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BIOL235 Anatomy & Physiology > Chapters 11-20/Midterm 2 review > Flashcards

Chapters 11-20/Midterm 2 review Flashcards

1
Q

All of the following cranial nerves have a functional classification of motor except: oculomotor; vestibulocochlear;trochlear;accessory

A

Vestibulocochlear

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2
Q

The nerve called the vagus nerve is the:
a. ninth cranial.
b. tenth cranial.
c. eleventh cranial.
d. twelfth cranial.

A

Tenth

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3
Q

Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for movements of the tongue?
a. Olfactory
b. Trigeminal
c. Trochlear
d. Hypoglossal

A

Hypoglossal

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4
Q

All of the following cranial nerves are involved in proprioception except the:
a. vagus.
b. hypoglossal.
c. accessory.
d. abducens.

A

Vagus

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5
Q

Which of the following is not a plexus of the spinal nerves?
a. Cervical
b. Brachial
c. Lumbar
d. Thoracic

A

Thoracic

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6
Q

The cervical plexus:
a. is found deep in the neck.
b. is formed by the ventral rami of the first four cervical nerves and part of C5.
c. includes the phrenic nerve.
d. All of the above are correct.

A

All of the above

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7
Q

Which plexus contains nerves that innervate the lower part of the shoulder and the entire arm?
a. Brachial
b. Cervical
c. Lumbar
d. Sacral

A

Brachial

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8
Q

The sensory cranial nerves include only the:
a. optic, vestibulocochlear, and vagus.
b. olfactory, optic, and facial.
c. olfactory, optic, and vestibulocochlear.
d. optic, facial, and vestibulocochlear.

A

Olfactory, optic, and vestibulocochlear`

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9
Q
  1. Nerve impulses over the ____ nerve cause increased peristalsis and decreased heart rate.
    a. olfactory
    b. trigeminal
    c. vagus
    d. hypoglossal
A

Vagus

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10
Q

The spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord and consist of:
a. 12 pairs.
b. 21 pairs.
c. 31 pairs.
d. 41 pairs.

A

31 pairs

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11
Q

Which of the following is true about spinal nerves? They are:
a. only sensory fibers.
b. only motor fibers.
c. completely autonomic fibers.
d. motor and sensory fibers.

A

Motor and sensory fibers

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12
Q

A mixed nerve is one that:
a. goes both to the skin surface and to the viscera.
b. has its pathway mixed with other nerves.
c. carries both sensory and motor fibers.
d. carries large and small motor fibers.

A

Carries both sensory and motor fibers

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13
Q

The phrenic nerve is found in the:
a. cervical plexus.
b. brachial plexus.
c. lumbar plexus.
d. sacral plexus.

A

Cervical plexus

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14
Q

Which is/are the neurotransmitter(s) in a somatic motor pathway?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Amines
c. Amino acids
d. Both A and C.

A

Acetylcholine

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15
Q

Nerves that innervate the floor of the pelvic cavity and some of the surrounding areas are found in the:
a. sacral plexus.
b. cervical plexus.
c. coccygeal plexus.
d. lumbar plexus.

A

Coccygeal plexus

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16
Q

Somatic reflexes consist of:
a. contractions of smooth muscle.
b. contractions of cardiac muscle.
c. glandular contractions.
d. contractions of skeletal muscles.

A

Contractions of skeletal muscles

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17
Q

Which generalization concerning the autonomic nervous system is not true?
a. All of its axons are afferent fibers.
b. It operates without conscious control.
c. It regulates visceral activities.
d. All of its neurons are motor.

A

All of its axons are afferent fibers

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18
Q

Which of the following would not be an effecter of the autonomic nervous system?
a. Skeletal muscles
b. Smooth muscle
c. Sweat glands
d. Cardiac muscle

A

Skeletal muscles

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19
Q

Somatic motor and autonomic pathways share all of the following characteristics except:
a. Made up of mostly efferent fibers
b. Location of peripheral fibers
c. Number of neurons between CNS and effector
d. Have acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter

A

Number of neurons between CNS and effector

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20
Q

The autonomic nervous system functions chiefly in the:
a. coordination of muscular activity.
b. innervation of smooth muscle in the viscera.
c. reception of sensory impulses.
d. arousal of alerting mechanism.

A

Innervation of smooth muscle in the viscera

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21
Q

Sympathetic responses generally have widespread effects on the body because:
a. they reach visceral effectors faster than parasympathetic impulses.
b. the synapses junctions contain a substance that inactivates acetylcholine.
c. preganglionic fibers are short, and postganglionic fibers are long.
d. preganglionic fibers synapse with several postganglionic fibers.

A

d. preganglionic fibers synapse with several postganglionic fibers.

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22
Q

Parasympathetic preganglionic neuron cell bodies are located in:
a. the white columns of the sacral segments of the spinal cord.
b. the lateral gray columns of thoracic segments of the spinal cord.
c. nuclei of the brainstem and the lateral gray columns of the sacral cord.
d. the cervical plexus.

A

c. nuclei of the brainstem and the lateral gray columns of the sacral cord.

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23
Q

Which of the following is not an example of sympathetic stimulation?
a. Constriction of the bronchioles
b. Faster contraction of the skeletal muscles
c. Increase in blood sugar levels
d. Dilation of skeletal muscle blood vessels

A

a. Constriction of the bronchioles

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24
Q

All of the following are examples of parasympathetic stimulation except:
a. promotes digestion.
b. constricts bronchioles.
c. increased peristalsis.
d. increased heart rate.

A

d. increased heart rate.

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25
Q

All of the following are characteristics of sympathetic preganglionic neurons except:
a. they secrete acetylcholine.
b. they have long fibers from CNS to ganglion.
c. they pass through the sympathetic trunk.
d. All of the above are correct.

A

b. they have long fibers from CNS to ganglion.

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26
Q

Norepinephrine is liberated at:
a. the dendrite ending.
b. parasympathetic preganglionic nerve endings.
c. most sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings.
d. sympathetic preganglionic nerve endings.

A

c. most sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings.

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27
Q

Beta receptors:
a. are cholinergic.
b. bind acetylcholine.
c. bind norepinephrine.
d. Both A and B.

A

c. bind norepinephrine.

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28
Q

Which of the following statements is not true?
a. The parasympathetic division is the dominant controller of most autonomic
effectors most of the time.
b. Under quiet, nonstressful conditions, more impulses reach autonomic effectors by
cholinergic parasympathetic fibers than by adrenergic sympathetic fibers.
c. The major function of the parasympathetic division is to serve as an “emergency”
system.
d. Parasympathetic stimulation causes a reduction in heart rate.

A

c. The major function of the parasympathetic division is to serve as an “emergency”
system.

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29
Q

The lumbar plexus gives rise to the:
a. median nerve.
b. phrenic nerve.
c. femoral nerve.
d. None of the above.

A

c. femoral nerve.

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30
Q

Beta receptors bind with:
a. acetylcholine.
b. norepinephrine.
c. the toxin muscarine.
d. none of the above.

A

b. norepinephrine.

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31
Q

The peripheral nervous system includes:
a. only spinal nerves.
b. only spinal nerves and their branches.
c. only cranial nerves, spinal nerves, and their branches.
d. cranial nerves, the spinal cord, spinal nerves, and their branches.

A

c. only cranial nerves, spinal nerves, and their branches.

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32
Q

Which part of the vertebral column has one more pair of nerves coming from it than it has vertebra?
a. Cervical
b. Thoracic
c. Lumbar
d. Both B and C.

A

a. Cervical

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33
Q

Which of the following is not associated with the oculomotor nerve? a. Eye movement
b. Closing and opening of the eye (blink reflex)
c. Regulating the size of the pupil
d. Proprioception of eye muscle

A

b. Closing and opening of the eye (blink reflex)

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34
Q

Which of the following cranial nerves does not have the function of eye movement?
a. Oculomotor nerve
b. Trochlear nerve
c. Trigeminal nerve
d. Abducens nerve

A

c. Trigeminal nerve

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35
Q

The cauda equine:
a. is part of the cervical plexus.
b. refers to the nerves below the ending of the spinal cord.
c. is part of the brachial plexus.
d. is the term used to describe the groups of cranial nerves leaving the skull.

A

b. refers to the nerves below the ending of the spinal cord.

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36
Q

Which segment of the vertebral column generates more spinal nerve pairs than any other segment?
a. Cervical
b. Thoracic
c. Lumbar
d. Sacral

A

b. Thoracic

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37
Q

Small branches from the cervical plexus join which two cranial nerves?
a. Vagus and hypoglossal
b. Vagus and accessory
c. Hypoglossal and accessory
d. Glossopharyngeal and hypoglossal

A

c. Hypoglossal and accessory

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38
Q

A gymnast is experiencing problems with balance and equilibrium. Which of the following cranial nerves may be causing this condition?
a. Accessory
b. Glossopharyngeal
c. Hypoglossal
d. Vestibulocochlear

A

d. Vestibulocochlear

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39
Q

If a person is having problems with tongue movement, what would you predict as a possible cause and other potential problems?
a. Hypoglossal nerve damage and a decrease in proprioception of the tongue
b. Oculomotor nerve damage and a drooping eye
c. Olfactory nerve damage and a decrease in the ability to smell
d. Vagus nerve damage and a decrease in respiration

A

a. Hypoglossal nerve damage and a decrease in proprioception of the tongue

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40
Q

What would the result be if the phrenic nerve did not receive an impulse from the cervical plexus?
a. The diaphragm would stop contracting.
b. Sensation to the anterior abdominal wall would cease.
c. Motor nerves to the thigh would not be able to get impulses.
d. Motor nerves to the back of the neck would not be able to get impulses.

A

a. The diaphragm would stop contracting.

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41
Q

William was recently involved in a serious automobile accident. As a result, he has had difficulty controlling his skeletal muscles and maintaining his balance. What part of the nervous system was most likely damaged?
a. Cerebellum
b. Cerebral cortex
c. Myelin sheath of the peripheral neurons
d. Pineal gland

A

a. Cerebellum

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42
Q

Which statement explains how the lack of dopamine physiologically affects those individuals suffering from Parkinson disease?
a. Without dopamine, the excitatory effects of acetylcholine are not restrained, thus
postural muscles are overstimulated.
b. Without dopamine, the excitatory effects of acetylcholine are inhibited, thus
relaxing postural muscles.
c. Without dopamine, the inhibitory effects of acetylcholine are not restrained, thus
postural muscles are overstimulated.
d. Without dopamine, the inhibitory effects of acetylcholine are restrained, thus
relaxing postural muscles.

A

Without dopamine, the excitatory effects of acetylcholine are not restrained, thus

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43
Q

What lobe of the cerebrum cannot be seen in an exterior view?
a. Temporal
b. Insula
c. Parietal
d. Occipital

A

b. Insula

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44
Q

Which of the following structures is not part of the diencephalon?
a. Thalamus
b. Cerebellum
c. Pineal gland
d. All of the above structures are part of the diencephalon.

A

b. Cerebellum

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45
Q

The dentate nuclei are an important pair of nuclei in which part of the central nervous system?
a. Midbrain
b. Cerebrum
c. Cerebellum
d. Hypothalamus

A

c. Cerebellum

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46
Q

The filum terminale is part of the:
a. cerebellum.
b. cerebrum.
c. spinal cord.
d. meninges.

A

d. meninges.

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47
Q

The epidural space is:
a. just below the dura mater.
b. just below the arachnoid mater.
c. found only in the area of the spinal cord.
d. between the arachnoid mater and pia mater.

A

c. found only in the area of the spinal cord.

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48
Q

The nervous system is divided into two major divisions: the:
a. brain and spinal cord.
b. central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system.
c. cerebrum and cerebellum.
d. afferent and efferent.

A

b. central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system.

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49
Q

The layer of meninges least likely to be involved in meningitis is the:
a. dura mater.
b. arachnoid mater.
c. pia mater.
d. All layers are equally likely to be involved.

A

a. dura mater.

50
Q

The central section of the cerebellum is called the:
a. arbor vitae.
b. vermis.
c. central sulcus.
d. longitudinal fissure.

A

b. vermis.

51
Q

The foramen magnum is the structure that divides the:
a. medulla oblongata from the pons.
b. pons from the midbrain.
c. medulla oblongata from the spinal cord.
d. brainstem from the cerebellum.

A

c. medulla oblongata from the spinal cord.

52
Q

Besides protection, the cerebrospinal fluid helps regulate:
a. oxygen content of the blood.
b. carbon dioxide content of the blood.
c. calcium levels of the blood.
d. both B and C.

A

b. carbon dioxide content of the blood.

53
Q

Which of the following is not an inward extension of the dura mater?
a. Falx callosum
b. Falx cerebri
c. Falx cerebelli
d. Tentorium cerebelli

A

a. Falx callosum

54
Q

The corpus callosum connects the:
a. right and left cerebral hemispheres.
b. pons to the cerebellum.
c. medulla to the pons.
d. spinal cord to the medulla.

A

a. right and left cerebral hemispheres.

55
Q

The part of the cerebrum integral to articulating words is:
a. Broca’s area.
b. the reticular activating system.
c. the limbic system.
d. the insula.

A

a. Broca’s area.

56
Q

The white matter of the cerebellum is called the:
a. arbor vitae.
b. vermis.
c. peduncle.
d. None of the above.

A

a. arbor vitae.

57
Q

The layer of the meninges that is a delicate, web-like structure is the:
a. pia mater.
b. arachnoid mater.
c. dura mater.

A

a. pia mater.

58
Q

A person who is awake, alert, and “busy” would have a predominance of ____ brain waves.
a. beta
b. theta
c. zeta
d. delta

A

a. beta

59
Q

The type of brain waves associated with deep sleep is:
a. beta.
b. theta.
c. zeta.
d. delta.

A

d. delta.

60
Q

The part of the cerebrum associated with anger, fear, and sorrow is/are the:
a. limbic system.
b. corpus callosum.
c. temporal lobes.
d. caudate nucleus.

A

a. limbic system.

61
Q

Impulses from which system play a part in arousing or alerting the cerebrum?
a. Reticular activating system
b. Limbic system
c. Cerebral cortex
d. Cerebellar cortex

A

a. Reticular activating system

62
Q

Which part of the brain releases the hormone melatonin?
a. Hypothalamus
b. Thalamus
c. Pineal gland
d. Cerebellum

A

c. Pineal gland

63
Q

The cerebellum performs all of the following functions except:
a. coordinates control of muscle action.
b. helps control posture.
c. controls cardiac function.
d. controls skeletal muscles to maintain balance.

A

c. controls cardiac function.

64
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the hypothalamus?
a. Production of hormones
b. “Go-between” of the psyche and the soma
c. Appetite center
d. Regulation of motor activity

A

d. Regulation of motor activity

65
Q

The part of the brain that can directly influence or inhibit the release of hormones from the pituitary is the:
a. hypothalamus.
b. thalamus.
c. medulla.

A

a. hypothalamus.

66
Q

The cerebellum acts with the ____ to produce skilled movement.
a. hypothalamus
b. thalamus
c. pons
d. cerebrum

A

d. cerebrum

67
Q

The vomiting reflex is mediated by the:
a. cerebrum.
b. medulla.
c. thalamus.
d. cerebellum.

A

b. medulla.

68
Q

The pyramids are formed in the:
a. pons.
b. medulla.
c. midbrain.
d. cerebellum.

A

b. medulla.

69
Q

The brainstem does not include the:
a. pons.
b. medulla.
c. midbrain.
d. cerebellum.

A

d. cerebellum.

70
Q
  1. If the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose:
    a. sensory perception related to that pathway.
    b. willed movement related to the pathway.
    c. only reflex activity related to that pathway.
    d. both reflex activity and sensation related to that pathway.
A

a. sensory perception related to that pathway.

71
Q

If the ventral nerve root of a spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose:
a. sensory perception related to that pathway.
b. willed movement related to that pathway.
c. only reflex activity related to that pathway.
d. both reflex activity and sensation related to that pathway.

A

b. willed movement related to that pathway.

72
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid circulates through the ventricles and is eventually reabsorbed by the:
a. venous sinuses.
b. choroid plexuses.
c. spinal cord.
d. subarachnoid space.

A

a. venous sinuses.

73
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by separation of fluid from the blood in the:
a. central canal.
b. choroid plexuses.
c. subarachnoid space.
d. subdural space.

A

b. choroid plexuses.

74
Q

The autonomic nervous system does not stimulate:
a. skeletal muscles.
b. smooth muscles.
c. glands.
d. cardiac muscles.

A

a. skeletal muscles.

75
Q

Which is the only glia cell that is found outside of the central nervous system?
a. Schwann cell
b. Oligodendrocyte
c. Astrocyte
d. Ependymal cell

A

a. Schwann cell

76
Q

In a three-neuron reflex arc, the afferent neurons synapse with the:
a. interneuron.
b. efferent neuron.
c. contralateral neuron.
d. ipsilateral neuron.

A

a. interneuron.

77
Q

Schwann cells have a function in the peripheral nervous system that is similar to that of which cells in the central nervous system?
a. Oligodendrocytes
b. Astrocytes
c. Microglia
d. Ependymal cells

A

a. Oligodendrocytes

78
Q

Which of the following statements does not apply to ependymal cells?
a. They form the sheets of cells that line fluid-filled cavities in the brain.
b. They make up part of the blood-brain barrier.
c. They produce fluid that fills the cavities in the brain.
d. They have cilia to move fluid in the brain.

A

b. They make up part of the blood-brain barrier.

79
Q

One of the components of the blood-brain barrier is:
a. astrocytes.
b. microglia.
c. Schwann cells.
d. oligodendrocytes.

A

a. astrocytes.

80
Q

Astrocytes attach to:
a. neurons.
b. oligodendrocytes.
c. blood vessels.
d. both A and C.

A

d. both A and C.

81
Q

Dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine are classified as:
a. acetylcholine.
b. neuropeptides.
c. catecholamines.
d. none of the above.

A

c. catecholamines.

82
Q

Compared with the outside of the neuron, the inside of a resting neuron has a(n) ____ charge.
a. positive
b. negative
c. equal
d. None of the above.

A

b. negative

83
Q

White matter in the CNS consists of:
a. myelinated nerve fibers.
b. neuroglia.
c. axons.
d. cell bodies.

A

a. myelinated nerve fibers.

84
Q

Nerves that contain mostly afferent fibers are called:
a. sensory nerves.
b. motor nerves.
c. mixed nerves.
d. Schwann nerves.

A

a. sensory nerves.

85
Q

Which of the following is the deepest connective tissue layer of a nerve?
a. Endoneurium
b. Perineurium
c. Epineurium
d. Fascicle

A

a. Endoneurium

86
Q

. Interneurons reside in:
a. the CNS and peripheral nervous system.
b. the CNS only.
c. the peripheral nervous system only.
d. none of the above.

A

b. the CNS only.

87
Q

Dendrites conduct impulses:
a. toward cell bodies.
b. away from cell bodies.
c. within cell bodies.
d. None of the above.

A

a. toward cell bodies.

88
Q

A lack of this/these neurotransmitter(s) in the basal ganglia is/are associated with Parkinson disease.
a. Norepinephrine b. Endorphins
c. Dopamine
d. Enkephalins

A

c. Dopamine

89
Q

Serotonin is an example of a(n):
a. amino acid neurotransmitter.
b. amine neurotransmitter.
c. acetylcholine derivative.
d. neuropeptide neurotransmitter.

A

b. amine neurotransmitter.

90
Q

When the nerve impulse appears to leap across an insulating myelin sheath from node to node, the type of impulse conduction is called:
a. repolarization.
b. refraction.
c. saltatory conduction.
d. diffusion.

A

c. saltatory conduction.

91
Q

When an impulse reaches a synapse:
a. two nerve fibers come in direct contact.
b. impulses will pass in either direction.
c. an electrical spark will jump the gap.
d. chemical transmitters are released.

A

d. chemical transmitters are released.

92
Q

A synaptic knob would be located on a(n):
a. cell body.
b. axon.
c. dendrite.
d. cell body, axon, or dendrite.

A

b. axon.

93
Q

During the period of time after the absolute refractory period:
a. the action potential cannot be initiated.
b. a resting potential exists.
c. the cell membrane is impermeable to Na+ and K+.
d. the action potential can be initiated with a strong stimulus.

A

d. the action potential can be initiated with a strong stimulus.

94
Q

Which of the following compounds cannot cross the blood-brain barrier? a. W ater
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Glucose
d. Dopamine

A

d. Dopamine

95
Q

Which is true of an action potential?
a. The plasma membrane is impermeable to Na+ and K+ ions.
b. Na+ ions move extracellularly.
c. The charges become equal on the outside and inside of the plasma membrane.
d. The outside of the plasma membrane is negatively charged, and the inside is
positively charged.

A

d. The outside of the plasma membrane is negatively charged, and the inside is
positively charged.

96
Q

The first event to occur when an adequate stimulus is applied to a neuron is:
a. the membrane potential moves immediately to a value of 30 mV.
b. the potassium channels open.
c. the sodium channels are inactivated.
d. the sodium channels at the point of stimulation open.

A

d. the sodium channels at the point of stimulation open.

97
Q

Which is true of a neuron with a resting potential?
a. The cell membrane is permeable to Na+ but impermeable to K+ ions.
b. The outer surface of the plasma membrane has a negative charge.
c. The highest concentration of K+ is extracellular.
d. The sodium pump has moved Na+ to the outside of the plasma membrane.

A

d. The sodium pump has moved Na+ to the outside of the plasma membrane.

98
Q

Fascicles are held together by a connective tissue layer called the:
a. endoneurium.
b. perineurium.
c. macroneurium. d. epineurium.

A

b. perineurium.

99
Q

Sensory neurons are usually:
a. unipolar.
b. bipolar.
c. multipolar.

A

a. unipolar.

100
Q

Multipolar neurons have:
a. multiple axons and multiple dendrites.
b. multiple axons and one dendrite.
c. multiple dendrites and one axon.
d. one dendrite and one axon.

A

a. multiple axons and multiple dendrites.

101
Q

Along a neuron, the correct pathway for impulse conduction is:
a. dendrite, axon, cell body, axon hillock.
b. dendrite, cell body, axon hillock, axon.
c. axon, axon hillock, cell body, dendrite.
d. axon hillock, axon, cell body, dendrite.

A

b. dendrite, cell body, axon hillock, axon

102
Q

The myelin sheath is formed by:
a. astrocytes.
b. nodes of Ranvier.
c. Schwann cells.
d. neuron cell bodies.

A

c. Schwann cells.

103
Q

The part of the nervous system that transmits impulses from the CNS to the skeletal muscle is the:
a. somatic nervous system.
b. autonomic nervous system.
c. central nervous system.
d. afferent division

A

a. somatic nervous system.

104
Q

The largest and most numerous type(s) of neuroglia is/are the:
a. astrocytes.
b. microglia.
c. ependymal cells.
d. oligodendrocytes.

A

a. astrocytes.

105
Q

A neuron that transmits a nerve impulse toward the central nervous system is called a(n):
a. efferent neuron.
b. afferent neuron.
c. interneuron.
d. bipolar neuron.

A

b. afferent neuron.

106
Q

The autonomic nervous system consists of the:
a. peripheral and afferent nervous systems.
b. sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
c. sympathetic and efferent nervous systems.
d. parasympathetic and somatic nervous systems.

A

b. sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.

107
Q

The somatic senses enable us to detect sensations such as:
a. touch.
b. temperature.
c. pain.
d. all of the above.

A

d. all of the above.

108
Q

ntense stimuli of any type that results in tissue damage will activate: a. mechanoreceptors.
b. thermoreceptors.
c. nociceptors.
d. photoreceptors.

A

c. nociceptors.

109
Q

Chemoreceptors are most likely to be activated by:
a. cold temperatures.
b. noxious odors.
c. pain.
d. a change of receptor position.

A

b. noxious odors.

110
Q

Free nerve endings respond to all of the following stimuli except:
a. tickling.
b. itching.
c. strength of muscle contractions.
d. pain.

A

c. strength of muscle contractions.

111
Q

Which of the following receptors are the most common and widely distributed receptors?
a. Free nerve endings
b. Meissner corpuscles
c. Krause end bulbs
d. Ruffini corpuscles

A

a. Free nerve endings

112
Q

There are ____ openings into the middle ear.
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five

A

c. four

113
Q

Both olfactory receptors and taste buds are: a. thermoreceptors.
b. chemoreceptors.
c. nociceptors.
d. mechanoreceptors.

A

b. chemoreceptors.

114
Q

Which of the following structures is not a component of the external ear? a. Auricle
b. Cerumen-secreting glands
c. Eustachian tube
d. External auditory meatus

A

c. Eustachian tube

115
Q

The tympanic membrane:
a. leads from the auricle into the temporal bone.
b. surrounds the cochlea and the semicircular canals.
c. is at the end of the external auditory meatus.
d. is also known as the inner ear.

A

c. is at the end of the external auditory meatus.

116
Q

Impulses are transmitted from the inner ear to the brainstem by way of the:
a. vestibular nerve.
b. cochlear nerve.
c. tectorial nerve.
d. oculomotor nerve.

A

b. cochlear nerve.

117
Q

The sense organs responsible for static equilibrium are located in the:
a. utricle.
b. saccule.
c. semicircular canals.
d. Both A and B.

A

d. Both A and B.

118
Q

The semicircular canals are in ____ planes of the body. a. one
b. three c. two d. four

A

b. three

119
Q

The passageway leading to the tympanic membrane is the:
a. external auditory meatus.
b. auditory tube.
c. eustachian tube.
d. oval window.

A

a. external auditory meatus.

120
Q

Sensory receptor impulses can terminate in all of the following except the:
a. cerebellum.
b. cerebral cortex.
c. thalamus.
d. A receptor impulse can terminate in all of the above.

A

a. cerebellum.

121
Q

Proprioceptors can be found in:
a. the urinary bladder.
b. the major blood vessels of the body.
c. skeletal muscles.
d. both A and C.

A

c. skeletal muscles.

BIOL235 Anatomy & Physiology (1 decks)

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