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Microbiology Final Review > Chapters 18-22 > Flashcards

Chapters 18-22 Flashcards

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1
Q 
The presence of viruses in the blood is called:
A. viremia
B. fungemia
C. hemovirus 
D. bacteremia
E septicemia
A

A. Viremia

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2
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ occurs when bacteria fourish and grow in the bloodstream. 
A. viremia
B. fungemia
C. Hemovirus
D. Bactermia
E. Septicemia
A

E. Septicemia

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3
Q 
The causative agent of acute endocarditis is
A. staphylococcus aureus
B. streptococcus pneumoniae
C. streptococcus pyogenes
D. neisseria gonorrhoeae
E. All of the choices are correct
A

E. All choices are correct

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4
Q 
Which of the following is not true of septicemia? 
A. fever and shaking chills
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. endotoxic shock
D. parenteral or endogenous transfer
E. drop in blood pressure
A

B. respiratory acidosis

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5
Q

All of the following are associated with bubonic plague except:
A. transmitted by human feces
B. caused by Yersenia pestis
C. patient often has enlarged lymph nodes
D. patient has fever, headache, nausea, and weakness
E. can progress to septicemis

A

A. transmitted by human feces

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6
Q

Plague includes:
A. septicemic form; called black death
B. bubonic form; buboes develop
C. pneumonic form; sputnum highly contagious
D. disease control; control of rodent population
E. all of the choices are correct

A

E. All of the choices are correct

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7
Q 
Control of rodent populations is important for preventing
A. brucellosis
B. plague
C. malaria
D. Q fever
E. All of the choices are correct
A

B. plague

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8
Q 
Which is not associated with tularemia? 
A. a zoonosis
B. mammals are the chief reservoir
C. not very infectious
D. symptoms include fever, swollen lymph nodes, ulverative lesions, conjuctivitis, and pneumonia
E. sometimes called rabbit fever
A

C. not very infectious

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9
Q 
The causative agent of Lyme disease is: 
A. Ixodes scapularis
B. Borrelia hermsii
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Ixodes pacificus
E. Leptospira interrogans
A

C. Borrelia burgdorferi

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10
Q 
Erythema migrans, a bull's eye rash, at the portal of entry is associated with
A. plague
B. Rocky mountain spotted fever
C. Q fever
D. Lyme disease
E. Yellow fever
A

D. Lyme disease

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11
Q 
The white footed mouse, deer and deer ticks are important to maintaining the transmission cycle associated with 
A. Lyme disease
B. Yellow fever
C. Q fever
D. Rockey Mountains spotted fever
E. Plague
A

A. Lyme disease

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12
Q

Lyme disease invloves
A. early symptoms of fever, headache, and stiff neck
B. crippling polyarthritis, and cardiovascular and neurological problems
C. people having contact with ticks
D. treatment with antimicrobials
E. All of the choices are correct

A

E. All of the choices are correct

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13
Q

Epstein-Barr virus (agent of mono) has the following chracteristics except it
A. is more commonly found in adults
B. is transmitted by direct oral contact and saliva
C. produces sudden leukocytosis
D. has a 30-to 50- day incubation

A

A. is more commonly found in adults

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14
Q 
Which of the following is a hemorrhagic fever? 
A. yellow fever
B. Q fever
C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
D. cat-scratch fever
A

A. Yellow fever

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15
Q

Which of the following is not true of Ebola and Marburg?
A. caused by filoviruses
B. distruption of clotting factors
C. transmitted by direct contact with body fluids
D. transmitted by mosquitos
E. there is no treatment

A

D. Transmitted by mosquitos

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16
Q 
Which type of hemorrhagic fever can be treated with ribavirin? 
A. Lassa fever
B. Ebola
C. Marburg
D. dengue fever
E. yellow fever
A

A. Lassa fever

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17
Q 
Which type of hemorrhagic fever is also known as "breakbone fever" because of the sever pain in bones? 
A. Lassa fever
B. Ebola
C. Marburg
D. dengue fever
E. yellow fever
A

D. dengue fever

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18
Q

Brucellosis is:
A. a zoonosis
B. seen in the patient as a fluctuating fever, with headache, muscle pain, and weakness.
C. also known as undulant fever
D. an occupational illness of people who work with animals
E. All of the choices are correct

A

E. All of the choices are correct

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19
Q

Which of the following is mismatched?
A. Yersinia pestis-plague
B. Coxiella burnetii- Q fever
C. Bartonella henselae- cat-scratch diesease
D. Rickettsia typhi- Rocky Mountain spotted fever

A

D. Rickettsia typhi- Rocky Mountain spotted fever

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20
Q

The symptoms that occur in cyclic 48- to 72- hour episodes in malaria patient are:
A. bloody mucus - filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss.
B. fever, swollen lymph nodes, and joint pain
C. urinary frequency and pain, and vaginal discharge
D. Chills, fever, and sweating
E. sore throat, low-grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes

A

D. Chills, fever and sweating

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21
Q 
The causative organism of malaria is a 
A. bacterium
B. virus
C. fungus
D. protozoan
E. prion
A

D. protozoan

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22
Q

Anthrax is
A. a zoonosis
B. transmitted by contact, inhalation, and ingestions
C. a disease that, in humans, can cause a rapidly fatal toxemia and septicemia
D. only seen sporadically in the United States
E. All of the choices are correct

A

E. All of the choices are correct

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23
Q

All of the following pertain to patient with AIDS except they:
A. have an immunodeficiency
B. have CD4 T-call titers below 200 cells/mm of blood
C. get repeated, life threatening opporunistic infections
D. can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders
E. have the highest number of cases worldwide in the United States

A

E. Have the highest number of cases worldwide in the United States

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24
Q

Documented transmission of HIV involves:
A. mosquitos
B. unprotected secual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products
C. respiratory droplets
D. contaminated food
E. All of the choices are correct

A

B. unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products

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25
Q 
Normal biota of the upper respiratory tract include: 
A. Corynebacterium
B. Candida albicans
C. Haemophilus infuenzae
D. Staphlococcus aureus
E. All of the choices are correct
A

E. All of the choices are correct

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26
Q 
The most common type of virus leading to rhinitis is
A. coronavirus
B. adenovirus
C. rhinovirus
D. herpes simplex virus
E. retrovirus
A

C. rhinovirus

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27
Q 
Cold viruses are transmitted by: 
A. droplet contact and indirect contact
B. endogenous
C. direct contact
D. None of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
A

A. droplet contact and indirect contact

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28
Q 
The most common mode of transmission for sinusitis is: 
A. exotoxin
B. direct contact
C. indirect contact
D. endogenous
E. droplet contact
A

D. endogenous

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29
Q 
The most common causative agent of otitis media is: 
A. Aspergillus fumigatus
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Candida albicans
D. Corynebacterium
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae
A

E. Streptococcus pneumoniae

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30
Q

Streptococcal pharyngitis involves all of the following except:
A. a purulent exudate over the tonsils
B. it can lead to scarlet fever if it is and erythrogenic toxin-producing strain
C. it can lead to serious sequelae
D. it is viral in origin
E. it causes difficulty in swallowing and fever

A

D. it is viral in origin

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31
Q 
The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever are due to: 
A. enterotoxins
B. hemolysins
C. toxic shock syndrome toxin
D. exfoliative toxin
E. erythrogenic toxin
A

E. erythrogenic toxin

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32
Q

Rheumatic fever is caused by:
A. a primary streptococcal infection with Streptococcus pyogenes
B. a combination of infection with Streptococcus pyogenes and the rheumatic fever virus
C. a secondary streptococcal infection with a different type of streptococcus
D. an immunological cross-reaction in which anti-streptococcal antibodies target the heart.
E. both a primary viral infection and a secondary streptococcal infection.

A

D. an immunological cross-reaction in which anti-streptococcal antibodies target the heart.

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33
Q 
Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis can lead to all of the following except: 
A. scarlet fever
B. Pertussis
C. rheumatic fever
D. glomerulonephritis
E. erythrogenic rash
A

B. Pertussis

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34
Q 
Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in: 
A. diptheria
B. pharyngitis
C. tunerculosis
D. pertussis
E. SARS
A

A. diptheria

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35
Q

Which of the following pertains to diphtheria?
A. results in meningitis
B. symptoms include vomiting and diarrhea
C. can be transmitted from mother’s birth canal to neonate
D. prevented by the DTaP immunization
E. All of the choices are correct

A

D. prevented by the DTaP immunization

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36
Q

Pertussis has the following characteristics except:
A. the disease proresses through several disting stages
B. the catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with “whoops”
D. DTaP immunzation will prevent it
E. transmission is by droplet contact

A

B. the catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with “whoops”

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37
Q 
The causative organism of whooping cough is: 
A. Bordettal pertussis
B. Streptococcus pneumoniaw
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
E. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
A

A. Bordatella pertussis

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38
Q

Which of the following is not true of whooping cough?
A. secondary infections can occur during the convalescent phase
B. caused by a small gram-positive rod
C. incubation period is 3-21 days
D. coldlike symptoms are common for the paroxysmal stage
E. an uncontrollable cough occurs during the paraxysmal stage

A

D. coldlike symptoms are common for the paroxysmal stage

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39
Q 
Which of the following is not a cirulence factor of Bordetella pertussis? 
A. endotoxin
B. tracheal cytotoxin
C. M protein
D. pertussis toxin
E. filamentous hemagglutinin
A

C. M protein

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40
Q

Respiratory syncytial virus
A. causes serious disease in infants 6 months old or younger.
B. Is highly contagious
C. is transmitted through droplet contact and fomite contamination
D. cannot be prevented by vaccination at this time
E. All of the choices are correct

A

E. All of the choices are correct

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41
Q

Symptoms of influenza include:
A. nasal discharge, mild fever, and absence of cough
B. fever, diarrhea, and vomitin
C. fever, myalgia, sore throat, cough, and nasal discharge
D. fever, sore throat, rash and cough
E. fever and pneumonia

A

C. fever, myalgia, sore thoat, cough, and nasal discharge

42
Q

Which of the following is not true o influenza?
A. It has glycoprotein spikes of hemagglutinin (H) and neuraminidase (N)
B. Antigenic drift which changes the antigens to reduce immune recognition
C. Antigenic shift causes changes in the RNA
D. Symptoms are very similar to the common cold
E. The virus can infect both humans and swine

A

D. Symptoms are very similar to the common cold

43
Q

All of the following pertain to tunerculosis except:
A. live bacilli can remain dormant in the lungs and reactivate later in life.
B. symptoms of active TB include low grade fever, coughing, fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats.
C. lung infection can disseminate to many other organs in extrapulmonary TB.
D. the BCG vaccine is used in other countries
E. antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis

A

E. antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis

44
Q

Tuberculin skin testing:
A. injects PPD intrademally
B. uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. will be positive if the person has had previous exposure to TB
D. Will be positive if the person has active TB
E. All of the choices are correct

A

E. All of the choices are correct

45
Q 
A diagnosis of tuberculosis incolces a(n):
A. chest xray
B. acid fast stain of sputum
C. sputum culture
D. tuberculin skin test
E. All of the choices are correct
A

E. All of the choices are correct

46
Q 
Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas, air conditioners, cooling towers, and supermarket vegetable misters? 
A. legionellosis
B. pertussis
C brucellosis
D. plague
E. travelers diarrhea
A

A. legionellosis

47
Q 
Inhalation of respiratory secretions is involved in the transmission of the following except: 
A. Influenza
B. rhinitis
C. legionella
D. diphtheria
E. All involve respiratory secretions
A

C. legionella

48
Q

Hantavirus has all of the following characteristics except:
A. a reservoir is human carriers
B. it is a zoonotic infection
C. the symptoms are abrupt fever, lung edema, respiratiory distress and hypotension
D. it is transmitted by aerosol transmission from rodent excreta
E. the first US outbreak occurred in 1993 in the Southwest

A

A. a reservoir is human carriers

49
Q 
Which organ of the GI tract has a large commensal population of microorganisms? 
A. liver
B. salivary glands
C. pancreas
D. large intestine
E. small intestine
A

D. large intestine

50
Q 
The main causes of dental caries seem to be: 
A. Streptococcus pyogens
B. Streptococcus mutans
C. Streptocuccus pneumoniae
D. Both A and B are correct
E. Both B and C are correct
A

B. Streptococcus mutans

51
Q

Oral flora bacteria on the tooth surface
A. develop a biofilm
B. use fimbriae and slime layers to adhere
C. include Streptococci that metabolize sucrose, produce sticky glucans, and form plaque.
D. include Lactobacilli and Streptococci, which ferment carbohydrates and produce acids taht cause caries.
E. All of the choices are correct

A

E. All of the choices are correct

52
Q

Salmonelloses are :
A. not caused by Salmonella typhi
B. associated with undercooked poultry and eggs, and reptile and rodent feces
C. types of gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea
D. treated with fluid and electrolyte replacement
E. All of the choices are correct

A

E. All of the choices are correct

53
Q

Which is incorrect about shigellosis?
A. Outbreaks have occured in day care centers.
B. Watery diarrhea wih bloody, mucoid stools and abdominal cramps
C. If frequently incolves septicema
D. Human carriers cause fecal transmission
E. It is also called dysentery

A

C. If frequently incolves septicema

54
Q

E Coli o157:H7 characteristics include all the following except it:
A. only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals
B. is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger.
C. causes a bloody diarrhea
D. has a reservoir of cattle intestines
E. In some cases foes on to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure

A

A. only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals

55
Q

Which of the following statement describes the main virulence factor or E coli O157:H7?
A. a pathogen encoded exotoxin
B. a bacteriophage encoded exotoxin
C. an endotoxin used for host attachment
D. a coagulase for host clotting
E. a hemolysin for red blood cell destruction

A

B. a bacteriophage-encoded exotoxin

56
Q

Escherichia coli infections:
A. are often transmitted by fecal contaminated water and food
B. have been due to undercooked meat
C. involve enterotoxin in travelers diarrhea
D. can be self limiting with the only treatment being rehydration
E. All of the choices are correct

A

E. All of the choices are correct

57
Q 
The most common bacerial cause of diarrhea in the United States is: 
A. E coli
B. Salmonella
C. Shigella
D. Campylobacter
E. Yersinia
A

D. Campylobacter

58
Q 
Production of enterotoxin is a characteristic of 
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridiumm perfringens
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Clostridium tetani
E. All of the choices are correct
A

C. Clostridium difficile

59
Q

All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except it:
A. is due to ingestion of contaminated, imporperly stored, cooked meats and gravies.
B. is a colitis that is superinfection
C. often has an endogenous source
D. is associated with disruption of normal flora due to broad spectrum antimicrobials
E. is the major cause of diarrhea in hospitals

A

A. is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies

60
Q

Which is not true of Clostridium difficile?
A. a gram positive endospore forming rod
B. part of normal intestinal biota
C. infection precipitated by broad spectrum antibiotic therapy
D. also called pseudomembranous colitis
E. produces “rice water” stools

A

E. Produces rice water stools

61
Q 
Cholera symptoms include: 
A. copious watery diarrhea
B. loss of blood volume
C. acidosis, sunken eyes, and thirst
D. hypotension, tachycardia, and shock
E. All of the choices are correct
A

E. All of the choices are correct

62
Q 
The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in cholera victims is
A. water and electrolyte replacement
B. antimicrobials
C. antitoxin
D. surgery
E. None of the choices is correct
A

A. water and electrolyte replacement

63
Q 
Rice water stools are associated with disease cause by which organism
A. Vibrio vulnificus
B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
C. Vibrio Cholerae
D. Campylobacter jejuni
E. Helocobacter pylori
A

C. Vibrio cholerae

64
Q

Symptoms of cryptosporidiosis include:
A. headache, sweats, vomiting, severe abdominal cramps, and diarrhea
B. chills, fever, and sweats
C. bloody, mucus filled stools and fever
D. a red skin papule that spreads to a large ulcer
E. None of the choices is correct

A

A. headache, sweats, vomiting, severe abdominal cramps, and diarrhea

65
Q 
Which of the following is not a normal causative agent of food poisoning? 
A. Clostridium perfringes
B. Staphylococcus aureus exotoxin 
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Bacillus cereus
E. All of the choices are correct
A

C. Clostridium difficile

66
Q 
Entamoeba histolytica is acquired by: 
A. ingestion of cysts of pathogen
B. contaminated food
C. contaminated water
D. All of te choices are correct
A

D. All of the choices are correct

67
Q 
All of the following can be transmitted by drining contaminated water except
A. cryptosporidiosis
B. cyclosporiasis
C. malaria
D. campylobacter
E giardiasis
A

C. malaria

68
Q

Hepatitis B virus:
A. is principally transmitted by blood
B. transmission risks include shared needles , anal intercourse and heterosecual intercourse.
C. is transmitted to the newborn from chronic carrier mothers.
D. has many chronic carriers.
E. All of the choices are correct

A

E. All of the choices are correct

69
Q

Which is incorrect about hepatitis A infection?
A. It is transmitted by the oral fecal route
B. It has flulike symptoms with discomfort near the liver and darkened urine
C. it predisposes a person for liver cancer
D. Immunoglobulin therapy helps decrease the severity
E. HAVRAX is an inactivated vaccine for prevention

A

C. it predisposes a person for liver cancer

70
Q

Parasitic helminthes have the following characteristics except:
A. are multicellular animals
B. have a definitive host where the adult form lives
C. do not exhibit drug resistance
D. include roundworms
E. include tapeworms

A

C. do not exhibit drug resistance

71
Q

Enterobius vermicularis is
A. a whipworm
B. common only to the tropics and subtropics
C. an intestinal worm that easily contaminates fingers and fomites.
D. often fatal in heavy infestations
E. All of the choices are correct

A

C. an intestinal worm that easily contaminates fingers and fomites.

72
Q

General symptoms if helminth infection include all of the following except
A. eggs, larvae, or adult worms found in feces
B. increased sensitivity to helminth antigens
C. intense abdominal pain
D. increased eosinophil count
E. vague nausea

A

C. intense abdominal pain

73
Q 
Liver flukes live in all of the following areas except the 
A. small intestine
B. liver
C. gallbladder
D. bile duct
E. all of the choices are correct
A

A. small intestine

74
Q

Which of the following is not true of schistosomiasis?
A. it is caused by blood flukes
B. Larvae called cercariae can invade intact skin
C. It may cause liver swelling or malfunction
D. Worms can invade the brain
E. It can cloak itself with proteins in the blood.

A

D. Worms can invade the brain

75
Q

Which of the following helminths is paired with a correct characteristic of its pathogenesis?
A. Ascaris lumbricoides-life and transmission cycle B
B. Necator americanus- life and transmission cycle A
C. Trichuris trichuria- life and transmission cycle B
D. Strongyloides stercoralis- life and transmission cycle B
E. Taenia sodium- life and transmission cycle A

A

D. Strongyloides stercoralis- life and transmission cycle B

76
Q 
Normal biota of the urethra include all of the following except: 
A. non hemolytic Streptococcus
B. Staphylococcus
C. Corynebacterium
D. Escherichia coli
E. lactobacillus
A

D. Escherichia coli

77
Q

Lactobaccilis in the female reproductive tract:
A. is protective
B. is indicative of underlying infection
C. is the causative agent in common yeast infections
D. can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease
E. can contribute to STDs

A

A. is protective

78
Q 
The predominant microorganism in the female reproductive tract during childbearing years is:
A. Corynebacterium
B. Staphylococcus
C. Escherichia coli
D. Lactobacillus
E. Candida albicans
A

D. Lactobacillus

79
Q 
All of the following are signs and symptoms of urinary tract infections except:
A. red blood cells in urine
B. painful urination
C. white blood cells in urine
D. nausea
E. diarrhea
A

E. diarrhea

80
Q 
Infection of the urinary bladder is called
A. urethritis
B. pyelonephritis
C. cystitis
D. vaginitis
E. PID
A

C. cystitis

81
Q 
The most common mode of disease transmission
A. fomites
B. indirect contact
C. opportunism 
D. aerosol
E. endogenous transfer
A

E. endogenous transfer

82
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis
A. does not produce cysts
B. in males causes urethritis
C. in females causes vaginitis with a foul smelling discharge
D. has four flagella and a undulating membrane
E. All of the choices are correct

A

E. All of the choices are correct

83
Q 
The most common cause of vaginitis is: 
A. Candida albicans
B. Escherichia coli
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A

A. Candida albicans

84
Q 
Candida albicans is a : 
A. fungus
B. Bacteria
C. helminth
D. protozoa
E. None of the choices is correct
A

A. fungus

85
Q 
Neisseria gonorrhoeae is: 
A. the cause of ophthalmia neonatorum
B. the cause of gonorrhea
C. called the gonococcus
D. virulent due to fimbriae and a protease that inactivates IgA
E. All of the choices are correct
A

E. All of the choices are correct

86
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease results from infection of the:
A. vagina
B. Fallopian tubes
C. ovaries
D. Both vagina and Fallopian tubes are correct
E. Both Fallopian tubes and ovaries are correct

A

E. Both Fallopian tubes and ovaries are correct

87
Q 
Pelvic inflammatory disease often leads to
A. ovarian cancer
B. uterine cancer
C. cervical cancer
D. infertility
E. kidney cancer
A

D. infertility

88
Q 
The most common reported STD in the United States is:
A. gonorrhea 
B. chlamydia
C. genital herpes
D. syphilis
E. HIV
A

B. Chlamydia

89
Q

Treponema pallidum:
A. has humans as the reservoir
B. can cross the placenta
C. has a hooked tip to attach to epithelium
D. is transmitted by direct sexual contact
E. All of the choices are correct

A

E. All of the choices are correct

90
Q

The chancre of syphilis:
A. occurs due to small hemorrhaging of capillaries
B. is very painful
C. occurs during the tertiary stage
D. develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated, central crater
E. All of the choices are correct

A

D. develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated, central crater

91
Q

The secondary stage of syphilis:
A. is when the patient is no longer infectious to others
B. occurs within 10 days of the primary stage
C. is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood
D. has no symptoms
E. is when gammas develop in tissues

A

C. is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood

92
Q 
During which stage of syphilis does fever, lymphadenopathy, and a red to brown rash occur? 
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. latent
E. All of the choices are correct
A

B. secondary

93
Q 
Permanent cardiovascular and neurological damage is seen in which stage of syphilis?
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. latent
E. All of the choices are correct
A

C. tertiary

94
Q 
Syphilitic tumors called \_\_\_\_\_\_ develop in the liver, skin, bone, and cartilage during the tertiary stage of syphilis. 
A. chancres
B. gummas
C. ulcers
D. nodules
E. None of the choices is correct
A

B. gummas

95
Q 
The latency period of syphilis can last up to: 
A. 3 to 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 10 years
D. 20 years or more
E. Syphilis is never a latent infection
A

D. 20 years or more

96
Q 
Herpes simplex 1
A. is exclusive to oral mucosa
B. is exclusive to genitourinary tract
C. confers immunity to herpes simplex 2
D. is cleared by acyclovir
E. None of the choices is correct
A

E. None of the choices is correct

97
Q

Herpes simplex 2 (HSV-2) causes
A. genital lesions
B. intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals
C. symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis, and itching
D. infection in neonates that have contact with lesions in the birth canal
E. All of the choices are correct

A

E. All of the choices are correct

98
Q 
An occasional serious complication of herpes simplex 1 is: 
A. shingles
B. paralysis
C. encephalitis
D. myocarditis
E. kidney failure
A

C. encephalitis

99
Q

All of the following are true for HSV-2 except
A. becomes latent in sacral ganglion
B. virus is only shed from active lesions
C. is reactivated by bacterial infections
D. can infect oral mucosa
E. All of the choices are correct

A

B. virus is only shed from active lesions

100
Q

All of the following pertain to genital warts except:
A. are not common in the United States
B. are sexually transmitted
C. often occur on the penis, vagina, and cervix
D. includes large cauliflower-like masses called condylomata acuminate
E. certain strains strongly predispose a person to cancer of the cervix or penis

A

A. are not common in the United States

101
Q 
Warts are caused by:
A. bacteria 
B. enveloped DNA viruses
C. non enveloped DNA viruses
D. enveloped RNA viruses
E. non enveloped RNA viruses
A

C. nonenveloped DNA viruses

102
Q

Which of the following. is the main difference between vaginitis and vaginosis?
A. causative agent
B. presence of significant vaginal inflammation
C. presence of discharge
D. All of the choices are correct

A

B. presence of significant vaginal inflammation

Microbiology Final Review (1 decks)

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