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Z A&P I Exam #3 > Chapters 7-9 > Flashcards

Chapters 7-9 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 functions of bones?

A

-Support & protect softer tissue
-Provide point of attachment for muscles and to facilitate movement
-House blood-producing cells
-Store inorganic salts

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2
Q

What are the five types of bone shapes?

A

-Long bones
-Short bones
-sesamoid bone
-Flat bones
-Irregular bones

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3
Q

Description and examples of long bones?

A

Long and narrow such as the femur and humerus

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4
Q

Description and examples of short bones?

A

Length approximates widths such as the carpals and tarsals

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5
Q

Description and example of semoid bones?

A

Any round bones that form within tendons adjacent to joint such as the patella

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6
Q

Description and example of flat bones?

A

Plate-like bones such as the plates of the skull

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7
Q

Description and example of irregular bones?

A

Variety of shapes such as the vertebral bones

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8
Q

What is the epiphysis?

A

Expanded end

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9
Q

What is the diaphysis?

A

Bone shaft

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10
Q

What is the metaphysis?

A

Intervening portion between epiphysis and diaphysis

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11
Q

What is the articular cartilage?

A

Covers the ends of bones (epiphysis)

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12
Q

Periosteum?

A

Dense connective tissue layer that encloses the bone

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13
Q

Compact bone?

A

The weight-bearing wall of the diaphysis

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14
Q

Where is spongy/cancellous bone located?

A

Make up the epiphysis

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15
Q

Trabeculae?

A

Branching bony plates that make up spongy bone

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16
Q

Medullary cavity?

A

Hollow chamber of shaft (diaphysis) that contains bone marrow

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17
Q

Endosteum?

A

Lines the interior spaces/cavity of the bone

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18
Q

Bone marrow?

A

Fills the medullary cavity-includes red and yellow

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19
Q

Bone is made of ____ & ____?

A

Collagen (connective tissue fiber) & inorganic salts (Calcium)

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20
Q

Mature bones cells are called ____ and occupy chambers called ____?

A

Osteocytes… Lacunae

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21
Q

Passageways that interconnect lacunae are called ____?

A

Canaliculi

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22
Q

The structural unit of compact bone is the ____ and is a ____ ____ structure that helps bear ____ and ____ ____?

A

Osteon… cylindrical structure… weight and resist compression

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23
Q

The matrix of bone is layered in concentric rings called ____ and are centered around a ____ ____ in which blood vessels and nerves pass through?

A

Lamellae…central canal

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24
Q

Adjacent central canals are joined together vie ____ ____?

A

Perforating canals

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25
Q

Spongy bone features ____ which is more flexible?

A

Trabeculae

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26
Q

What are the two ways bone develops?

A

Intramembranous ossification & Endochondral ossification

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27
Q

Which bones are formed from intramembranous ossification?

A

Skull bones

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28
Q

What type of bones form from endochondral ossification?

A

Long bones

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29
Q

What is the 4 step process of intramembranous ossification?

A

-Mesenchymal cell (embryonic cells) become osteoblasts
-Osteoblasts deposit bone matrix
-Osteoblasts become completely surrounded and transform into osteocytes
-Mesenchyme on outside becomes periosteum

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30
Q

What is the 7 step process of endochondral ossification?

A

-Hyaline cartilage model
-Chondrocytes enlarge
-Matrix breaks down as chondrocytes die
-Osteoblasts invade the area
-Osteoblasts deposit bone matrix
-Osteoblasts form spongy and then compact bone
-Once encased in lacunae, osteoblasts become osteocytes

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31
Q

What are epiphyseal (growth) plates?

A

The cartilaginous region where long bones grow in length

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32
Q

What happens when the two ossification centers of a bone meet?

A

The epiphyseal plate ossifies and the bone can no longer grow in length

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33
Q

Bone can continue to lengthen as ____ ____ of the ____ ___ remain ____?

A

Cartilage cells… epiphyseal plate… active

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34
Q

What are the four zones of cartilage?

A

-Resting cartilage
-Proliferating cartilage
-Hypertrophic cartilage
-Calcified cartilage

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35
Q

What is the zone of resting cartilage?

A

They layer closest to end of epiphysis; resting cells that anchor epiphyseal plate to epiphysis

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36
Q

What is the zone of proliferating cartliage?

A

Rows of young cells that are actively dividing (mitotically active)

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37
Q

What is the zone of hypertrophic cartilage?

A

Rows of older cells that help thicken the epiphyseal plate and lengthen the bone; calcifies matrix

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38
Q

What is the zone of calcified cartilage?

A

Thin layer of dead cartilage cells and calcified matrix

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39
Q

What is the role of osteoblasts?

A

Replace cartilage with bone tissue

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40
Q

What is the role of osteoclasts?

A

Break down calcified matrix

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41
Q

Which bone is the last to ossify?

A

Clavicle

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42
Q

When are all bone ossified?

A

By the age of 25

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43
Q

What two process maintain bone tissue homeostasis?

A

Resorption and deposition

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44
Q

What is bone resorption?

A

Removal of bone; action of osteoclasts

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45
Q

What is bone deposition?

A

Formation of bone; action of osteoblasts

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46
Q

What are the 3 vitamins critical for bone health?

A

D, C, & A

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47
Q

What are the three hormones that play a role in bone health?

A

Growth hormone, Thyroid hormone, & Parathyroid hormone

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48
Q

What is the role of vitamin D in bone health?

A

Calcium obsorption

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49
Q

What does deficiency of vitamin D cause in children?

A

Rickets

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50
Q

What does deficiency of vitamin D cause in adults?

A

Osteomalacia (softening of bones)

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51
Q

What role does vitamin A play in bones?

A

Affects osteoblast and osteoclast activity

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52
Q

What does deficiency in vitamin A cause in bone?

A

Retards bone development

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53
Q

What role does vitamin C play in bone formation?

A

Helps with collagen synthesis

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54
Q

What does deficiency in vitamin C cause in bones?

A

Slender and fragile bones

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55
Q

What disease can result from vitamin C deficiency?

A

Scurvy

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56
Q

What does growth hormone (GH) do for bone development?

A

Stimulates cartilage cell division

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57
Q

Insufficiency in growth hormone causes ____?

A

Pituitary dwarfism

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58
Q

Excess of growth hormone in children causes ____?

A

Gigantism

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59
Q

Excess of growth hormone in adults causes ____?

A

Acromegaly

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60
Q

What two functions does the thyroid hormone have in bone development?

A

Causes replacement of cartilage with bone in epiphyseal plate and affects osteoblast activity

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61
Q

What does the parathyroid hormone do for bone formation?

A

Stimulates the breakdown of bone by stimulating osteoclast activity

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62
Q

What are the two general categories of fractures?

A

Simple/closed fractures and compound/open fractures

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63
Q

What are simple/closed fractures?

A

Fracture is protected by uninjured skin

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64
Q

What are compound/open fractures?

A

Fractures in which bone is exposed to the outside through the opening in the skin

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65
Q

What are the six classifications of fractures?

A

-Greenstick
-Transverse
-Oblique
-Spiral
-fissured
-Comminuted

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66
Q

What is a greenstick fracture?

A

An incomplete break often seen in children

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67
Q

What is a fissured fracture?

A

Incomplete longitudinal break

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68
Q

What is comminuted fracture?

A

Complete; fragments the bone

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69
Q

Transverse fracture?

A

Complete; occurs at a right angle to the bone shaft

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70
Q

Oblique fracture?

A

Oblique, occurs at an angle other than a right angle

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71
Q

Spiral fracture?

A

Caused by excessive twisting; associated with child abuse

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72
Q

What are the 4 phases of fracture repair?

A

-Hematoma
-Cartilaginous (soft) callus
-Bony callus
-Remodeling

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73
Q

Fracture repair process hematoma?

A

Large blood clot forms

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74
Q

Fracture repair process cartilaginous (soft) callus?

A

Phagocytes remove debris and fibrocartilage invades

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75
Q

Fracture repair process bony callus?

A

Osteoblasts invade and a hard callus fill the space

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76
Q

Fracture repair process remodeling?

A

Bone restored to close to original shape

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77
Q

What are the 5 major functions of bones?

A

-Provide shape
-Support body structures
-Protect body structures
-Aids in body movement (bones act as levers which muscles can use to produce motion)
-Contains tissue that produce blood cells
-Stores inorganic salts

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78
Q

Hematopoiesis?

A

Process by which blood cells are formed

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79
Q

Where does blood cell production occur?

A

Red bone marrow

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80
Q

What does yellow bone marrow do?

A

Stores fat

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81
Q

What is the most abundant crystal in bone?

A

Hydroxyapatite

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82
Q

What is hydroxyapatite?

A

Calcium (Ca++) and Phospahte (PO4—-)

83
Q

What does calcitonin do?

A

Stimulates osteoblasts to deposit Ca++ in the cones which effectively lower blood Ca++ levels

84
Q

Where is calcitonin released from?

A

Thyroid gland

85
Q

What does the parathyroid hormone do?

A

Causes osteoclasts to breakdown bone to release calcium which effectively raises blood Ca++ levels

86
Q

What is a fragility fracture a sign of?

A

Low bone density?

87
Q

What is a fragility fracture?

A

A fracture that occurs from less than standing height

88
Q

What is osteopenia?

A

Bone loss

89
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

Severe bone loss that leaves canals in bones and weakens them

90
Q

Who is osteopenia and osteoporosis common in?

A

Common in post-menopausal women due to hormone changes

91
Q

What are three ways to prevent osteopenia and osteoporosis?

A

-30 min exercise/day
-Get enough Ca2+ and Vit. D
-Stop smoking

92
Q

What are the 5 signs of bones and aging?

A

a. Height decreases starting at age 30 as bones thin and weaken
b. Osteoclasts outnumber osteoblasts with age
c. Spongy bone weakens before compact bone
d. Bone loss is rapid in menopausal women
e. Hip fractures and vertebral compression fractures become more common

93
Q

What in another name for joints?

A

Articulations

94
Q

What are the three classifications of joints based on structure?

A

-Fibrous
-Cartilaginous
-Synovial

95
Q

What is a syndesmosis?

A

An amphiarthrotic joint either formed by an interosseous membrane or an interosseous ligament such as the tibia-fibular joint

96
Q

What is a suture?

A

A connection between flat bones of the skull. Consists of a thin layer of connective tissue (sutural ligament). Synarthrotic

97
Q

What is a gomphosis?

A

Cone-shaped process fitting into a socket of jawbone and held with a periodontal ligament. Synarthrotic

98
Q

What is a synchondrosis?

A

Composed of bands of hyaline cartilage such as the epiphyseal plate and between manubrium and 1st rib. Synarthrotic

99
Q

What is a symphysis?

A

Pad of fibrocartilage between bones with the articular surface being covered with hyaline cartilage such as pubic symphysis and intervertebral discs. Amphiarthrotic

100
Q

What structure make up a synovial joint?

A
  1. articular cartilage
  2. capsule
    a. synovial membrane
    b. synovium (fluid)
    ii. bursa
    iii. meniscus
101
Q

What are the 6 types of synovial joints?

A
  1. ball-and-socket (egs., hips & shoulders)
  2. condylar (egs., metacarpals & phalanges)
  3. plane (eg., carpals)
  4. hinge (eg., elbow)
  5. pivot (eg., atlantoaxial – C1/C2)
  6. saddle (eg., carpals/metacarpals of thumb)
102
Q

Ball-and-socket joint?

A

-aka spheroidal joint
-features a round head fitting in a cupped cavity
-exhibits widest range of motion
-multiaxial, plus rotation
-egs., hips, shoulders

103
Q

Condylar joint?

A

-aka ellipsoidal joint
-oval condyle fits into elliptical cavity
-Back-and-forth; side-to-side motions
-Biaxial movement, but with no rotation
-egs., joints between metacarpals & phalanges

104
Q

Plane joint?

A

-aka gliding joint
-almost flat; or, slightly curved
-Back-and-forth; twisting
-nonaxial movement
-eg. wrist & ankle joints

105
Q

Hinge joint?

A

-convex surface of one bone sits in concave surface of another bone
-uniaxial movement (in one plane)
-egs., elbows; joints b/w phalanges

106
Q

Pivot joint?

A

-aka trochoid joint
cylindrical surface rotates within ring of another bone
-uniaxial movement
-rotation only
-egs., atlas (C1) & dens of axis (C2)

107
Q

Saddle joint?

A

-aka sellar joint
-both bones have concave and convex surfaces
-biaxial movement (in two planes)
-egs., carpal & metacarpals of thumb

108
Q

What is a suture?

A

-occurs between flat bones of the skull
-consists of thin layer of connective tissue (sutural ligament)
-synarthrotic

109
Q

What is a gomphosis?

A

-cone-shaped bony process in a socket in jawbone
-periodontal ligament
-synarthrotic

110
Q

What are the two types of cartilaginous joints?

A

i. synchondrosis (eg., costal cartilage)
ii. symphysis (egs., pubic symphysis, intervertebral discs)

111
Q

What is a synchondrosis?

A

-composed of bands of hyaline cartilage form joint
-eg, epiphyseal plate (temporary)
-eg., between manubrium & 1st rib
costal cartilage

112
Q

What is a symphysis?

A

-pad of fibrocartilage between bones
-articular surfaces covered by hyaline cartilage
amphiarthrotic
-eg., pubic symphysis
-eg., intervertebral discs

113
Q

What are the three types of joints based on function?

A

a. Synarthrotic
b. Amphiarthrotic
c. Diarthotic

114
Q

What are the 4 basic features of skeletal muscle?

A

a. voluntary
b. promotes movement: attached to bones
c. striated
d. multiple nuclei near periphery of cell

115
Q

A skeletal muscle is an ____ of the skeletal system?

A

Organ

116
Q

What 4 tissues does skeletal muscle consist of?

A

muscle tissue, nervous tissue, blood & connective tissue

117
Q

What are the three types of connective tissue in muscle?

A

i. fascia – dense connective tissue that surrounds the muscle and tapers to form tendons
ii. aponeuroses – broad, fibrous sheet of connective tissue

118
Q

What are the 3 coverings in a muscle?

A

-Epimysium
-Perimysium
-Endomysium

119
Q

What is the epimysium?

A

surrounds whole muscle

120
Q

Perimysium?

A

surrounds fascicles within a muscle

121
Q

Fascicle?

A

is a bundle of muscle fibers (cells)

122
Q

Endomysium?

A

surrounds muscle fibers within the facsicle

123
Q

Why is a muscle cell multinucleated?

A

result of multiple cells fusing together

124
Q

Sarcolemma?

A

muscle fiber membrane

125
Q

Sarcoplasm?

A

the cytoplasm of the muscle fiber

126
Q

Myofibrils?

A

the actin (thin) & myosin (filament) fibers within the muscle cell

127
Q

Sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A

specialized endoplasmic reticulum where Ca++ ions are stored

128
Q

Transverse tubules?

A

– invaginations of the sarcolemma that extend into the sarcoplasm

129
Q

Triad?

A
  1. triad: 2 cisternae (of SR) + transverse tubule
130
Q

Sarcomere?

A

the functional unit of the muscle cell

131
Q

Z-line?

A

i. boundaries of the sarcomere

132
Q

A-band?

A

represents the thin & thick filaments

133
Q

H-zone?

A

thick filaments only – myosin protein

134
Q

I-band?

A

thin filaments only (flank the edges of the sarcomere) – actin protein

135
Q

Thick filaments?

A

Myosin

136
Q

Thin filaments?

A

Actin

137
Q

What proteins regulate cross-bridging?

A
  1. troponin
  2. tropomyosin
138
Q

Sliding filament model?

A

i. contraction occurs as a result of actin (thin) and myosin (thick) filaments sliding past one another

139
Q

Does the length of filaments change?

A

No

140
Q

What is the final result in the sarcomere after contraction?

A

the H- and I-bands narrow; and, the Z-lines move closer together

141
Q

Skeletal muscle connects to nervous system via ____ ____?

A

Neuromuscular junction (NMJ)

142
Q

Motor neuron?

A

nervous tissue that relays signal from the central nervous system to the skeletal muscle

143
Q

Motor end plate?

A

portion of the skeletal muscle that responds to the motor neuron

144
Q

Synaptic cleft?

A

space between the motor neuron & the motor end plate

145
Q

Synaptic vessicles?

A

membranous “sacs” found within the terminus of the motor neuron each of which contains neurotransmitter that stimulates a muscle contraction

146
Q

What is the neurotransmitter for skeletal muscle?

A

acetylcholine (ACh)

147
Q

How does a neurotransmitter work?

A

a. the motor end plate features ACh receptors that bind to the neurotransmitter
b. ACh stimulates a change in membrane potential across the motor end plate
c. Results in the release of Ca++ ions from the SR

148
Q

What are the 6 steps of the contraction cycle?

A

-Resting
-ACh stimulates the release of Ca++ ions
-Cross-bridge formation
-Power-stroke
-Cross-bridge release
-Cocking of myosin heads

149
Q

Contraction cycle: what happens during the resting phase?

A

Ca++ ions are sequestered in the SR; troponin/tropomyosin is blocking cross-bridge formation

150
Q

Contraction cycle: what happens during the ACh stimulates the release of Ca++ ions phase?

A

Ca++ ions from the SR which binds to troponin and facilitates a shift in tropomyosin that reveals myosin-binding sites on actin

151
Q

Contraction cycle: what happens during the cross-bridge formation phase?

A

the myosin heads bind to actin

152
Q

Contraction cycle: what happens during the power-stroke phase?

A

the release of ADP from myosin causes the filaments to slide

153
Q

Contraction cycle: what happens during the cross-bridge release?

A

the myosin-actin association is disrupted when high-energy ATP binds to the myosin head

154
Q

Contraction cycle: what happens during the cocking of myosin head phase?

A

the ATP is hydrolyzed to ADP releasing energy which “resets” the myosin heads

155
Q

3 step process of muscle relaxation?

A

i. acetylcholinesterase is an enzyme that decomposes the ACh that remains in the synapse
ii. ATP is needed to sequester (pump) Ca++ ions back into the SR
1. Removal of Ca++ results in troponin/tropomyosin to conceal myosin-binding sites on actin again
iii. ATP is also needed to reset (“cock”) myosin heads

156
Q

What decomposes ACh?

A

i. acetylcholinesterase

157
Q

What is ATP?

A

Adenosine triphosphate

158
Q

What are the 4 phases of energy used for contraction?

A

-ATP in the cytoplasm is quickly exhausted during contraction
-Creatine phosphate
-Anaerobic
-Aerobic

159
Q

Creatine phosphate?

A

enables muscle cells to regenerate ATP from ADP via phosphate transfer when cellular ATP is low

160
Q

Where does the anaerobic phase occur?

A
  1. occurs in the cytoplasm
161
Q

Oxygen debt?

A

the amount of oxygen needed by liver cells to convert lactic acid back to sugars, and to restore muscle ATP & creatine phosphate to original levels

162
Q

When is the anaerobic phase used?

A

– limited oxygen availability due to strenuous exertion

163
Q

What does the anaerobic phase produce?

A

2 ATP and pyruvic acid which turns into lactic acid

164
Q

____ ____ ____ + ____ ____ ____ = Aerobic Phase

A

Citric acid cycle + electron transport chain

165
Q

Where does the aerobic phase occur?

A

mitochondria

166
Q

What does the aerobic phase produce?

A

34 ATP

167
Q

What is myoglobin?

A

an oxygen-binding molecule that helps supply additional oxygen when vascular supplies dwindle

168
Q

What causes muscle fatigue?

A

– the inability to contract muscle
1. due to: decreased blood flow; ion imbalance (across sarcolemma); loss of desire to continue to exercise; accumulation of lactic acid

169
Q

What is a muscle cramp?

A

sustained, involuntary contraction

170
Q

What causes a muscle cramp?

A

changes in electrolyte levels in fluid surrounding muscle cell

171
Q

Muscle contraction can be measured by ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ of a dissected muscle?

A

examining changes in muscle length

172
Q

What is a threshold stimulus?

A

the minimum strength of stimulus required for contraction
1. produces an action potential resulting in the release of Ca++ ions from the SR of the muscle sample

173
Q

What is a twitch?

A

the contractile response to a single impulse

174
Q

3 periods of a twitch?

A

a. latent period
b. period of contraction
c. period of relaxation

175
Q

Optimum starting length is the same as ____ length of a muscle fiber?

A

Resting

176
Q

Summation?

A

the process of combining the force generated by individual muscle fiber twitches

177
Q

Extremely prolonged contraction called ____ ____ don’t normally occur in humans?

A

tetanic contractions

178
Q

What is a motor unit?

A

(1) the motor neuron + (2) all of the muscle fibers under its control

179
Q

Coarse movements are produced by?

A

large # of fibers recruited within a motor unit

180
Q

Precise movements are produced by?

A

smaller # of fibers within a motor unit

181
Q

Recruitment?

A

the increase in the # of motor units becoming activated which produces additional force

182
Q

What motor units are recruited 1st during muscle contraction?

A
  1. smaller motor units are recruited 1st during sustained contraction
183
Q

What motor units are recruited 2nd during muscle contraction?

A
  1. larger motor units are recruited next during sustained contraction
184
Q

___ motor units will become activated if a stimulus is significantly long?

A

All

185
Q

____ + ____ produce contractions of increasing strength?

A

Summation + Recruitment

186
Q

Isotonic?

A

muscle contracts & changes length

187
Q

Concentric?

A

shortening contraction

188
Q

Eccentric?

A

lengthening contraction

189
Q

Isometric?

A

muscle contracts but does not change length (holding a heavy object stationary)

190
Q

Slow-twitch muscle fibers?

A

-aka Type 1
-resistant to fatigue
-slower to contract
-stimulated by aerobic exercise
-high myoglobin
-red coloration

191
Q

Fast-twitch, fatigue resistant muscle fibers?

A

-aka Type IIa
-quicker to contract than Type 1
-resistant to fatigue
-stimulated by forceful exercise
-high myoglobin
-red coloration

192
Q

Fast-twitch, glycolytic fibers?

A

-aka Type IIb
-contract rapidly
-susceptible to fatigue
-low myoglobin
-white coloration

193
Q

Two types of smooth muscle?

A

Multi-unit & Visceral

194
Q

Multi-unit smooth muscle?

A
  1. associated with eye (iris) & walls of blood vessels
  2. cells are less organized
  3. each fiber functions independently
195
Q

Visceral smooth muscle?

A
  1. found in walls of hollow organs
  2. cells function collectively as a unit
  3. exists as sheets of spindle-shaped muscle fibers
  4. exhibits rhythmicity
196
Q

How do smooth muscle fibers appear?

A

b. fibers are shorter than skeletal muscle, have tapered ends
c. each fiber has a central nucleus
d. not striated

197
Q

What structures do smooth muscles miss?

A

d. not striated
e. no transverse tubules; SR not fully developed

198
Q

What do smooth muscles use in place of troponin?

A

calmodulin

199
Q

What do smooth muscles use a a neurotransmitter?

A

norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter, in addition to ACh

200
Q

What are cardiac muscles joined by?

A

intercalated discs

201
Q

How are cardiac muscles stumulated?

A

Rhythmic: self-exciting

202
Q

How do cardiac muscles appear?

A

Striated and branching

203
Q

Cardiac muscles features ____ ____ ____ than skeletal muscle?

A

longer refractory period

Z A&P I Exam #3 (1 decks)

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