Chapters 1-8 Flashcards

1
Q

Spree killers

A

Spread their murderous outburst over a few days or weeks.

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2
Q

True or false: the National crime victimization survey and the UCR are only methods of crime data collection used in the United States.

A

False

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3
Q

True or false: ucr data captures all criminal violations.

A

False

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4
Q

According to social learning theory, people become violent because they?

A

Model their behavior after others and have that behavior positively reinforced.

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5
Q

The - amendment prohibits excessive bail.

A

Fourteenth

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6
Q

True or false: One problem with the data in the FBI’s UCR is the fact that people often lie on self-reports.

A

False

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7
Q

True or false: Carl is found guilty of murdering his wife. Under the concept of Civil law. Cari’s in-laws can file a lawsuit against carl for wrongful death.

A

True

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8
Q

Criminal negligence is a form of:

A

Mens rea

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9
Q

In which season do the greatest number of reported crimes occur?

A

Summer

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10
Q

Which constitutional amendment outlaws illegal searches and seizures by police?

A

Fourth

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11
Q

Which of the following is a public order crime?

A

Prostitution

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12
Q

Which of the following crimes is not included in the uniform crime report’s list of part 1 or index crimes.

A

Simple assault.

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13
Q

True or false: An example of a strict liability crime is robbery.

A

False

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14
Q

What is not considered a biochemical factor?

A

Genetic abnormality

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15
Q

True or false: Correctional officers have significant coercive power over offenders

A

True

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16
Q

True or false: less serious felonies make up the bottom layer of the criminal justice system wedding cake.

A

False

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17
Q

What theory believes that law violators may have suffered damage to their personalities early in their development that renders them powerless to control their impulses.

A

Psychodynamic

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18
Q

Johnny is arrested for driving under the influence of alcohol. As a result, he is convicted and serves a short stint in jail. Johnny’s incarceration is an example of what concept.

A

Specific deterrence

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19
Q

What crime is not in Part 1 or part ll of the offense section of the UCR?

A

Traffic violations

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20
Q

Advocates of which justice perspective would advocate for the decriminalization of marijuana?

A

Nonintervention

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21
Q

Which of the following is considered official crime data collected by the FBI?

A

Uniform crime Report

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22
Q

The term acts reus refers to what?

A

Guilty act

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23
Q

If a police officer shoots an armed suspect, which defense is the most appropriate to use?

A

Law enforcement

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24
Q

True or false: according to official data, violent offenses are more common than property offenses.

A

False

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25
Q

Example of social learning.

A

John Doe explains he only knows how to settle disputes by fist fighting.

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26
Q

True or false: The Miranda warnings must be read to all suspects arrested by law enforcement.

A

False

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27
Q

True or false: The crime rate was much higher 100 years ago than it is today.

A

True

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28
Q

Who is responsible for formally charging the suspects with a specific criminal act?

A

Prosecutor

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29
Q

what determines what types of conduct constitute felonies or misdemeanors?

A

Statutes

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30
Q

True or false: Studies show that high serotonin levels are linked with poor impulses control and hyperactivity.

A

False

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31
Q

What are the three main components into which the contemporary criminal justice system is generally divided?

A

Law enforcement, the courts, and the correctional system.

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32
Q

True or false: there is evidence that the reporting accuracy of self-report studies differ among racial, ethnic, and gender groups.

A

False

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33
Q

True or false: crimes such as murder and rape are cleared at higher rates than property crimes.

A

True

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34
Q

True or false: A key advantage of the NCVS is its ability to capture offenses that were never reported to the police.

A

True

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35
Q

True or false: one goal of the substantive Criminal law is to express public opinion and morality.

A

True

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36
Q

True or false: The NIBRS includes all the offenses that occur in an incident, rather than only the most serious offense.

A

True

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37
Q

What is suspected to be involved in half of all U.S. Murder, suicides, and accidental deaths?

A

Alcohol

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38
Q

By physically committing an act of robbery, what requirements have been satisfied for conviction.

A

Actus reus

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39
Q

True or false: according to situational crime prevention, if punishment is severe enough, known criminals will never be tempted to repeat their offenses.

A

False

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40
Q

Which Classification of crime is punishable by death?

A

Felony

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41
Q

If a pregnant woman in labor stole a cat because she feared delivery of her baby was imminent and she had no other means of transportation, she may use the defense of what?

A

Necessity

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42
Q

Civil law includes all the following except?

A

Criminal

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43
Q

What crime is considered not a violent crime?

A

Prostitution

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44
Q

Offenders at level of the “wedding cakes model of criminal justice have typically committed a serious offense and will receive a prison term; however, they will not garner much media attention.

A

Two

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45
Q

What is true about the relationship between age and crime?

A

Early starters tend to commit more crimes and are more likely continue to be involved in criminality over a longer period of crime

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46
Q

True or false: The death penalty has been shown to be a deterrent to violent crime.

A

False

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47
Q

True or false: In terms of becoming a victim of a violent crime, you are more at risk of being assaulted by someone you know or are in a relationship than by a stranger.

A

True

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48
Q

Which element of a crime is not required for strict l lability crimes?

A

Mens Rea

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49
Q

True or false: The only professionals in the criminal justice system that should be concerned with ethical behavior are police officers

A

False

50
Q

True or false: Studies have shown that minority police officers experience the same family-related stress as white officers.

A

True

51
Q

True or false: studies have shown that female officers are just as capable of performing the job well as are their mate counterparts.

A

True

52
Q

The fourth amendment specifically States that no warrants shall be issued but upon.

A

Probable cause

53
Q

True or false: The use of force by police officers is not a common event.

A

True

54
Q

After getting a call about a domestic disturbance, the issue has calmed by the time law enforcement arrive, law enforcement decides to just warn the parties. What type of discretionary factor is best represented in this circumstance?

A

Victim factor

55
Q

True or false: if a suspect asserts their Miranda rights during interrogation and tells the police he or she wants an attorney, questioning may continue until the attorney arrives.

A

False

56
Q

A_ occurs when a police officer takes a person into custody or deprives a person of freedom for having allegedly committed a criminal offense.

A

Arrest

57
Q

True or false: An anonymous tip reporting illegal activity received via telephone, without further corroboration, is grounds for obtaining a search warrant.

A

False

58
Q

True or false: In 1961, the courts made the exclusionary rule applicable to the state courts in the landmark decision of mapp V. Ohio

A

True

59
Q

True or false: The wichersham commission investigated the problem of police stress and fatigue

A

False

60
Q

True or false: female officers are less likely to use force than mate officers.

A

True

61
Q

True or false: organizational stressors for police officers include rotating shifts, work overload, and danger.

A

False

62
Q

True or false: although nondeadly force used by officers is unlikely to cause death, it sometimes does.

A

True

63
Q

True or false: Police departments with more restrictions on the use of force have lower shooting rates.

A

True

64
Q

True or false: In a general sense, police corruption involves misuse of authority by police officers in a manner designed to produce gain for the law enforcement community and prestige for the department.

A

False

65
Q

True or false:The exclusionary rule applies to physical evidence as well as confessions.

A

True

66
Q

The requirement that a search warrant State precisely where the search is to take place and what items are to be seized is referred to as what?

A

Particularity requirement

67
Q

True or false: The use of discretion by patrol officers is highly regulated and subject to administrative oversight.

A

False

68
Q

True or false: during the service of a search warrant, contraband not listed in the warrant can be legally seized, as long as it is in plain sight.

A

True

69
Q

True or false: if a warrant isissued in violation of the particularity clause, the ensuing search is invalid even if the officers actually exercise proper restraint in executing their search

A

True

70
Q

True or false: Research shows that police workload has nothing to do with police shootings.

A

False

71
Q

True or false: if a suspect simply remains silent, this means they have asserted their Miranda rights.

A

False

72
Q

True or false: the use of deadly force to apprehend an unarmed and nondangerous fleeing felon is a violation of the fourth amendment.

A

True

73
Q

Which U.S. Supreme Court case deemed the use of deadly force against an unarmed and nondangerous fleeing felon to be an illegal seizure under the fourth amendment?

A

Tennessee V. Garner

74
Q

What is not part of serving a warrant?

A

Bringing a representative of the media.

75
Q

The birthplace of the modern prison system and the Pennsylvania system of confinement was at

A

Walnut Street jail

76
Q

True or false: freedom of religion is a fundamental right guaranteed by the First amendment, and occurshave ruled that inmates have the right to practice religion as long as it doesn’t hinder security efforts.

A

True

77
Q

The first private prison was opened in 1986 in Which State?

A

Kentucky

78
Q

True or false: some super-max-style Prisons lock inmates in their cells for twenty-two to twenty-four hours a day

A

True

79
Q

What report does the probation department give?

A

Presentence investigation

80
Q

True or false: once released from prison, the majority of offenders do not recidivate

A

False

81
Q

True or false: if a probationer violates his or her probation by committing another crime, this is referred to as a legal violation.

A

True

82
Q

Inmates who may not be able to defend themselves and are often beaten or raped are known as

A

Punks

83
Q

What assessment of the threat level probationers pose to the Community and themselves?

A

Risk classification

84
Q

What significant event in history made it mandatory to limit the amount of prison-made goods allowed for sale in the late 1920’s and early 1930’s?

A

The Great Depression

85
Q

True or false: unlike their male counterparts, female inmates are more likely to be middle-aged, white, and married, with some education.

A

False

86
Q

Before inmates are sent to prison. They must first go through a battery of psychological and personality tests in a process known as:

A

Classification

87
Q

The first American jail was built in which City in the early seventeenth century?

A

James City

88
Q

What is not the purpose of a jail.

A

Long-term incarceration of violent offenders.

89
Q

True or false: the setup of most women’s Prisons closely resembles that of college dormitories

A

True

90
Q

What type of new-generation jail contains a cluster of cells surrounding a living area or pod with a officers station located within this pod?

A

Direct-Supervision jails

91
Q

Which type of correctional institutions houses dangerous felons and maintains strict security measures,high walls, and limited contact with the outside world?

A

Maximum- security prisons

92
Q

True or false: women inmates report more incidents of sexual assault by male guards as opposed to other inmates.

A

True

93
Q

Which type of community-based correctional facility houses inmates before their outright release so thy can become gradually acclimated to conventional society?

A

Halfway House

94
Q

Of the prison systems,which method eventually won out as the model used in the United States?

A

Philadelphia

95
Q

What is a condition of probation in which the offender repays society or teeth victim of the crime for the trouble caused by the offender?

A

Restitution

96
Q

True or false: during the past 25 years, the number of secure correctional facilities increased threefold.

A

True

97
Q

What type of crimes would most likely end in a sentence of a fine only?

A

Public intoxication

98
Q

True or false: In restitution situations involving wealthy offenders, the judge can issue an order stipulating that the offender must get a low-paying public job and use the income as a means of Payment.

A

True

99
Q

True or false: The fifth amendment prohibits cruel and unusual punishment.

A

False

100
Q

A first-time white-collar offender would most likely be sentenced to which type of prison?

A

Minimum-Security

101
Q

True or false: judges have a broad discretion in setting the terms of probation.

A

True

102
Q

True or false: case law has established that probationers are entitled to be represented by counsel during probation revocation hearings.

A

True

103
Q

What is not a benefit of community sentencing that includes probation?

A

Acts as a means of general deterrence.

104
Q

What is not true about inmate population?

A

Juvenile populations are on the rise for the first time since 1994; they now make up 29% of the total prison population.

105
Q

True or false: In the United States, fines are most commonly used in cases involving misdemeanors.

A

True

106
Q

True or false: jail conditions vary greatly across counties, as there are currently no unified national policies dictating the terms under which jails must be run.

A

True

107
Q

The first faith-based prison was established in which state in 2003?

A

Florida

108
Q

As compared with jail and prison sentences for drug-related crimes, community - based drug programs have shown:

A

Less recidivism

109
Q

What form of parole characterized by smaller caseloads and mandatory drug testing?

A

Intensive supervision parole

110
Q

Which state created the first parole agency in 1884?

A

Ohio

111
Q

What is not an element of the inmate code?

A

Don’t talk to the guards

112
Q

True or false: most revocations of probation occur during the first 3 months, because of technical violations

A

True

113
Q

The population of elderly inmates in the United States has decreased by 50% over the past thirty years.

A

False

114
Q

Minimum-Security prisons have been criticized for being like country clubs, some with tennis courts and pools, and have received the nickname “Club fed”

A

True

115
Q

A correctional facility designed to hold pretrial detainees and misdemeanants serving their criminal sentence?

A

Jail

116
Q

The intended goal of restorative justice is to:

A

Repair injuries suffered by the victim and the community and ensure reintegration of the offender into the community.

117
Q

Rehabilitation programs drastically changed after the 1970’s release of the MartinsonReport, which stated that in regard to rehabilitation programs:

A

“Nothing works”

118
Q

True or false: intermediate sanctions are no longer used in over forty states because of the cost and ineffectiveness of the program:

A

False

119
Q

Although most prisons are classified as medium security prisons, more than half of all inmates are held in what institutions.

A

Maximum-security

120
Q

Assessing his character, attitude, and behavior in order to determine the best possible treatment. This process is known as what?

A

Diagnosis

121
Q

Which type of prison is a less secure institution that houses nonviolent offenders and provides more opportunities for contact with the outside world?

A

Medium-security