Chapters 6-9 Flashcards

1
Q

When must the arrested person be taken before a magistrate?

A

Without unnecessary delay, and in any event no longer than two days, Sundays and holidays excluded.

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2
Q

The sixths amendment provisions that

A

The accused shall enjoy the right to a speedy trial.

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3
Q

Barker V. Wingo

A

(guarantee to a speedy trial had been violated)
4 factors under Barker is the
-Length of delay
-Reason for delay (justification for delay)
-Whether or not the defendant asserted his right.
-Harm or prejudice to the defendant
-Remedy, dismissal of charges and cannot retry the defendant for the same matter

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4
Q

The right of discovery or the right of inspection

A

In Texas, this is never waived and is an ongoing right.
ie. even after a case is disposed of – if additional discovery is received – it is still uploaded into computer system and defense notified. (Michael Morton Act and Brady)

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5
Q

Types of charging documents in Texas/ accusatory pleadings

A

Complaint, information, indictment

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6
Q

Charging documents for felonies

A

If a felony is indicted, it is known as an indictment. If plea prior to indictment, it proceeds on information.

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7
Q

Charging document for misdemeanors

A

The charging document is called an “information” which is accompanied by a “complaint.” A complaint is a sworn document in the form of an affidavit, giving facts and details of a crime. And the complaint must contain enough facts for the Judge to determine whether a crime has been committed and whether or not the accused has committed it.

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8
Q

Miranda and the 5th amendment

A

– This deals with custodial interrogation by the government
Miranda warnings must be given – includes the right to an attorney, if you can
not afford one – one will be appointed for you.
– Right to Attorney during Custodial Interrogations (Miranda wngs)
* 2 parts to determine if custodial interrogation
* 1) is the person in custody
* 2) are they being interrogated by Gov’t
* If yes – they must make a knowing, intelligent and voluntary
waiver of his/her rights when questioned.

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9
Q

6th amendment

A

Contains the Criminal Jury Trial Rights –
– Speedy trial, impartial jury, confrontation of witnesses, and the COUNSEL CLAUSE
“Have the assistance of COUNSEL for his defense.”

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10
Q

Voluntary absence from trial

A

The Allen decision definitely established that a trial could take place in the absence of a defendant when he or she was so disruptive that his or her removal from the courtroom became necessary.

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11
Q

Cureton V. United States

A

when def. knowingly and
voluntarily absences himself – Cureton test
“If a defendant at liberty remains away during his trial, the court may proceed provided it is clearly established that his absence is voluntary. He must be aware of the processes taking place, of his right and of his obligations to be present, and he must have no sound reason for remaining away.”

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12
Q

Right to counsel

A

includes misdemeanors and felonies.

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13
Q

Argersinger V. Hamlin

A

No person may be imprisoned for any offense, petty, misdemeanor or otherwise, unless he or she is represented by counsel.

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14
Q

Faretta Case

A

“In order to represent himself the accused must knowingly and intelligently” waive the right to the assistance of counsel.

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15
Q

Standby counsel

A

judge can appoint even if defendant objects: an attorney appointed by the judge to be available to consult with the defendant in cases where the defendant represents himself or herself.

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16
Q

Strickland V. Washington

A

Case states that ineffective assistance evaluation is based on an OBJECTIVE standard of reasonableness and the burden of proof is on def.
2 prongs:
* Was counsel ineffective – see defn. above
* Did def. rely on counsel to his detriment, ie was the defendant prejudiced

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17
Q

Right of Discovery

A

is the pretrial right of the adversary to inspect, review, and copy certain materials held by the opposition that are anticipated to be introduced as evidence during the trial. (Note: This right of discovery is more closely related to the subject of evidence as opposed to procedure.)

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18
Q

The right of pretrial discovery was created primarily for the benefit of the

A

Defendant

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19
Q

Pretrial right of Discovery

A

-Helps defense with case preparation and aids in ensuring a fair trial
-Helps with cross-examination of witnesses and impeachment of witnesses

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20
Q

Denial of the right of discovery (NOT TEXAS)

A

In states where the right of pretrial discovery is not recognized, the defendant must rely on the preliminary hearing, when applicable, for any assistance received in case preparation.

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21
Q

Brady V. Maryland doctrine

A

– Brady requires the disclosure of exculpatory evidence which the government is aware of, and which is within its custody or control. (exculpatory, impeachment, defenses)
– The Brady doctrine is not absolute.
– Under Brady, the prosecutor is charged with knowledge of the significance of the evidence in his file regardless of if he overlooks it.
– Brady requires reversal only when nondisclosed evidence is “material.”
– ie. Reasonable probability that
had the evidence been disclosed, the result would have been different?
– My Brady test – If prosecution wouldn’t want defendant to find something out or know something…..it’s likely
Brady

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22
Q

Hearing to suppress.

A

– Generally held prior to the trial; but can be held with
trial
– Held before a judge alone and not before a jury; if motion is held with trial – then the jury is excused when this motion is heard and will or will not hear/receive evidence – based on judge’s ruling.

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23
Q

Motion for continuance

A

Most state codes provide that no continuance of a criminal trial shall be granted except where the ends of justice require a continuance.

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24
Q

Insanity

A

refers to the accused’s mental state at the time of the act. Ie. When crime committed.

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25
Q

Competency

A

refers to the accused’s mental state at trial time.ie. When in court

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26
Q

Motion to determine competency.

A

Competency of the defendant must be determined because a person cannot be tried, sentenced, or punished while incompetent. And if legally insane, NGRI.
* Competency and sanity are presumed. If defense says a def. may be incompetent, then that needs to be addressed FIRST. All proceedings must STOP until competent.
* A defendant cannot be evaluated for insanity unless he is competent.

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27
Q

Plea negotiation

A

Plea negotiating, or plea bargaining, as it is more commonly known, is nothing more than agreement between the prosecuting attorney and the defense to reduce a charge to a lesser crime, to drop certain charges, or to receive a lessened sentence in return for a guilty or nolo contendere plea.

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28
Q

When there is a plea bargain

A

the defendant will enter a plea upon stipulated evidence by the prosecution.

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29
Q

Brady V. United States

A

Case set out standards that a guilty plea must be freely and voluntarily entered into by defendant (no threats of harm or coercion) Plea negotiations for a reduced sentence in return for a plea did not violate a def’s 5th amendment right against self-incrimination.

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30
Q

Withdrawal of the negotiated plea

A

A guilty plea may be withdrawn if the bargain is not complied with by either the judge or the prosecuting attorney. (Busted plea)

31
Q

The study of evidence is a study of regulation of the process of proving facts.

A
  • It is codified in statutes and court rules.
    – In Texas, it is in the Texas Rules of Evidence (most regulations are in the Rules of Evidence) and the Code of Criminal Procedure (lists some rules on disclosure of Evidence)
32
Q

Texas rules of evidence

A

It is an additional code book, along with the
Tx. Rules of Criminal Procedure (which details HOW the court runs) and the Penal Code (which lists all the crimes).

A trial judge has the authority (discretion) to fashion evidentiary procedures to deal with situations not specifically covered by the rules. (Know this)
* When a case is appealed, the standard by the appellate court is often “abuse of discretion” ie. Did the trial judge abuse his discretion when he/ she admitted the
evidence?

33
Q

A statement is

A

-An oral or written assertion
-Nonverbal conduct of a person if it is intended by the person as an assertion

34
Q

declarant

A

is a person who makes a statement

35
Q

Hearsay

A

is a statement, other than one made by the
declarant while testifying at the trial or hearing, offered in
evidence to prove the truth of the matter asserted.

36
Q

TX. R 802

A

general rule is that hearsay is not admissible; Also states – you must OBJECT –
“Inadmissible hearsay admitted without objection shall not be denied probative value merely because it is hearsay.”

37
Q

Statements that are not hearsay

A

– Prior statement of a witness – at trial or hearing and was subject
to cross and is
-Inconsistent with declarant’s testimony (impeachment- an attempt to limit or discredit evidence that has already been
admitted) …..
-Consistent and offered to rebut charge of recent fabrication, ie. Just saying it now for first time….
-One of Identification (often a lineup)
- Admission of Party Opponent (legally obtained confessions or statements of def. come in) In criminal cases, this is only applied to defendant statements

38
Q

hearsay is inadmissible unless

A

an exception is applicable.

39
Q

Rulings on evidence

A

Rulings on evidence cannot be assigned as error (when appealing) unless: (TWO requirements)
– A substantial right is affected
– The nature of the error was called to the attention of the judge, to alert him or her to the proper course of action and enable opposing counsel to take proper corrective measures (attorney must object)

40
Q

Preliminary questions

A

concerning the qualification of a person to be a witness, the existence of a privilege, or the admissibility of evidence shall be determined by the court (trial judge)

41
Q

Relevant Evidence

A

Character questions arise in two fundamentally different
ways:
1. Character may itself be an element of a crime, claim,
or defense.
2. Character evidence is susceptible of being used for the purpose of suggesting an inference that the person acted on the occasion in question consistently with his character.
General rule – evidence of other crimes, wrongs or bad acts not admissible to show that def. acted in conformity but may be admissible for other purposes:
Motive, opportunity, plan, identity.

42
Q

Rape Shield Laws

A

These laws are to protect the victim
* Pursuant to Federal Rule 412 and similar state rules, the following evidence is not admissible in any civil or criminal proceeding involving alleged sexual misconduct of a victim except as otherwise provided in subdivisions Rule 412 (b) and (c)
– Evidence offered to prove that any alleged victim engaged in other sexual behavior
– Evidence offered to prove any alleged victim’s sexual predisposition

43
Q

In a criminal case in which the defendant is accused of an offense of sexual assault

A

evidence of the defendant’s commission of another offense or offenses of sexual assault is admissible and may be considered for its bearing on any matter to which it is relevant.

44
Q

Prior statements of witnesses & impeachment

A

– Allow W an opportunity to see the statement
– Opportunity for witness to explain or deny the statement
* If W denies making the inconsistent statement or does not remember – then the statement itself comes in

45
Q

Exclusion of witnesses (invoking the rule)

A

this is so witnesses can not tailor their testimony to fit others
– Sequestration power – kick the witnesses out of courtroom when other W testify – discourages collusion and exposes inaccuracies in testimony;
– Note: does NOT apply to defendant

46
Q

Testimony by experts

A

those with scientific, technical or
other specialized knowledge that will assist the jury to understand evidence or determine a fact issues; Experts can be qualified as such by knowledge, skill, experience, training or education.

47
Q

Daubert test

A

a nonexclusive checklist for judges to
assess the reliability of expert testimony – recognized in scientific community, has theory been tested, peer review…..etc. How the judge determines if expert testimony is reliable as opposed to junk science

48
Q

Documents

A

-Summaries (not in Tx criminal law)
-Requirement of authentication or identification

49
Q

Chain of custody

A

must be maintained – ie. Who has the
evidence and when……very important in drug cases…. preserves the integrity of the evidence.

50
Q

An arrested person must be taken before a magistrate:

A

without unnecessary delay

51
Q

Which of the statements below is or are correct regarding a complaint?

A

A) It contains the charge(s) against the accused.
B) It is a comparatively simple document.
C) It is often referred to as an accusatory pleading.

52
Q

3) Today, judges in many states will release an accused on his or her own recognizance:

A

A) only on misdemeanor charges.
B) on either felony or misdemeanor charges.
C) only if he or she posts bail.

53
Q

If the magistrate determines that the evidence presented establishes probable cause that the defendant committed the crime charged, the magistrate:

A

binds the defendant over for trial.

54
Q

The primary purpose of a grand jury is to:

A

determine whether there are sufficient facts ie. Probable cause ; to hold the accused for trial

55
Q

Which of the following factors are NOT considered by judges in setting bail amounts?

A

A) Seriousness of the offense charged
B) Weight of the evidence against the defendant
C) Any history of failure to appear

56
Q

Grand Jury Proceedings are:

A

A) held in secret
B) are used to determine probable cause to hold the accused over for trial
C) an investigative body/ proceeding

57
Q

What are valid reasons regarding the right to a speedy trial?

A

A) Society has an interest in the guarantee that an accused will be brought to trial without unnecessary delay
B) The accused has a right to be brought to trial without unnecessary delay
C) Without a speedy trial, there can be harm and/or prejudice to the defendant

58
Q

Sanity (and insanity) refers to a defendant’s mental state at the time of the criminal act itself.

A

True

59
Q

A plea of nolo contendere means that the defendant does not contest the charge.

A

true

60
Q

Bail may be forfeited if the defendant does not appear as promised.

A

true

61
Q

The grand jury was created as a safeguard for the accused.

A

true

62
Q

The Illinois v. Allen decision held that an unruly defendant could be:

A

A) removed from the courtroom.
B) gagged.
C) held in contempt of court.

63
Q

A motion may be made to the judge may be made:

A

orally and written

64
Q

Once a trial has commenced and a defendant has knowingly and voluntarily absented himself or herself, the trial judge:

A

may continue with the trial

65
Q

When must the court appoint a counsel to represent the defendant?

A

Counsel must be provided for any defendant brought to trial irrespective of the charge (felony or misdemeanor) if the defendant is too poor to hire counsel.

66
Q

The U.S. Supreme Court has held that a defendant may waive the assistance of counsel and represent him or herself:

A

if the defendant knowingly and intelligently waives counsel.

67
Q

An attorney appointed by a judge to be available to consult with the defendant in cases where the defendant represents himself or herself

A

Standby counsel

68
Q

The ALLEN decision definitely established that a trial could take place in the absence of a defendant when he or she was so disruptive that his or her removal from the courtroom became necessary.

A

true

69
Q

The Sixth Amendment gives the defendant the right to be present at his or her trial through the provision which entitles an accused to be confronted with the witnesses for the prosecution

A

true

70
Q

Conviction rates for indigent defendants and those rather than their own lawyers were ________ in Federal and States courts.

A

about the same

71
Q

The most convincing argument against granting the prosecution any right of discovery is that the right would be compelling the defendant to:

A

be a witness against himself or herself.

72
Q

Whether or not a continuance is granted is based on:

A

the discretion of the trial judge

73
Q

Most state laws permit a series of crimes committed in one jurisdiction to be combined into one accusatory pleading. Each of the crimes charged in the accusatory pleading is referred to as
a:

A

count

74
Q

If the competency of the defendant is in question:

A

the proceeding is stopped until the issue of competency is determined.