnourished patients)

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423
Q
A
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424
Q

What is the difference between central and peripheral PN?

A

Central PN allows higher osmolarity solutions; peripheral PN is limited to <900 mOsm/L

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425
Q
A
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426
Q

What are typical macronutrient components of PN?

A

Dextrose, amino acids, IV lipids

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427
Q
A
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428
Q

What is the max recommended glucose infusion rate (GIR)?

A

<4–5 mg/kg/min in adults

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429
Q
A
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430
Q

What is a typical lipid dosing range for PN?

A

0.5–1.5 g/kg/day

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431
Q
A
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432
Q

What is the caloric value of 20% lipid emulsion?

A

2 kcal/mL (10 kcal/g)

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433
Q
A
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434
Q

What is a concern with excessive lipid administration?

A

Hypertriglyceridemia, impaired immune function

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435
Q
A
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436
Q

What are signs of essential fatty acid deficiency?

A

Dry, scaly skin; alopecia; impaired wound healing

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437
Q
A
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438
Q

How often should lipids be given to prevent EFAD?

A

At least 100 g/week (2–3 times/week)

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439
Q
A
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440
Q

What is SMOF lipid?

A

Soybean oil, MCT, olive oil, fish oil mix—less pro-inflammatory

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441
Q
A
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442
Q

What is cyclic PN?

A

PN administered over <24 hours (typically 12–18 hrs/day)

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443
Q
A
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444
Q

What are benefits of cyclic PN?

A

Improved liver function, mimics normal metabolism, mobility

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445
Q
A
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446
Q

What are risks of starting PN too quickly?

A

Refeeding syndrome, hyperglycemia, electrolyte shifts

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447
Q
A
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448
Q

What labs should be monitored closely during PN?

A

Glucose, electrolytes, triglycerides, liver function tests

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449
Q
A
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450
Q

What are signs of PN-associated liver disease?

A

Elevated LFTs, cholestasis, steatosis, fibrosis

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451
Q
A
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452
Q

What strategies help prevent PN-associated liver disease?

A

Cycle PN, avoid overfeeding, use trophic EN, lipid minimization

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453
Q
A
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454
Q

What is the role of acetate in PN?

A

Converted to bicarbonate—used to manage metabolic acidosis

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455
Q
A
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456
Q

What is the role of chloride in PN?

A

Used to manage metabolic alkalosis

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457
Q
A
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458
Q

What are common PN complications?

A

Infection (catheter-related), liver dysfunction, metabolic disturbances

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459
Q
A
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460
Q

What is the recommended protein intake in PN for critically ill adults?

A

1.2–2.0 g/kg/day

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461
Q
A
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462
Q

What is the max osmolarity for peripheral PN?

A

<900 mOsm/L

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463
Q
A
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464
Q

How is PN osmolarity calculated?

A

Based on dextrose, amino acids, electrolytes—lipids don’t contribute

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465
Q
A
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466
Q

What organization develops nutrition support guidelines?

A

ASPEN (American Society for Parenteral and Enteral Nutrition)

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467
Q
A
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468
Q

What are ASPEN’s recommendations for initiating EN in the ICU?

A

Within 24–48 hours of admission if hemodynamically stable

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469
Q
A
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470
Q

What is the ASPEN recommendation for protein in critically ill adults?

A

1.2–2.0 g/kg/day

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471
Q
A
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472
Q

What is ASPEN’s stance on glutamine in critical illness?

A

Not recommended for routine use in critically ill patients

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473
Q
A
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474
Q

What is the FDA limit for aluminum in PN solutions?

A

<25 mcg/L

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475
Q
A
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476
Q

What must manufacturers label on PN additives per FDA?

A

Maximum aluminum content at expiry

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477
Q
A
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478
Q

What labeling standards apply to EN products?

A

Must list nutrient content per serving and per mL

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479
Q
A
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480
Q

What is a DRG?

A

Diagnosis-Related Group—used for hospital reimbursement

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481
Q
A
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482
Q

What is the role of ICD-10 codes?

A

Diagnosis classification used for billing and documentation

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483
Q
A
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484
Q

What does CPT stand for?

A

Current Procedural Terminology—used for procedure coding

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485
Q
A
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486
Q

What documentation supports nutrition reimbursement?

A

Nutrition diagnosis, care plan, progress notes, justification for EN/PN

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487
Q
A
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488
Q

What is a root cause analysis (RCA)?

A

Structured method for identifying underlying causes of an event

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489
Q
A
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490
Q

What is a PDSA cycle?

A

Plan-Do-Study-Act—used in QI to test and implement changes

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491
Q
A
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492
Q

What do JCAHO and CMS require for nutrition?

A

Nutrition screening within 24 hours of hospital admission

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493
Q

What is the purpose of a nutrition care process (NCP)?

A

Standardized approach to nutrition assessment and care

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494
Q
A
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495
Q

What is the USP <797> guideline?

A

Standards for sterile compounding of parenteral nutrition

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496
Q
A
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497
Q

What is the Hang Time recommendation for open EN systems?

A

4–8 hours

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498
Q
A
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499
Q

What is the Hang Time recommendation for closed EN systems?

A

Up to 24–48 hours

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500
Q
A
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501
Q

What are key nutrition concerns in neonates?

A

Immature GI function, high energy/protein needs, fluid/electrolyte sensitivity

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502
Q
A
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503
Q

What trace elements are typically excluded in neonatal PN?

A

Manganese, chromium (risk of toxicity)

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504
Q
A
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505
Q

What is the typical GIR range for neonates?

A

4–12 mg/kg/min

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506
Q
A
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507
Q

How is fluid calculated for neonates?

A

Based on weight and age in mL/kg/day

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508
Q
A
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509
Q

What are key nutrition goals in AKI?

A

Avoid overfeeding, manage electrolytes, adequate protein (1.5–2.0 g/kg if on CRRT)

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510
Q
A
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511
Q

What electrolytes need close monitoring in CKD/AKI?

A

Potassium, phosphorus, magnesium

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512
Q
A
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513
Q

What type of formula may be needed in renal disease?

A

Low electrolyte, fluid-restricted, higher calorie density

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514
Q
A
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515
Q

What are nutrition concerns in liver disease?

A

Malnutrition, fat malabsorption, ascites, electrolyte imbalances

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516
Q
A
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517
Q

What is the preferred type of protein in hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Vegetable or BCAA-rich protein

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519
Q

What formula adjustments may be needed in liver failure?

A

Energy-dense, low sodium, moderate protein

521
Q

What lab indicates impaired ammonia metabolism?

A

Elevated serum ammonia

523
Q

What is cancer cachexia?

A

Metabolic syndrome with weight loss, muscle wasting, inflammation

525
Q

What are nutrition goals in oncology?

A

Maintain weight, support immune function, prevent muscle loss

527
Q

When is EN preferred in oncology?

A

When the GI tract is functional and oral intake is inadequate

529
Q

What is the nutrition focus in Crohn’s disease?

A

Manage flares with low-residue diet, maintain nutrient adequacy

531
Q

What deficiencies are common in IBD?

A

Iron, B12, vitamin D, calcium

533
Q

What EN formula is often used in pancreatitis?

A

Elemental or semi-elemental, low-fat, jejunal feeding

535
Q

What are nutrition considerations in obesity during critical illness?

A

Use adjusted body weight for energy/protein needs

537
Q

What protein range is used in critically ill obese patients?

A

2.0–2.5 g/kg IBW/day

539
Q

What are increased needs in burn patients?

A

High protein (up to 2.5–3 g/kg), high calorie, fluid/electrolyte repletion

541
Q

What vitamins and minerals are important in burn recovery?

A

Vitamin C, zinc, selenium, vitamin A

543
Q

What are the phases of metabolic response to stress?

A

Ebb phase and Flow phase

545
Q

What occurs during the ebb phase?

A

Hypovolemia, decreased metabolic rate, reduced tissue perfusion

547
Q

What occurs during the flow phase?

A

Hypermetabolism, increased energy expenditure, catabolism, increased glucose production

549
Q

What hormones increase during stress?

A

Cortisol, catecholamines (epinephrine/norepinephrine), glucagon

551
Q

What are the consequences of prolonged stress response?

A

Muscle wasting, insulin resistance, negative nitrogen balance

553
Q

What is gluconeogenesis?

A

Formation of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources like amino acids

555
Q

What is lipolysis?

A

Breakdown of fat stores to free fatty acids and glycerol

557
Q

What is proteolysis?

A

Breakdown of muscle protein into amino acids

559
Q

What is the preferred fuel source in stress and sepsis?

561
Q

What is insulin resistance?

A

Decreased cellular response to insulin, common in critical illness

563
Q

What metabolic changes occur during sepsis?

A

Increased glucose and lactate, altered protein metabolism

565
Q

How does starvation differ from stress metabolism?

A

Starvation leads to fat adaptation and protein sparing; stress causes protein catabolism

567
Q

What is the respiratory quotient (RQ) for carbohydrate metabolism?

569
Q

What is the RQ for fat metabolism?

571
Q

What RQ suggests overfeeding?

573
Q

What is nitrogen balance and what does a negative balance indicate?

A

Difference between nitrogen intake and loss; negative balance indicates catabolism

575
Q

How do you calculate nitrogen balance?

A

Nitrogen in (g protein/6.25) – (UUN + 4)

577
Q

What condition increases nitrogen losses?

A

Burns, trauma, sepsis, wounds

579
Q

What is the goal of nutrition in the critically ill?

A

Prevent further loss of lean body mass, support immune function, promote healing

581
Q

What is the function of iron?

A

Oxygen transport via hemoglobin and myoglobin

583
Q

What are symptoms of iron deficiency?

A

Microcytic anemia, fatigue, pallor

585
Q

What are causes of iron toxicity?

A

Hemochromatosis, iron overload from transfusions

587
Q

Which populations are at risk for iron deficiency?

A

Infants, menstruating women, GI bleed patients

589
Q

Which nutrients/meds interfere with iron absorption?

A

Calcium, tannins, PPIs

591
Q

What is the function of zinc?

A

Wound healing, immune function, taste perception

593
Q

What are symptoms of zinc deficiency?

A

Poor wound healing, alopecia, dermatitis, taste changes

595
Q

Who is at risk for zinc deficiency?

A

Burn patients, diarrhea, TPN without zinc

597
Q

What inhibits zinc absorption?

A

High phytate intake, high calcium/iron

599
Q

What is the function of copper?

A

Iron metabolism, antioxidant activity

601
Q

Symptoms of copper deficiency?

A

Microcytic anemia, neutropenia, myelopathy

603
Q

Who is at risk for copper deficiency?

A

Gastric bypass, high zinc intake, long-term PN

605
Q

Function of selenium?

A

Antioxidant (glutathione peroxidase), thyroid function

607
Q

Symptoms of selenium deficiency?

A

Cardiomyopathy, muscle weakness, immune dysfunction

609
Q

Who is at risk for selenium deficiency?

A

TPN without selenium, GI surgery

611
Q

Function of manganese?

A

Cofactor for enzymes, bone formation

613
Q

Toxicity risk for manganese?

A

Cholestatic liver disease—can cause neurotoxicity

615
Q

Function of chromium?

A

Enhances insulin action

617
Q

Symptoms of chromium deficiency?

A

Glucose intolerance, neuropathy

619
Q

Who is at risk for chromium deficiency?

A

Long-term PN without chromium

621
Q

Function of iodine?

A

Thyroid hormone synthesis

623
Q

Symptoms of iodine deficiency?

A

Goiter, hypothyroidism

625
Q

Toxicity of iodine?

A

Thyroid dysfunction

627
Q

Function of fluoride?

A

Dental and bone health

629
Q

Toxicity of fluoride?

A

Dental fluorosis, GI upset

631
Q

Function of molybdenum?

A

Cofactor in amino acid metabolism

633
Q

Deficiency symptoms?

A

Rare—tachycardia, headache, neurologic issues

635
Q

What are the six ASPEN malnutrition assessment characteristics?

A

Energy intake, weight loss, body fat loss, muscle loss, fluid accumulation, functional status

637
Q

How many criteria are needed to diagnose malnutrition per ASPEN?

A

At least 2 of the 6

639
Q

What defines severe malnutrition (chronic)?

A

> 5% weight loss in 1 month or >10% in 6 months with minimal intake for >1 month

641
Q

What is functional status typically assessed with?

A

Handgrip strength

643
Q

What does SGA stand for?

A

Subjective Global Assessment

645
Q

What are the components of SGA?

A

Weight change, dietary intake, GI symptoms, functional capacity, physical exam (fat/muscle loss, edema)

647
Q

What are the SGA classifications?

A

A: well nourished, B: moderately malnourished, C: severely malnourished

649
Q

What is the NUTRIC score used for?

A

Assessing nutrition risk in critically ill patients

651
Q

What factors are included in NUTRIC?

A

Age, APACHE II, SOFA score, number of comorbidities, days from hospital to ICU

653
Q

What does a high NUTRIC score indicate?

A

Greater risk of adverse outcomes, more likely to benefit from nutrition intervention

655
Q

What is MUST?

A

Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool—used in community and outpatient settings

657
Q

What is the MST?

A

Malnutrition Screening Tool—quick, uses weight loss and appetite

659
Q

What is the MNA?

A

Mini Nutritional Assessment—used for elderly patients

661
Q

What does %IBW =?

A

(Current weight / Ideal body weight) × 100

663
Q

What does %UBW =?

A

(Current weight / Usual body weight) × 100

665
Q

What does weight loss % =?

A

((Usual weight – current weight) / usual weight) × 100

667
Q

What is considered significant weight loss?

A

> 5% in 1 month or >10% in 6 months

669
Q

What is BMI =?

A

Weight (kg) / height (m)^2

671
Q

What BMI is considered underweight?

A

<18.5 kg/m²

673
Q

What BMI range is normal?

A

18.5–24.9 kg/m²

675
Q

What are indications for parenteral nutrition (PN)?

A

Non-functioning GI tract, failed EN trial, bowel obstruction, severe malabsorption

677
Q

When should PN be initiated in critically ill adults?

A

If EN is not feasible after 7 days (or earlier in malnourished patients)

679
Q

What is the difference between central and peripheral PN?

A

Central PN allows higher osmolarity solutions; peripheral PN is limited to <900 mOsm/L

681
Q

What are typical macronutrient components of PN?

A

Dextrose, amino acids, IV lipids

683
Q

What is the max recommended glucose infusion rate (GIR)?

A

<4–5 mg/kg/min in adults

685
Q

What is a typical lipid dosing range for PN?

A

0.5–1.5 g/kg/day

687
Q

What is the caloric value of 20% lipid emulsion?

A

2 kcal/mL (10 kcal/g)

689
Q

What is a concern with excessive lipid administration?

A

Hypertriglyceridemia, impaired immune function

691
Q

What are signs of essential fatty acid deficiency?

A

Dry, scaly skin; alopecia; impaired wound healing

693
Q

How often should lipids be given to prevent EFAD?

A

At least 100 g/week (2–3 times/week)

695
Q

What is SMOF lipid?

A

Soybean oil, MCT, olive oil, fish oil mix—less pro-inflammatory

697
Q

What is cyclic PN?

A

PN administered over <24 hours (typically 12–18 hrs/day)

699
Q

What are benefits of cyclic PN?

A

Improved liver function, mimics normal metabolism, mobility

701
Q

What are risks of starting PN too quickly?

A

Refeeding syndrome, hyperglycemia, electrolyte shifts

703
Q

What labs should be monitored closely during PN?

A

Glucose, electrolytes, triglycerides, liver function tests

705
Q

What are signs of PN-associated liver disease?

A

Elevated LFTs, cholestasis, steatosis, fibrosis

707
Q

What strategies help prevent PN-associated liver disease?

A

Cycle PN, avoid overfeeding, use trophic EN, lipid minimization

709
Q

What is the role of acetate in PN?

A

Converted to bicarbonate—used to manage metabolic acidosis

711
Q

What is the role of chloride in PN?

A

Used to manage metabolic alkalosis

713
Q

What are common PN complications?

A

Infection (catheter-related), liver dysfunction, metabolic disturbances

715
Q

What is the recommended protein intake in PN for critically ill adults?

A

1.2–2.0 g/kg/day

717
Q

What is the max osmolarity for peripheral PN?

A

<900 mOsm/L

719
Q

How is PN osmolarity calculated?

A

Based on dextrose, amino acids, electrolytes—lipids don’t contribute

721
Q

What organization develops nutrition support guidelines?

A

ASPEN (American Society for Parenteral and Enteral Nutrition)

723
Q

What are ASPEN’s recommendations for initiating EN in the ICU?

A

Within 24–48 hours of admission if hemodynamically stable

725
Q

What is the ASPEN recommendation for protein in critically ill adults?

A

1.2–2.0 g/kg/day

727
Q

What is ASPEN’s stance on glutamine in critical illness?

A

Not recommended for routine use in critically ill patients

729
Q

What is the FDA limit for aluminum in PN solutions?

731
Q

What must manufacturers label on PN additives per FDA?

A

Maximum aluminum content at expiry

733
Q

What labeling standards apply to EN products?

A

Must list nutrient content per serving and per mL

735
Q

What is a DRG?

A

Diagnosis-Related Group—used for hospital reimbursement

737
Q

What is the role of ICD-10 codes?

A

Diagnosis classification used for billing and documentation

739
Q

What does CPT stand for?

A

Current Procedural Terminology—used for procedure coding

741
Q

What documentation supports nutrition reimbursement?

A

Nutrition diagnosis, care plan, progress notes, justification for EN/PN

743
Q

What is a root cause analysis (RCA)?

A

Structured method for identifying underlying causes of an event

745
Q

What is a PDSA cycle?

A

Plan-Do-Study-Act—used in QI to test and implement changes

747
Q

What do JCAHO and CMS require for nutrition?

A

Nutrition screening within 24 hours of hospital admission

749
Q

What is the purpose of a nutrition care process (NCP)?

A

Standardized approach to nutrition assessment and care

751
Q

What is the USP <797> guideline?

A

Standards for sterile compounding of parenteral nutrition

753
Q

What is the Hang Time recommendation for open EN systems?

A

4–8 hours

755
Q

What is the Hang Time recommendation for closed EN systems?

A

Up to 24–48 hours

757
Q

What are key nutrition concerns in neonates?

A

Immature GI function, high energy/protein needs, fluid/electrolyte sensitivity

759
Q

What trace elements are typically excluded in neonatal PN?

A

Manganese, chromium (risk of toxicity)

761
Q

What is the typical GIR range for neonates?

A

4–12 mg/kg/min

763
Q

How is fluid calculated for neonates?

A

Based on weight and age in mL/kg/day

765
Q

What are key nutrition goals in AKI?

A

Avoid overfeeding, manage electrolytes, adequate protein (1.5–2.0 g/kg if on CRRT)

767
Q

What electrolytes need close monitoring in CKD/AKI?

A

Potassium, phosphorus, magnesium

769
Q

What type of formula may be needed in renal disease?

A

Low electrolyte, fluid-restricted, higher calorie density

771
Q

What are nutrition concerns in liver disease?

A

Malnutrition, fat malabsorption, ascites, electrolyte imbalances

773
Q

What is the preferred type of protein in hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Vegetable or BCAA-rich protein

775
Q

What formula adjustments may be needed in liver failure?

A

Energy-dense, low sodium, moderate protein

777
Q

What lab indicates impaired ammonia metabolism?

A

Elevated serum ammonia

779
Q

What is cancer cachexia?

A

Metabolic syndrome with weight loss, muscle wasting, inflammation

781
Q

What are nutrition goals in oncology?

A

Maintain weight, support immune function, prevent muscle loss

783
Q

When is EN preferred in oncology?

A

When the GI tract is functional and oral intake is inadequate

785
Q

What is the nutrition focus in Crohn’s disease?

A

Manage flares with low-residue diet, maintain nutrient adequacy

787
Q

What deficiencies are common in IBD?

A

Iron, B12, vitamin D, calcium

789
Q

What EN formula is often used in pancreatitis?

A

Elemental or semi-elemental, low-fat, jejunal feeding

791
Q

What are nutrition considerations in obesity during critical illness?

A

Use adjusted body weight for energy/protein needs

793
Q

What protein range is used in critically ill obese patients?

A

2.0–2.5 g/kg IBW/day

795
Q

What are increased needs in burn patients?

A

High protein (up to 2.5–3 g/kg), high calorie, fluid/electrolyte repletion

797
Q

What vitamins and minerals are important in burn recovery?

A

Vitamin C, zinc, selenium, vitamin A

798
Q

How many kcal/gram does dextrose provide in PN?

A

3.4 kcal/g

800
Q

How many kcal/gram does protein provide?

802
Q

How many kcal/gram does fat provide in EN?

804
Q

How many kcal/mL does 20% IV lipid provide?

806
Q

How many kcal/mL does propofol provide?

A

1.1 kcal/mL

808
Q

How many grams of nitrogen are in 1 gram of protein?

A

1 gram of nitrogen = 6.25 grams of protein

810
Q

How is nitrogen balance calculated?

A

Nitrogen in (g protein/6.25) – (UUN + 4)

812
Q

What is the goal NPC:N ratio for moderate stress?

A

100–150:1

814
Q

What is the general adult fluid requirement?

A

30–35 mL/kg/day

816
Q

What is the Holliday-Segar method for pediatric fluids?

A

100 mL/kg for first 10 kg + 50 mL/kg for next 10 kg + 20 mL/kg for each kg >20

818
Q

How is glucose infusion rate (GIR) calculated?

A

(mg dextrose/day ÷ weight in kg ÷ 1440)

820
Q

What is the max GIR for adults?

A

<4–5 mg/kg/min

822
Q

What is the max GIR for neonates?

A

≤12 mg/kg/min

824
Q

How is PN osmolarity calculated?

A

Dextrose × 5 + AA × 10 + electrolytes

826
Q

What is the max osmolarity for peripheral PN?

A

<900 mOsm/L

828
Q

What is the formula for BMI?

A

Weight (kg) / height (m)^2

830
Q

What is the formula for IBW (female)?

A

45.5 kg + 2.3 kg per inch over 5 feet

832
Q

What is the formula for IBW (male)?

A

50 kg + 2.3 kg per inch over 5 feet

834
Q

How is adjusted body weight (AdjBW) calculated?

A

IBW + 0.25 × (ABW - IBW)

836
Q

What are common energy equations?

A

Mifflin-St. Jeor, Harris-Benedict, Ireton-Jones, Penn State

838
Q

What is the kcal/protein range for critically ill patients?

A

25–30 kcal/kg and 1.2–2.0 g/kg protein

840
Q

When should adjusted body weight be used?

A

For obese patients (>120% IBW) to estimate energy/protein needs

842
Q

What is refeeding syndrome?

A

Electrolyte shifts (↓phosphorus, potassium, magnesium) after initiating nutrition in malnourished patients

844
Q

Who is at risk for refeeding syndrome?

A

Severely malnourished, NPO >7 days, chronic alcoholism, significant weight loss

846
Q

How is refeeding syndrome prevented?

A

Start low and advance slowly, supplement electrolytes, monitor labs closely

848
Q

What are consequences of overfeeding?

A

Hyperglycemia, increased CO2 production, hepatic steatosis, fluid overload

850
Q

What RQ indicates overfeeding?

852
Q

What are consequences of underfeeding?

A

Impaired wound healing, muscle wasting, immune dysfunction

854
Q

What causes hyperglycemia in nutrition support?

A

Excess dextrose, stress response, insulin resistance

856
Q

How is hyperglycemia managed?

A

Adjust dextrose load, use insulin, monitor glucose

858
Q

When can hypoglycemia occur in nutrition support?

A

Abrupt discontinuation of PN, insulin overdose

860
Q

What is PN-associated liver disease (PNALD)?

A

Liver dysfunction due to long-term PN use

862
Q

What are signs of PNALD?

A

Elevated LFTs, cholestasis, steatosis

864
Q

How is PNALD prevented/managed?

A

Avoid overfeeding, cycle PN, use enteral feeding if possible

866
Q

What are signs of EN intolerance?

A

High gastric residuals, abdominal distention, vomiting, diarrhea

868
Q

How is diarrhea from EN managed?

A

Adjust formula, reduce rate, add fiber or antidiarrheals

870
Q

How is constipation from EN managed?

A

Increase fluid/fiber, stool softeners

872
Q

Who is at high risk for aspiration?

A

Sedated, neurologically impaired, post-stroke, gastric feedings

874
Q

How is aspiration risk reduced?

A

Elevate HOB ≥30°, post-pyloric feeding, continuous infusion

876
Q

What are common enteral tube complications?

A

Occlusion, dislodgment, infection at site

878
Q

How are occluded feeding tubes cleared?

A

Warm water flushes, enzymatic declogging agents

880
Q

What is a CLABSI?

A

Central line-associated bloodstream infection

882
Q

How are line infections prevented?

A

Aseptic technique, catheter care, ethanol locks if indicated

884
Q

What causes metabolic bone disease in PN patients?

A

Aluminum exposure, vitamin D deficiency, low calcium/phosphorus

886
Q

What are symptoms of EFAD?

A

Dry, scaly skin, alopecia, impaired wound healing

888
Q

How is EFAD prevented?

A

Provide at least 100 g IV lipid per week

890
Q

What defines a central venous catheter (CVC)?

A

Tip terminates in the superior vena cava (SVC) or right atrium

892
Q

What are examples of central venous access devices?

A

PICC, tunneled catheter (e.g., Hickman), implanted port, non-tunneled CVC

894
Q

What are advantages of central access?

A

Can deliver hyperosmolar solutions, long-term use

896
Q

What are common insertion sites for central lines?

A

Subclavian, jugular, femoral

898
Q

What are risks of central lines?

A

Infection, thrombosis, pneumothorax, catheter occlusion

900
Q

What defines peripheral venous access?

A

Tip terminates outside of central vasculature

902
Q

What is the max osmolarity for peripheral parenteral nutrition (PPN)?

A

<900 mOsm/L

904
Q

What are disadvantages of PPN?

A

Short-term use, risk of phlebitis, limited calorie delivery

906
Q

What is a single-lumen catheter?

A

One channel for infusion

908
Q

What is a double-lumen catheter?

A

Two channels—can infuse different solutions simultaneously

910
Q

What is a triple-lumen catheter?

A

Three channels—used in critical care or multiple infusions

912
Q

Why are multiple lumens helpful?

A

Separate administration of incompatible medications/nutrition

914
Q

What is a nasogastric (NG) tube?

A

Inserted through the nose into the stomach—short-term use

916
Q

What is a nasojejunal (NJ) tube?

A

Inserted through the nose into the jejunum—post-pyloric feeding

918
Q

What is a gastrostomy (G-tube)?

A

Tube placed directly into the stomach—long-term EN

920
Q

What is a jejunostomy (J-tube)?

A

Tube placed directly into the jejunum—used if stomach not functional

922
Q

What is a PEG tube?

A

Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy—G-tube placed via endoscopy

924
Q

What is a PEJ tube?

A

Percutaneous endoscopic jejunostomy—J-tube placed via endoscopy

926
Q

What is the difference between balloon vs. non-balloon G-tube?

A

Balloon: easier at-home replacement; Non-balloon: more secure

928
Q

What is a low-profile G-tube?

A

Flush with skin, used for active patients

930
Q

How is enteral tube patency maintained?

A

Flush with water before/after feeding or medication

932
Q

What is a common cause of tube occlusion?

A

Medication residue, inadequate flushing

934
Q

How can clogged tubes be cleared?

A

Warm water flushes, enzyme-based unclogging kits (no soda or juice)

936
Q

What is a drug-nutrient interaction?

A

A reaction between a drug and a nutrient that affects absorption, metabolism, or excretion of either

938
Q

What is the interaction between phenytoin and EN?

A

EN decreases phenytoin absorption

940
Q

How to manage phenytoin interaction with EN?

A

Hold tube feeds 1–2 hours before and after dosing

942
Q

How does warfarin interact with nutrition?

A

Vitamin K intake can reduce warfarin effectiveness

944
Q

How to manage warfarin interaction?

A

Maintain consistent vitamin K intake

946
Q

What nutrient deficiencies can PPIs cause?

A

Vitamin B12, magnesium, calcium

948
Q

What are nutrition concerns with corticosteroids?

A

Hyperglycemia, increased protein breakdown, bone loss

950
Q

What are nutrient losses associated with loop diuretics?

A

Potassium, magnesium, calcium, thiamine

952
Q

What is a key nutritional concern with thiazide diuretics?

A

Hypercalcemia and potassium loss

954
Q

What nutrient interactions occur with cholestyramine?

A

Decreases absorption of fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K)

956
Q

What is a common nutrient concern with prolonged antibiotic use?

A

Vitamin K deficiency and altered gut microbiota

958
Q

What decreases iron absorption?

A

Calcium, PPIs, antacids, tannins (tea/coffee)

960
Q

What enhances iron absorption?

A

Vitamin C and acidic environment

962
Q

What nutrient should be supplemented with methotrexate?

A

Folic acid

964
Q

What nutrient competes with levodopa for absorption?

A

Protein—high protein meals can reduce drug effectiveness

966
Q

What drug is lipid-based and contributes calories?

A

Propofol (1.1 kcal/mL)

968
Q

What vitamins are light-sensitive and degrade in TPN?

A

Vitamins A, C, and B1 (thiamine)

970
Q

What trace element should be monitored in patients on long-term PPI or H2RA therapy?

972
Q

What are the indications for enteral nutrition (EN)?

A

Functioning GI tract, unable to meet needs orally for >2–3 days

974
Q

When should EN be initiated in critically ill patients?

A

Within 24–48 hours of ICU admission

976
Q

What are contraindications to EN?

A

Non-functioning GI tract, bowel obstruction, hemodynamic instability

978
Q

What are common routes for EN?

A

Nasogastric, nasojejunal, gastrostomy, jejunostomy

980
Q

What is the difference between gastric and post-pyloric feeding?

A

Gastric: easier placement, higher aspiration risk; Post-pyloric: lower aspiration risk, for high reflux/vomiting

982
Q

What are polymeric formulas?

A

Standard EN formulas with intact protein, fat, and carbohydrates

984
Q

What are elemental/semi-elemental formulas?

A

Formulas with hydrolyzed proteins, for malabsorption or GI dysfunction

986
Q

What is a modular formula?

A

Customizable formula components (e.g., protein powder, glucose polymers)

988
Q

What is the recommended protein intake in EN for critically ill adults?

A

1.2–2.0 g/kg/day

990
Q

What is the typical goal for EN advancement?

A

Reach goal rate within 48–72 hours if tolerated

992
Q

What are signs of EN intolerance?

A

High gastric residuals, abdominal distension, vomiting, diarrhea

994
Q

What is refeeding syndrome?

A

Fluid and electrolyte shifts (↓phos, K, Mg) when feeding is initiated after starvation

996
Q

How can refeeding syndrome be prevented?

A

Start low and go slow, supplement electrolytes, monitor labs closely

998
Q

How should medications be given via feeding tube?

A

Use liquid forms or crushable tablets, flush before/after administration

1000
Q

Which drugs interact with tube feeds?

A

Phenytoin, warfarin, fluoroquinolones—require holding feeds before/after

1002
Q

What is the difference between open vs. closed EN systems?

A

Open: decanted, increased contamination risk; Closed: prefilled, safer, longer hang time

1004
Q

What is the typical hang time for open EN systems?

A

4–8 hours

1006
Q

What is the typical hang time for closed EN systems?

A

Up to 24–48 hours

1008
Q

How much free water is in most standard EN formulas?

1010
Q

What is the typical calorie density of standard EN formulas?

A

1.0–1.2 kcal/mL

1012
Q

What calorie density is considered energy-dense?

A

≥1.5 kcal/mL, used for fluid restriction

1014
Q

What is the typical fluid requirement for adults?

A

30–35 mL/kg/day

1016
Q

What is the Holliday-Segar method for pediatric fluid needs?

A

100 mL/kg for first 10 kg + 50 mL/kg for next 10 kg + 20 mL/kg for weight >20 kg

1018
Q

What are signs of fluid overload?

A

Edema, hypertension, pulmonary congestion

1020
Q

What are signs of dehydration?

A

Hypotension, tachycardia, decreased urine output, elevated BUN/Cr

1022
Q

Normal serum sodium range?

A

135–145 mEq/L

1024
Q

What does hyponatremia indicate?

A

Fluid overload, SIADH, renal failure

1026
Q

What does hypernatremia indicate?

A

Dehydration, diabetes insipidus

1028
Q

Normal serum potassium range?

A

3.5–5.0 mEq/L

1030
Q

Causes of hypokalemia?

A

Diuretics, GI losses, refeeding syndrome

1032
Q

Causes of hyperkalemia?

A

Renal failure, acidosis, tissue breakdown

1034
Q

Normal serum calcium range?

A

8.5–10.5 mg/dL

1036
Q

What should you check in hypoalbuminemia?

A

Corrected calcium

1038
Q

Corrected calcium formula?

A

Measured Ca + 0.8 × (4 - serum albumin)

1040
Q

Causes of hypocalcemia?

A

Vitamin D deficiency, pancreatitis, low magnesium

1042
Q

Causes of hypercalcemia?

A

Hyperparathyroidism, malignancy

1044
Q

Normal serum phosphorus range?

A

2.5–4.5 mg/dL

1046
Q

Causes of hypophosphatemia?

A

Refeeding syndrome, TPN without phosphorus, DKA

1048
Q

Causes of hyperphosphatemia?

A

Renal failure, tumor lysis syndrome

1050
Q

Normal serum magnesium range?

A

1.5–2.5 mg/dL

1052
Q

Causes of hypomagnesemia?

A

Diarrhea, alcoholism, diuretics

1054
Q

Causes of hypermagnesemia?

A

Renal failure, excessive supplementation

1056
Q

What is metabolic acidosis?

A

Low pH, low HCO3; causes: diarrhea, renal failure, ketoacidosis

1058
Q

What is metabolic alkalosis?

A

High pH, high HCO3; causes: vomiting, diuretics

1060
Q

What is respiratory acidosis?

A

Low pH, high CO2; causes: hypoventilation, COPD

1062
Q

What is respiratory alkalosis?

A

High pH, low CO2; causes: hyperventilation, anxiety

1064
Q

Where does most nutrient absorption occur?

A

Small intestine (primarily jejunum)

1066
Q

What is the function of the ileum?

A

Absorbs bile salts, vitamin B12, and some water/electrolytes

1068
Q

What is the role of the colon in digestion?

A

Absorbs water, electrolytes, short-chain fatty acids

1070
Q

What is the function of the pancreas in digestion?

A

Secretes enzymes for digestion of protein, fat, and carbohydrates

1072
Q

Where is intrinsic factor produced and what is its role?

A

Stomach; binds to vitamin B12 for absorption in the ileum

1074
Q

What is short bowel syndrome (SBS)?

A

Malabsorption from significant loss of small bowel surface area

1076
Q

What are nutrition concerns in SBS?

A

Fluid/electrolyte imbalance, fat malabsorption, nutrient deficiencies

1078
Q

Which part of the bowel can adapt best after resection?

1080
Q

Which part is most difficult to compensate for if resected?

1082
Q

What is the role of the colon in patients with SBS?

A

Colon helps absorb fluids, SCFAs—important if ileum resected

1084
Q

What is small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO)?

A

Excessive bacteria in small bowel causing bloating, diarrhea, malabsorption

1086
Q

Risk factors for SIBO?

A

Stasis, strictures, blind loops, motility disorders

1088
Q

What is the role of bile salts?

A

Emulsify fats for digestion and absorption

1090
Q

What happens when bile salts are malabsorbed?

A

Fat malabsorption, steatorrhea, loss of fat-soluble vitamins

1092
Q

What is the concern with pancreatic insufficiency?

A

Inadequate digestion of fat/protein, leading to steatorrhea and malnutrition

1094
Q

How is pancreatic insufficiency managed?

A

Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy (PERT) with meals/snacks

1096
Q

What is a chyle leak?

A

Loss of lymphatic fluid rich in fat/protein/electrolytes

1098
Q

How is a chyle leak managed nutritionally?

A

Low-fat or MCT-based diet; may require EN or PN

1100
Q

What is bile acid diarrhea?

A

Occurs after ileal resection; bile salts enter colon causing fluid secretion

1102
Q

Treatment for bile acid diarrhea?

A

Bile acid sequestrants (e.g., cholestyramine)

1104
Q

What is an anastomosis?

A

Surgical connection between two parts of the bowel

1106
Q

What is a fistula?

A

Abnormal connection between bowel and another surface or organ

1108
Q

What is high-output fistula defined as?

A

> 500 mL/day output

1110
Q

Normal fasting glucose range?

A

70–99 mg/dL

1112
Q

What is hyperglycemia defined as?

A

> 180 mg/dL

1114
Q

What is hypoglycemia defined as?

1116
Q

Normal sodium range?

A

135–145 mEq/L

1118
Q

Normal potassium range?

A

3.5–5.0 mEq/L

1120
Q

Normal chloride range?

A

98–106 mEq/L

1122
Q

Normal CO2 (bicarb) range?

A

22–28 mEq/L

1124
Q

Normal calcium range?

A

8.5–10.5 mg/dL

1126
Q

Normal magnesium range?

A

1.5–2.5 mg/dL

1128
Q

Normal phosphorus range?

A

2.5–4.5 mg/dL

1130
Q

What does elevated AST/ALT suggest?

A

Hepatocellular injury

1132
Q

What does elevated ALP and bilirubin suggest?

A

Cholestasis or bile duct obstruction

1134
Q

What does elevated direct bilirubin indicate?

A

Obstructive or hepatocellular jaundice

1136
Q

What is prealbumin used to assess?

A

Short-term changes in nutrition status

1138
Q

Why is prealbumin not reliable in critically ill patients?

A

It is a negative acute-phase reactant

1140
Q

What is CRP used for?

A

Marker of inflammation

1142
Q

What does a high CRP indicate?

A

Acute inflammation, infection, or trauma

1144
Q

What does elevated BUN/creatinine indicate?

A

Dehydration or renal dysfunction

1146
Q

What does a high BUN:Cr ratio suggest?

A

Pre-renal azotemia (often due to dehydration)

1148
Q

What is a normal BUN:Cr ratio?

A

10:1 to 20:1

1150
Q

What lab reflects iron storage?

1152
Q

What lab reflects recent iron status?

A

Serum iron, transferrin saturation

1154
Q

What labs suggest iron deficiency anemia?

A

Low Hgb, low Hct, low ferritin, high TIBC

1156
Q

What lab is used to assess vitamin D status?

1158
Q

What lab decreases in zinc deficiency?

A

Alkaline phosphatase

1160
Q

What labs are monitored for refeeding syndrome?

A

Phosphorus, potassium, magnesium

1162
Q

What does elevated ammonia indicate?

A

Liver failure, especially in hepatic encephalopathy

1164
Q

What does an RQ >1.0 suggest?

A

Overfeeding, lipogenesis

1166
Q

How many kcal/gram does dextrose provide in PN?

A

3.4 kcal/gram

1168
Q

How many kcal/gram does protein provide in EN/PN?

A

4 kcal/gram

1170
Q

How many kcal/gram does lipid provide in PN?

A

10 kcal/gram (from 20% lipid emulsion)

1172
Q

How many kcal/gram does lipid provide in EN?

A

9 kcal/gram

1174
Q

What is the typical non-protein calorie to nitrogen ratio (NPC:N) in PN?

A

100–150:1

1176
Q

What is the purpose of the NPC:N ratio?

A

To ensure adequate calories to spare protein for tissue repair and growth

1178
Q

How many grams of nitrogen are in 1 gram of protein?

A

1 gram of nitrogen = 6.25 grams of protein

1180
Q

What macronutrient has the highest respiratory quotient (RQ)?

A

Carbohydrates (RQ ~1.0)

1182
Q

What macronutrient has the lowest respiratory quotient (RQ)?

A

Fat (RQ ~0.7)

1184
Q

What is the typical protein range in PN for a critically ill adult?

A

1.2–2.0 g/kg/day

1186
Q

What is the minimum amount of carbohydrate needed to prevent ketosis?

A

100–150 g/day

1188
Q

What is a concern with excessive carbohydrate intake in PN?

A

Hyperglycemia, increased CO2 production, hepatic steatosis

1190
Q

What is a concern with excessive fat intake in PN?

A

Hypertriglyceridemia, impaired immune function

1192
Q

What are the components of TPN macronutrients?

A

Dextrose, amino acids, lipids

1194
Q

How many kcal/gram does dextrose provide in PN?

A

3.4 kcal/g

1196
Q

How many kcal/gram does protein provide?

1198
Q

How many kcal/gram does fat provide in EN?

1200
Q

How many kcal/mL does 20% IV lipid provide?

1202
Q

How many kcal/mL does propofol provide?

A

1.1 kcal/mL

1204
Q

How many grams of nitrogen are in 1 gram of protein?

A

1 gram of nitrogen = 6.25 grams of protein

1206
Q

How is nitrogen balance calculated?

A

Nitrogen in (g protein/6.25) – (UUN + 4)

1208
Q

What is the goal NPC:N ratio for moderate stress?

A

100–150:1

1210
Q

What is the general adult fluid requirement?

A

30–35 mL/kg/day

1212
Q

What is the Holliday-Segar method for pediatric fluids?

A

100 mL/kg for first 10 kg + 50 mL/kg for next 10 kg + 20 mL/kg for each kg >20

1214
Q

How is glucose infusion rate (GIR) calculated?

A

(mg dextrose/day ÷ weight in kg ÷ 1440)

1216
Q

What is the max GIR for adults?

A

<4–5 mg/kg/min

1218
Q

What is the max GIR for neonates?

A

≤12 mg/kg/min

1220
Q

How is PN osmolarity calculated?

A

Dextrose × 5 + AA × 10 + electrolytes

1222
Q

What is the max osmolarity for peripheral PN?

A

<900 mOsm/L

1224
Q

What is the formula for BMI?

A

Weight (kg) / height (m)^2

1226
Q

What is the formula for IBW (female)?

A

45.5 kg + 2.3 kg per inch over 5 feet

1228
Q

What is the formula for IBW (male)?

A

50 kg + 2.3 kg per inch over 5 feet

1230
Q

How is adjusted body weight (AdjBW) calculated?

A

IBW + 0.25 × (ABW - IBW)

1232
Q

What are common energy equations?

A

Mifflin-St. Jeor, Harris-Benedict, Ireton-Jones, Penn State

1234
Q

What is the kcal/protein range for critically ill patients?

A

25–30 kcal/kg and 1.2–2.0 g/kg protein

1236
Q

When should adjusted body weight be used?

A

For obese patients (>120% IBW) to estimate energy/protein needs

1238
Q

What is refeeding syndrome?

A

Electrolyte shifts (↓phosphorus, potassium, magnesium) after initiating nutrition in malnourished patients

1240
Q

Who is at risk for refeeding syndrome?

A

Severely malnourished, NPO >7 days, chronic alcoholism, significant weight loss

1242
Q

How is refeeding syndrome prevented?

A

Start low and advance slowly, supplement electrolytes, monitor labs closely

1244
Q

What are consequences of overfeeding?

A

Hyperglycemia, increased CO2 production, hepatic steatosis, fluid overload

1246
Q

What RQ indicates overfeeding?

1248
Q

What are consequences of underfeeding?

A

Impaired wound healing, muscle wasting, immune dysfunction

1250
Q

What causes hyperglycemia in nutrition support?

A

Excess dextrose, stress response, insulin resistance

1252
Q

How is hyperglycemia managed?

A

Adjust dextrose load, use insulin, monitor glucose

1254
Q

When can hypoglycemia occur in nutrition support?

A

Abrupt discontinuation of PN, insulin overdose

1256
Q

What is PN-associated liver disease (PNALD)?

A

Liver dysfunction due to long-term PN use

1258
Q

What are signs of PNALD?

A

Elevated LFTs, cholestasis, steatosis

1260
Q

How is PNALD prevented/managed?

A

Avoid overfeeding, cycle PN, use enteral feeding if possible

1262
Q

What are signs of EN intolerance?

A

High gastric residuals, abdominal distention, vomiting, diarrhea

1264
Q

How is diarrhea from EN managed?

A

Adjust formula, reduce rate, add fiber or antidiarrheals

1266
Q

How is constipation from EN managed?

A

Increase fluid/fiber, stool softeners

1268
Q

Who is at high risk for aspiration?

A

Sedated, neurologically impaired, post-stroke, gastric feedings

1270
Q

How is aspiration risk reduced?

A

Elevate HOB ≥30°, post-pyloric feeding, continuous infusion

1272
Q

What are common enteral tube complications?

A

Occlusion, dislodgment, infection at site

1274
Q

How are occluded feeding tubes cleared?

A

Warm water flushes, enzymatic declogging agents

1276
Q

What is a CLABSI?

A

Central line-associated bloodstream infection

1278
Q

How are line infections prevented?

A

Aseptic technique, catheter care, ethanol locks if indicated

1280
Q

What causes metabolic bone disease in PN patients?

A

Aluminum exposure, vitamin D deficiency, low calcium/phosphorus

1282
Q

What are symptoms of EFAD?

A

Dry, scaly skin, alopecia, impaired wound healing

1284
Q

How is EFAD prevented?

A

Provide at least 100 g IV lipid per week

1286
Q

What defines a central venous catheter (CVC)?

A

Tip terminates in the superior vena cava (SVC) or right atrium

1288
Q

What are examples of central venous access devices?

A

PICC, tunneled catheter (e.g., Hickman), implanted port, non-tunneled CVC

1290
Q

What are advantages of central access?

A

Can deliver hyperosmolar solutions, long-term use

1292
Q

What are common insertion sites for central lines?

A

Subclavian, jugular, femoral

1294
Q

What are risks of central lines?

A

Infection, thrombosis, pneumothorax, catheter occlusion