Chapters 3-4 Flashcards

1
Q

The message receiver restates what’s been said to fully understand and confirm the message and it provides an opportunity for the sender to clarify the message if needed.

A

active listening

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2
Q

Begins with problem definition. Problem definition is the ability to discern between the cause and effect of the problem. Root-cause analysis looks beyond the immediate symptoms to the cause of the symptoms—which then affords opportunities for solutions.

A

active problem solving

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3
Q

The project manager refuses to act, get involved, or make decisions.

A

avoiding power

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4
Q

The leader is motivating, has high-energy, and inspires the team through strong convictions about what’s possible and what the team can achieve. Positive thinking and a can-do mentality are characteristics of this type of leadership..

A

charismatic leadership

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5
Q

The project manager has deep skills and experience in a discipline (for example, years of working in IT helps an IT project manager better manage IT projects).

A

expert power

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6
Q

The project manager aims to gain favor with the project team and stakeholders through flattery.

A

ingratiating power

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7
Q

The individual has power and control of the data gathering and distribution of information.

A

informational power

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8
Q

The leader is a hybrid of transactional, transformational, and charismatic leaders. The _____ wants the team to act, is excited and inspired about the project work, yet still holds the team accountable for their results.

A

interactional leader

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9
Q

The project manager can make the team and stakeholders feel guilty to gain compliance in the project.

A

guilt-based power

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10
Q

____ is about aligning, motivating, and inspiring the project team members to do the right thing, build trust, think creatively, and to challenge the status quo.

A

leadership

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11
Q

The leader takes a “hands-off” approach to the project. This means the project team makes decisions, takes initiative in the actions, and creates goals. While this approach can provide autonomy, it can make the leader appear absent when it comes to project decisions.

A

laissez-faire leadership

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12
Q

____ utilizes positional power to maintain, administrate, control, and focus on getting things done without challenging the status quo of the project and organization.

A

management

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13
Q

Based on the audience and the message being sent, the media should be in alignment with the message.

A

media selection

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14
Q

Meetings are forms of communication. How the meeting is led, managed, and controlled all influence the message being delivered. Agendas, minutes, and order are mandatory for effective communications within a meeting.

A

meeting management

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15
Q

The project manager has a warm personality that others like.

A

personal and charismatic power

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16
Q

In formal presentations, the presenter’s oral and body language, visual aids, and handouts all influence the message being delivered.

A

presentation

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17
Q

The project manager can restrict choices to get the project team to perform and do the project work.

A

pressure-based power

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18
Q

Defines three areas of PDUs for PMI certified professionals to maintain their certification. The _____ includes technical project management, leadership, and strategic and business management

A

PMI Talent Triangle

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19
Q

The project manager’s power is because of the position she has as the project manager. This is also known as formal, authoritative, and legitimate power.

A

positional power

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20
Q

___ are earned after the PMP to maintain the PMP certification. PMPs are required to earn 60 PDUs per three-year certification cycle. Of the 60 PDUs, a minimum of 35 hours must come from educational opportunities.

A

Professional Development Units (PDUs)

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21
Q

The role of leading the project team and managing the project resources to effectively achieve the objectives of the project.

A

project manager

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22
Q

The project manager can punish the project team.

A

punitive or coercive power

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23
Q

The project manager is respected or admired because of the team’s past experiences with the project manager. This is about the project manager’s credibility in the organization

A

referent power

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24
Q

The project manager can reward the project team.

A

reward power

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25
Q

Communication requires a sender and a receiver. Within this model may be multiple avenues to complete the flow of communication, but barriers to effective communication may be present as well.

A

sender-receiver models

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26
Q

The leader puts others first and focuses on the needs of the people he serves. These leaders provide opportunity for growth, education, autonomy within the project, and the well-being of others. The primary focus of ___ is service to others.

A

servant leadership

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27
Q

The project manager has power because of certain situations in the organization.

A

situational power

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28
Q

The tone, structure, and formality of the message being sent should be in alignment with the audience and the content of the message.

A

style

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29
Q

The leader emphasizes the goals of the project and rewards and disincentives for the project team. This is sometimes called management by exception as it’s the exception that is rewarded or punished.

A

transactional leadership

30
Q

The leader inspires and motivates the project team to achieve the project goals. These leaders aim to empower the project team to act, be innovative in the project work, and accomplish through ambition.

A

transformational leadership

31
Q

An assumption is something that is believed to be true or false, but it has not yet been proven to be true or false. Assumptions that prove wrong can become risks for the project. All identified project assumptions are recorded in the ___ for testing and analysis, and the outcomes are recorded.

A

assumption log

32
Q

This is an example of a benefits comparison model. It examines the benefit-to-cost ratio

A

benefits/cost ratio (BCR) models

33
Q

A committee that evaluates the worthiness of a proposed change and either approves or rejects the proposed change.

A

change control board (CCB)

34
Q

The ___ communicates the process for controlling changes to the project deliverables. This __ works with the configuration management system and seeks to control and document proposals to change the project’s product.

A

change control system (CCS)

35
Q

All changes that enter into a project are recorded in here. The characteristics of the change, such as the time, cost, risk, and scope details, are also recorded.

A

change log

36
Q

This plan details the project procedures for entertaining change requests: how change requests are managed, documented, approved, or declined.

A

change management plan

37
Q

This final process group of the project management life cycle is responsible for closing the project phase or project. This is where project documentation is archived and project contracts are also closed.

A

closure processes

38
Q

This plan defines who will get what information, how they will receive it, and in what modality the communication will take place.

A

communications management plan

39
Q

This includes the labeling of the components, how changes are made to the product, and the accountability of the changes.

A

configuration identification

40
Q

This plan is an input to the control scope process. It defines how changes to the features and functions of the project deliverable, the product scope, may enter the project.

A

configuration management plan

41
Q

This system defines how stakeholders are allowed to submit change requests, the conditions for approving a change request, and how approved change requests are validated in the project scope. Also documents the characteristics and functions of the project’s products and any changes to a product’s characteristics.

A

configuration management system

42
Q

The organization of the product materials, details, and prior product documentation.

A

configuration status accounting

43
Q

The scope verification and completeness auditing of project or phase deliverables to ensure that they are in alignment with the project plan.

A

configuration verification and auditing

44
Q

The formal verification of the contract completeness by the vendor and the performing organization.

A

contract closure

45
Q

This is the aggregated costs of all of the work packages within the work breakdown structure (WBS).

A

cost baseline

46
Q

This plan details how the project costs will be planned for, estimated, budgeted, and then monitored and controlled.

A

cost management plan

47
Q

Knowledge that can be quickly and easily expressed through conversations, documentation, figures, or numbers, is easily communicated.

A

explicit knowledge

48
Q

A benefit comparison model to determine a future value of money. The formula to calculate future value is FV = PV(1 + I)n, where PV is present value, I is the given interest rate, and n is the number of periods.

A

future value

49
Q

A process to consider and control the impact of a proposed change on the project’s knowledge areas.

A

integrated change control

50
Q

Issues are points of contention where some question of the project’s direction needs to be resolved. All identified issues are documented in the ___, along with an issue owner and a deadline to resolve the issue. The outcome of the issue is also recorded.

A

issue log

51
Q

A project selection method to determine the likelihood of success. These models include linear programming, nonlinear programming, dynamic programming, integer programming, and multiobjective programming.

A

mathematical model

52
Q

___ are significant points or events in the project’s progress that represent accomplishment in the project. Projects usually create ___ as the result of completing phases within the project.

A

milestones

53
Q

This list details the project milestones and their attributes. It is used for several areas of project planning, but also helps determine how quickly the project may be achieving its objectives.

A

milestone list

54
Q

These are committees that ask every conceivable negative question about the proposed project. Their goals are to expose the project’s strengths and weaknesses, and to kill the project if it’s deemed unworthy for the organization to commit to. Also known as project steering committees or project selection committees.

A

murder boards

55
Q

Evaluates the monies returned on a project for each period the project lasts.

A

net present value

56
Q

An estimate to predict how long it will take a project to pay back an organization for the project’s investment of capital.

A

payback period

57
Q

A benefit comparison model to determine the present value of a future amount of money. The formula to calculate present value is PV = FV ÷ (1 + i)n, where FV is future value, I is the given interest rate, and n is the number of periods.

A

present value

58
Q

The ___ controls how the project will acquire goods and services

A

procurement management plan

59
Q

This document authorizes the project. It defines the initial requirements of the project stakeholders. The project charter is endorsed by an entity outside of the project boundaries.

A

project charter

60
Q

The documented approach of how a project will be planned, executed, monitored and controlled, and then closed. This document is a collection of subsidiary management plans and related documents.

A

project management plan

61
Q

Defines how the project scope will be planned, managed, and controlled.

A

project scope management plan

62
Q

Documents the quality objectives for the project, including the metrics for stakeholder acceptance of the project deliverable.

A

quality baseline

63
Q

This plan defines what quality means for the project, how the project will achieve quality, and how the project will map to organizational procedures pertaining to quality.

A

quality management plan

64
Q

A mathematical model to examine the relationship among project variables, like cost, time, labor, and other project metrics.

A

regression analysis

65
Q

Risk is an uncertain event or condition that may affect the project outcome. The ___ defines how the project will manage risk.

A

risk management plan

66
Q

A centralized database consisting of the outcome of all the other risk management processes, such as the outcome of risk identification, qualitative analysis, and quantitative analysis.

A

risk register

67
Q

This subsidiary plan defines the risk responses that are to be used in the project for both positive and negative risks.

A

risk response plan

68
Q

This is the planned start and finish of the project. The comparison of what was planned and what was experienced is the schedule variance.

A

schedule baseline

69
Q

Defines how the project schedule will be created and managed.

A

schedule management plan

70
Q

The ___ is a combination of three project documents: the project scope statement, the work breakdown structure, and the WBS dictionary. The creation of the project deliverable will be measured against the scope baseline to show any variances from what was expected and what the project team has created.

A

scope baseline

71
Q

These models use a common set of values for all of the projects up for selection. For example, values can be profitability, complexity, customer demand, and so on.

A

scoring models

72
Q

Knowledge that’s more difficult to express because it’s personal beliefs, values, knowledge gain from experience, and “know-how” when doing a task.

A

tacit knowledge