Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

General Biology > Chapters 7-10 > Flashcards

Chapters 7-10 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What must happen to amino acids before they can be used in catabolic reactions?
a) deoxygenated
b) dehydrogenated
c) decarboxylated
d) deaminated

A

deaminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In glycolysis, a major portion of the energy remains in the final product, which is called…
a) glyceraldehyde 3- phosphate
b) citrate
c) glusose
d) pyruvate

A

pyruvate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In the reaction catalyzed by aconitase, the conversion of citrate to isocitrate in inhibited by fluoroacetate. Fluoracetate is used as a pesticide. Why is this an effective pesticide?
a) inhibits citric acid cycle
b) inhibits pyruvate oxidation
c) inhibits ATP synthase
d) inhibits glycolysis

A

inhibits citric acid cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What stage of cellular respiration can occur in human cells with or without oxygen present?
a) citric acid cycle
b) electron transport
c) pyruvate oxidation
d) glycolysis

A

Glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What happens to the oxygen that is used in cellular respiration?
a) converts to acetyl-CoA
b) makes glucose
c) makes citric acid cycle intermediates
d) coverts to carbon dioxide
e) reduces to form water

A

reduces to form water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

All of the reactions of cellular respiration that occurs after glycolysis takes place in what part of the eukaryotic cell?
a) the plasma membrane
b) the cytoplasm
c) the chloroplast
d) the nucleus
e) the mitochondria

A

the mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How and where is ATP made in a eukaryotic cell?

A

ATP can be made by phosphorylation of ADP in the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the oxidized form of the most common electron carrier that is needed for both glycolysis and the citric acid cycle?
a) pyruvate
b) ATP
c) NAD+
d) FAD
e) acetyl-CoA

A

NAD+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When substrate level phosphorylation occurs, it means that:
a) ADP is converted into ATP by the addition of phosphate group
b) NAD+
c) ATP is converted into ADP plus a phosphate group
d) NADH is converted into NAD+ a protein

A

NAD+ is converted into NADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

During what step of glycolysis are two ATP molecules required?
a) acetyl-CoA formation
b) oxidation
c) glucose priming
d) pyruvate formation
e) cleavage and rearrangement

A

glucose priming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the function of a protein kinase?
a) phosphorylate GDP to generate GTP
b) to cleave membrane phospholipids
c) remove phosphate groups from proteins
d) add phosphate groups onto proteins

A

add phosphate groups onto proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In response to injury, cell fragments called plateled get activated to reduce clotting. Activated platelets release factor that can in turn bind to special membrane receptors on nearby cells. What type of signaling would this be considered?
a) autocrine
b) endocrine
c) direct contact
d) synaptic
e) paracrine

A

paracrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

You have identified a novel cytoplasmic protein. Through sequence analysis you are able to identify the presence of a number of serine/threonine phosphorylation motifs. Based on these data, you hypothesize that this protein may be a substrate for what kind of enzyme?
a) phospholipase
b) receptor tyrosine kinase
c) G protein-coupled receptor
d) tyrosine phosphatase
e) protein kinase

A

protein kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

You have identified a molecule, molecule X, that can bind to the ATP binding site of a specific protein kinase, and prevent ATP binding. You are conducting a kinase assay using this protein kinase and a known substrate of this kinase, and have set up the reaction using the proper conditions and cofactors to allow for optimal protein kinase activity. If you add molecule X to the reaction, what do you predict will be the outcome?
a) less phosphorylation of the substrate will be seen in the presence of molecule X
b) more phosphorylation of the substrate will be seen in the presence of molecule X
c) the substrate will be phosphorylated normally in the presence of molecule X

A

Less phosphorylation of the substrate will be seen in the presence of molecule X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What enzyme phosphorylates MAP kinase kinase?
a) MAP kinase kinase
b) MAP kinase kinase kinase
c) MAP kinase
d) MAP phosphatase

A

MAP kinase kinase kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

G protein-coupled receptors are the largest family of cell surface receptors. Each receptor passes through the plasma membrane how many times?
a) once
b) three times
c) seven times
d) five times

A

seven times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Some enzymatic receptors and most G protein-coupled receptors transmit the signal into the cytoplasm by utilizing other substances within the cytoplasm that are referred to as…
a) second messengers
b) intracellular receptors
c) first messengers
d) genes

A

second messengers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is similar about G protein-coupled receptors and receptor tyrosine kinases?
a) both are enzymes
b) both are activated by autophosphorylation
c) both are directly bound to G proteins
d) both can activate phospholipase C

A

both can activate phospholipase C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The function of adenylyl cyclase is to…
a) stimulate the release of calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum
b) catalyze the conversion of ATP to cAMP
c) cleave PIP2 into DAG and IP3
d) directly activate protein kinase A

A

catalyze the conversion of ATP to cAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Growth of new blood vessels is stimulated by vascular endothelial growth factor. This ligand binds to the VEGF receptor, which leads to the dimerization and autophosphorylation of this receptor on cytoplasmic tyrosines. What type of receptor is the VEGF receptor?
a) enzymatic receptor
b) G protein-coupled receptor
c) steroid hormone receptor
d) channel-linked receptor

A

enzymatic receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe how phosphorglation can affect protein function.

A

Phosphorglation controls the protein function through the addition of phosphate groups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Contrast the different types of receptors.

A

There are three different types of receptors: channel-linked, enzymatic, and G protein-coupled. Channel-linked receptors allows the passage of ions to bind many neurotransmitters have the same basic structure. Enzymatic receptors is where many cell-surface receptors that pretend to be enzymes or they are directly linked to them. It happens when a single molecule binds to a receptor which activates enzymes that add phosphate groups to proteins. G protein-coupled receptors is when cell-surface receptors indirectly act on enzymes or ion channels that binds the nucleotide guanosine triphosphate which is inserted in between receptors and enzymes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Compare the function of RTKs to steroid hormone receptors.

A

Receptor Tyrosine Kinase influences cell cycle, cell migration, cell metabolism, and cell proliferation where all cells are affected through receptor signals. It signals pathways can lead to cancers. Steroid hormone receptors create large class compounds that combine estrogen, cortisol, progesterone, and testosterone. They act as regulators for gene expressions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Contrast signaling through GPCRs and RTKs.

A

GPCR is a receptor that couples with a G protein. The function is to operate the link for the receptor to be a signal receiver and a protein effector that produces cellular responses. An RTK is activated by signal passages and inactivated through desphosphorylation or internalization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe the role of ATP in biological systems.

A

Cells use energy from ATP hydrolysis to power most of those activities that require work. They read to control their contents by moving substances across the membrane; or moving organelles within cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Distinguish between aerobic respiration and fementation.

A

Aerobic respiration is when oxygen has a high affinity for electrons. Fermentation is when oxygen is not available but an organic molecule can accept electrons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe the process of glycolysis.

A

Glycolysis has five reactions: priming which has three reactions, cleavage, and oxidation plus ATP formation. Priming reactions change glucose into a compound and other priming reactions transfer ATP phosphates. Cleavage reactions takes diphosphate sugars to divide into monophosphate sugars. When this happens a G3P changes another sugar to a G3P. Oxidation and ATP formation has every single G3P oxidated. Then they would transfer electrons to NAD+ and forms NADH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe the structure and function of the electron transport chain.

A

Redox reactions are a part of the electron transport chain. It turns into energy to be put into electrons for the purpose of potential energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

In what kinds of ecosystems would you expect to find anaerobic respiration?

A

The kind that doesn’t require energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Identify the entry points for proteins and fats in energy metabolism.

A

Proteins turn into amino acids that were deanimated. Fats turn into fatty acids and glycerol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Define ligand.

A

a signaling molecule that binds to a specific receptor protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Define signal transduction.

A

the events that occur within a cell on receipt of a single or ligand binding to a receptor protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Define endocrine signaling.

A

the intercellular communications of hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Define paracrine signaling.

A

a chemical signaling between cells either short-term or long-term

34
Q

Define synaptic signaling.

A

the intercellular communications through the association between neurons and target cells

35
Q

Define phosphorylation.

A

the chemical reaction due to a phosphate group being added to an organic molecule

36
Q

Define protein kinases.

A

an enzyme that adds phosphate groups to proteins to change their activity

37
Q

Define phosphatases.

A

the number of enzymes that removes a phosphate group from a protein

38
Q

Define second messenger.

A

a small molecule that carries the message from a receptor on the target cell surface into the cytoplasm

39
Q

Define adaptor protein.

A

a class of proteins that act as a link between and other proteins to initiate signal transduction

40
Q

Define cellular respiration.

A

metabolic harvesting of energy through oxidation

41
Q

Define dehydrogenations.

A

a chemical reaction that happens after losing hydrogen atoms

42
Q

Define aerobic respiration.

A

a process that finishes the glucose oxidation by using oxygen for the last electron acceptor

43
Q

Define anaerobic respiration.

A

the use of electron transport to generate protein gradients for chemiosmotic synthesis of ATP for the final electron acceptor

44
Q

Define fermentation.

A

the enzyme catalyst extracts energy from organic compounds that do not deal with oxygen

45
Q

Define electron transport chain.

A

the passage of energy electrons through electron carrier molecules

46
Q

Define oxidative phosphorylation.

A

the synthesis between ATP that uses energy from protein gradients

47
Q

Define deamination.

A

the removal of an amino acid

48
Q

Define beta oxidation.

A

requires oxygen for acetyl groups to pair with coenzyme A to make acetyl-CoA

49
Q

Define citric acid cycle.

A

takes acetyl units from acetyl-CoA to form CO2

50
Q

Define mitosis.

A

somatic cell division where duplicated chromosomes separate

51
Q

Define karyotype.

A

the morphology of the chromosomes of an organism

52
Q

Define chromatin.

A

the DNA complex and proteins where eukaryotic chromosomes are composed

53
Q

Define centromere.

A

a visible point of constriction on a chromosome that contains repeated DNA sequences that bind specific proteins

54
Q

Define cytokinesis.

A

division of the cytoplasm of a cell after nuclear division

55
Q

Describe the process of binary fission.

A

binary fission is basically cell division that occurs in eukaryotic and bacterial cells to produce new cells out of the same DNA information.

56
Q

Describe the eukaryotic cell cycle.

A

The eukaryotic cell cycle has five phases: gap phase 1, synthesis, gap phase 2, mitosis, and cytokinesis. Gap phase one is the primary growth phase where the gap between cytokinesis and DNA synthesis is closed. Synthesis is the phase where cell synthesis occurs for a replica of a genome. Gap phase two is where the cell finishes growing. Mitosis phase happens when the spindle apparatus forms and binds together with the chromosomes. After that it pushes the chromatids apart. Cytokinese is when the cytoplasm divides, thus creating two cells.

57
Q

What part of the cell cycle is the division of the nucleus?
a) mitosis
b) interphase
c) cytokinesis
d) Gap 1
e) Gap 2

A

mitosis

58
Q

What part of mitosis packages sister chromatids?
a) prophase
b) prometaphase
c) metaphase
d) anaphase
e) telophase

A

prophase

59
Q

What part of mitosis is when the sister chromatids align?
a) prophase
b) prometaphase
c) metaphase
d) anaphase
e) telophase

A

metaphase

60
Q

What part of mitosis is when the sister chromatids separate?
a) prophase
b) prometaphase
c) metaphase
d) anaphase
e) telophase

A

anaphase

61
Q

What part of mitosis is when daughter nuclei form?
a) prophase
b) prometaphase
c) metaphase
d) anaphase
e) telophase

A

Telophase

62
Q

What part of the cell cycle is when the division of the cytoplasm takes place?
a) mitosis
b) cytokinesis
c) interphase
d) Gap 1
e) Gap 2

A

cytokinesis

63
Q

In the phase of cytokinesis, an example of cleavage furrow fits into ___________.
a) plant cell
b) animal cell
c) cell plate
d) cytoplasm

A

animal cell

64
Q

In the phase of cytokinesis, an example of a cell plate fits into ____________.
a) plant cell
b) animal cell
c) cleavage furrow
d) cytoplasm

A

plant cell

65
Q

The primary growth stage in the cell cycle is the _____________.
a) Gap 1
b) Gap 2
c) Interphase
d) Mitosis
e) Cytokinesis
f) Synthesis

A

Gap 1

66
Q

The additional growth stage in the cell cycle is the ___________.
a) Gap 1
b) Gap 2
c) Mitosis
d) Cytokinesis
e) Synthesis

A

Gap 2

67
Q

What part of the cell cycle initiates DNA replication?
a) Gap 1
b) Gap 2
c) Mitosis
d) Cytokinesis
e) Synthesis

A

Synthesis

68
Q

If there are 32 sister chromatids in a normal somatic cell, what is the haploid number for that cell?
a) 8
b) 16
c) 64
d) 32

A

8

69
Q

Before cell division of somatic cells, each chromosome must be replicated. After replication, the resulting two parts of each chromosome are held together by cohesin at the centromere. There are referred to as…
a) kintochores
b) daughter chromosome
c) homologous chromosomes
d) genes
e) sister chromatids

A

sister chromatids

70
Q

What is the sequence of events in a typical eukaryotic cell cycle?

A

Gap 1, Synthesis, Gap 2, mitosis, cytokinesis

71
Q

A person whose cells all contain a chromosome number of 2n+1 most likely has what type of condition?
a) monosomy
b) trisomy
c) cancer
d) obesity

A

trisomy

72
Q

A cell biologist produces a karyotype of mouse somatic cells arrested in mitosis. She sees 40 chromosomes, which is completely normal for mice. Based on this information, what is the haploid number of chromosomes for mice?
a) 80
b) 10
c) 20
d) 40

A

20

73
Q

How does feedback inhibition ensure economic production of ATP?

A

feedback of NADH and ATP ensure that a cell doesn’t invest too much of existing ATP into making unnecessary ATP that the cell doesn’t need yet

74
Q

What are body cells?
a) somatic cells
b) prokaryotic cells
c) eukaryotic cells
d) cancer cells

A

somatic cells

75
Q

How many chromosomes do humans have?
a) 10
b) 100
c) 46
d) 50

A

46

76
Q

How many chromosomes do sex cells have?
a) 46
b) 23
c) 76
d) 102

A

23

77
Q

Define haploid.

A

a single set of chromosomes

78
Q

Define diploid.

A

two sets of chromosomes

79
Q

The interphase of the cell cycle involve…

A

gap 1, synthesis, and gap 2

80
Q

Define kinetochores.

A

a primary function is to attach to microtubule spindle fibers upon cell division

81
Q

Define growth factors.

A

a protein molecule made by the body to regulate cell division and cell survival

82
Q

Define proto-oncogenes.

A

a healthy gene that becomes an oncogene after mutation leading to cancerous cells

General Biology (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions