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POLS 1100 > Chapters 1-5 > Flashcards

Chapters 1-5 Flashcards

1
Q

What goods are available to all without direct payment?

A

Public goods

Public goods are provided by the government and are accessible to everyone at no cost.

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2
Q

In which form of government does a small group of elite people hold political power?

A

Oligarchy

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3
Q

What is the difference between a representative democracy and a direct democracy?

A

In a representative democracy, people elect representatives to make decisions; in a direct democracy, people make decisions themselves.

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4
Q

What does government do for people?

A

Protects rights and freedoms, provides benefits like education and health care

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5
Q

The elite theory of government maintains that ________.

A

Wealthy, politically powerful people control government, and government has no interest in meeting the needs of ordinary people.

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6
Q

According to the pluralist theory of government, ________.

A

Government policy is formed as a result of the competition between groups with different goals and interests.

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7
Q

Which of the following is a good example of a tradeoff?

A

The government pleases environmental activists by preserving public lands but also pleases ranchers by allowing them to rent public lands for grazing purposes.

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8
Q

Supporting the actions of the Democratic Party simply because one identifies oneself as a member of that party is an example of ________.

A

Partisanship

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9
Q

When a person is asked a question about a political issue that he or she has little interest in, that person’s answer will likely reflect ________.

A

Latent preferences

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10
Q

What kinds of people are most likely to become active in politics or community service?

A

People with higher levels of education, higher income, and strong political interest

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11
Q

What political activities can people engage in other than running for office?

A

Vote, join a political party, campaign for a candidate, donate to a political cause, attend a town hall meeting, protest, sign a petition, join an advocacy group

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12
Q

Is citizen engagement necessary for a democracy to function?

A

Yes, citizen engagement is essential for a democracy to work. It holds the government accountable and ensures that policies reflect the will of the people. Without engagement, decisions may be made without considering the needs of the population.

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13
Q

Are all Americans equally able to become engaged in government? What factors make it more possible for some people to become engaged?

A

Higher education, demanding jobs, language barriers, discrimination

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14
Q

Are there any redeeming qualities to elitism and any downsides to pluralism?

A

Expertise and competence of the well-educated and experienced and conflict and division as well as hard decision making capabilities.

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15
Q

British colonists in North America in the late seventeenth century were greatly influenced by the political thought of ________.

A

John Locke

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16
Q

The agreement that citizens will consent to be governed so long as government protects their natural rights is called ________.

A

The social contract

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17
Q

What key tenets of American political thought were influential in the decision to declare independence from Britain?

A

Rights to life, liberty, and property; limiting government power

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18
Q

What important power did the national government lack under the Articles of Confederation?

A

It could not impose taxes.

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19
Q

In what ways did Shays’ Rebellion reveal the weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation?

A

Shays’ Rebellion highlighted the weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation by showing that the central government had no power to raise an army or maintain order. The rebellion, caused by economic hardship and the inability of farmers to pay debts, exposed the government’s failure to respond to domestic crises, as it lacked the authority to intervene effectively. This weakness prompted calls for a stronger federal government, leading to the drafting of the U.S. Constitution.

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20
Q

According to the Great Compromise, how would representation in Congress be apportioned?

A

Representation in the House based on population and equal representation in the Senate.

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21
Q

What does separation of powers mean?

A

Dividing government into different branches with distinct responsibilities.

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22
Q

Why were The Federalist Papers written?

A

To encourage New York to ratify the Constitution.

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23
Q

What argument did Alexander Hamilton use to convince people that it was not dangerous to place power in the hands of one man?

A

One man could respond to crises more quickly than a group.

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24
Q

How many states must ratify an amendment before it becomes law?

A

Three-fourths

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25
What is the Bill of Rights?
First ten amendments to the Constitution that protect individual freedoms.
26
What did the Fourteenth Amendment achieve?
Gave citizenship to African Americans and ensured equality before the law.
27
Was the Bill of Rights a necessary addition to the Constitution?
Yes, the Bill of Rights was a necessary addition to the Constitution. It was added to protect individual freedoms and limit the power of the government, addressing concerns raised by Anti-Federalists who feared the Constitution gave too much power to the federal government. The Bill of Rights guaranteed fundamental rights like freedom of speech, religion, and the press, ensuring that citizens' liberties were explicitly protected.
28
One of the chief areas of compromise at the Constitutional Convention was the issue of slavery.
Yes, slavery was a major compromise at the Constitutional Convention. The Three-Fifths Compromise counted enslaved people as three-fifths of a person for representation, and the Slave Trade Compromise allowed the slave trade to continue for 20 more years. These agreements helped secure support for the Constitution but left the slavery issue unresolved.
29
What is the definition of Anti-Federalists?
Those who did not support ratification of the Constitution.
30
What does the Articles of Confederation represent?
The first basis for the new nation’s government; created a weak central government.
31
What is a bicameral legislature?
A legislature with two houses, such as the U.S. Congress.
32
What are enumerated powers?
Powers given explicitly to the federal government by the Constitution.
33
What is the purpose of checks and balances?
To allow one branch of government to limit the power of another branch.
34
What is the definition of a republic?
A form of government in which political power rests in the hands of the people.
35
What are reserved powers?
Powers not prohibited by the Constitution or delegated to the national government.
36
What is the supremacy clause?
Federal law is superior to laws passed by state legislatures.
37
What is the Three-Fifths Compromise?
Counted 60 percent of a state’s slave population for representation and taxation.
38
What is a veto?
The power of the president to reject a law proposed by Congress.
39
Which statement about federal and unitary systems is most accurate?
In a federal system, the constitution allocates powers between states and federal government.
40
What is the primary source of revenue for local and state governments?
Taxes generate well over one-half the total revenue.
41
What is the primary difference between a federal system and a unitary system?
In a federal system, the constitution allocates powers between states and the federal government; in a unitary system, powers are lodged in the national government.
42
Which countries have federal systems?
The United States and Japan.
43
Which countries have unitary systems?
Great Britain and Canada.
44
What generates well over one-half of the total revenue for local and state governments?
Taxes.
45
What is the main source of tax revenue for local and state governments?
Property taxes.
46
What percentage of revenue for local and state governments comes from grant money?
Between 30 and 40 percent.
47
What constitutional provisions define the authority of federal and state governments?
Article I, Section 8; supremacy clause of Article VI; Tenth Amendment.
48
Which Supreme Court case invoked the necessary and proper clause and supremacy clause?
McCulloch v. Maryland.
49
What are the main principles of new federalism?
Decentralization of responsibility enhances administrative efficiency.
50
Which statement about cooperative federalism is not true?
Cooperative federalism respects the traditional jurisdictional boundaries between states and federal government.
51
What is the doctrine established by the McCulloch v. Maryland decision?
The doctrine of implied powers.
52
What type of federal grant places minimal restrictions on how state and local governments spend the money?
General revenue sharing.
53
What is an unfunded mandate?
Federal laws that impose obligations on state and local governments without fully compensating them.
54
What does 'venue shopping' mean?
A strategy in which interest groups select the level and branch of government they calculate will be most receptive to their policy goals.
55
What is a bill of attainder?
A legislative action declaring someone guilty without a trial; prohibited under the Constitution.
56
What is a block grant?
A type of grant that comes with less stringent federal administrative conditions and provides recipients more latitude over how to spend grant funds.
57
Define dual federalism.
A style of federalism where states and national government exercise exclusive authority in distinctly delineated spheres of jurisdiction.
58
What is the elastic clause?
The last clause of Article I, Section 8, which enables the national government to make all laws necessary and proper for carrying out its constitutional responsibilities.
59
What does the full faith and credit clause require?
States to accept court decisions, public acts, and contracts of other states.
60
What is immigration federalism?
The gradual movement of states into the immigration policy domain traditionally handled by the federal government.
61
What is the primary purpose of the Tenth Amendment?
To reserve powers not delegated to the federal government for the states.
62
What does the privileges and immunities clause prohibit?
States from discriminating against out-of-staters.
63
What is the race-to-the-bottom phenomenon?
A dynamic where states compete to attract business by lowering taxes and regulations.
64
What is selective incorporation?
The process of expanding the application of the Bill of Rights to include the states.
65
Which amendment outlawed slavery?
The Fourteenth Amendment.
66
What is an ex post facto law?
A law that criminalizes an act retroactively; prohibited under the Constitution.
67
What does the Third Amendment protect?
Against the quartering of soldiers in private homes without consent.
68
What does the Fourth Amendment require for searches?
A warrant based on probable cause.
69
What is the difference between civil liberties and civil rights?
Civil liberties are protections against government actions, while civil rights are the rights of individuals to receive equal treatment under the law.
70
Which amendment guarantees the right to a speedy trial?
The Sixth Amendment.
71
What is double jeopardy?
The prosecution of a person for a crime of which they have already been acquitted.
72
What is the main concern regarding the right to privacy?
It is not explicitly included in the Constitution or Bill of Rights.
73
What is the undue burden standard in relation to abortion?
Any law that imposes significant obstacles before fetal viability is considered an undue burden.
74
How does the Constitution protect the right to free speech?
Through the First Amendment.
75
What is the significance of the case Kelo v. City of New London?
It allowed greater use of the power of eminent domain.
76
What is a blue law?
A law originally created to uphold a religious or moral standard, such as a prohibition against selling alcohol on Sundays
77
Define civil liberties
Limitations on the power of government, designed to ensure personal freedoms
78
What are civil rights?
Guarantees of equal treatment by government authorities
79
What is a common-law right?
A right of the people rooted in legal tradition and past court rulings, rather than the Constitution
80
Who is a conscientious objector?
A person who claims the right to refuse to perform military service on the grounds of freedom of thought, conscience, or religion
81
What does double jeopardy refer to?
A prosecution pursued twice at the same level of government for the same criminal action
82
What is the due process clause?
Provisions of the Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments that limit government power to deny people 'life, liberty, or property' on an unfair basis
83
Define economic liberty
The right of individuals to obtain, use, and trade things of value for their own benefit
84
What is eminent domain?
The power of government to take or use property for a public purpose after compensating its owner
85
What does the establishment clause prohibit?
The government from endorsing a state-sponsored religion
86
What is the exclusionary rule?
A requirement that evidence obtained as a result of an illegal search or seizure cannot be used to try someone for a crime
87
Define the free exercise clause
The provision of the First Amendment that prohibits the government from regulating religious beliefs and practices
88
What is a Miranda warning?
A statement by law enforcement officers informing a person arrested or subject to interrogation of his or her rights
89
What is obscenity?
Acts or statements that are extremely offensive by contemporary standards
90
What does the Patriot Act do?
Broadened federal powers to monitor electronic communications
91
What is a plea bargain?
An agreement between the defendant and the prosecutor in which the defendant pleads guilty for a more lenient punishment
92
Define prior restraint
A government action that stops someone from doing something before they are able to do it
93
What is probable cause?
Legal standard for determining whether a search or seizure is constitutional
94
Define the right to privacy
The right to be free of government intrusion
95
What is a search warrant?
A legal document allowing police to search and/or seize persons or property
96
What is selective incorporation?
The gradual process of making some guarantees of the Bill of Rights apply to state governments and the national government
97
What does self-incrimination mean?
An action or statement that admits guilt or responsibility for a crime
98
What is the Sherbert test?
A standard for deciding whether a law violates the free exercise clause
99
Define symbolic speech
A form of expression that communicates an idea without using writing or speech
100
What is the undue burden test?
A means of deciding whether a law that makes it harder for women to seek abortions is constitutional
101
What legal standard would be used for a case involving discrimination against African American students in college admissions?
Strict scrutiny
102
The equal protection clause became part of the Constitution as a result of _______.
The Fourteenth Amendment
103
Which type of discrimination would be subject to the rational basis test?
A law that treats 10-year-olds differently from 28-year-olds
104
What is the difference between civil rights and civil liberties?
Civil rights guarantee equal treatment by government; civil liberties limit government power to ensure personal freedoms
105
The Supreme Court ruling that declared segregation and 'separate but equal' unconstitutional was _______.
Brown v. Board of Education
106
What was the significance of the 1965 Selma-to-Montgomery march?
It vividly illustrated the continued resistance to Black civil rights in the Deep South
107
What were the key provisions of the Civil Rights Act of 1964?
Outlawed discrimination in employment based on race, color, national origin, religion, and sex; prohibited segregation in public accommodations
108
At the 1848 women's rights convention, the most contentious issue proved to be _______.
Suffrage for women
109
How did NAWSA differ from the NWP?
NAWSA worked to win votes for women on a state-by-state basis; NWP wanted a constitutional amendment
110
The doctrine that requires equal pay for jobs requiring the same skill level is known as _______.
Comparable worth
111
The Trail of Tears refers to the forced removal of which tribe?
Cherokee
112
AIM was ________.
A radical group of Native American activists who occupied Wounded Knee
113
Describe the similarities and differences between Native Americans and Native Hawaiians.
Both groups lost their ancestral lands and suffer poverty; Native Americans can govern themselves, while Native Hawaiians cannot
114
Mexican American farm workers in California organized ________.
The United Farm Workers union
115
What best describes attitudes toward Asian immigrants in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries?
Asian immigrants were disliked by White people who feared competition for jobs
116
Why did it take so long for an active civil rights movement to begin in the LGBT community?
Responses may vary; consider societal attitudes and legal barriers
117
What is the better approach to civil rights: peaceful gradualism or radical direct action?
Responses may vary; consider effectiveness and societal impact
118
Should public funds be used for programs for Native Americans, Alaska Natives, and Native Hawaiians?
Responses may vary; consider historical injustices and current needs
119
If a majority of Native Hawaiians want to govern themselves, should they be allowed to do so?
Responses may vary; consider self-determination and legal implications
120
Should the government protect religious beliefs that conflict with the law?
Responses may vary; consider freedom of religion vs. public safety
121
In 1944, the Supreme Court upheld the internment of a minority group for national security. Should this apply today?
Responses may vary; consider civil liberties vs. national security
122
What is affirmative action?
The use of programs and policies designed to assist groups historically subject to discrimination
123
What is the American Indian Movement (AIM)?
A Native American civil rights group responsible for the occupation of Wounded Knee
124
What were Black codes?
Laws that discriminated against freed slaves and deprived them of their rights
125
What is civil disobedience?
An action taken in violation of the law to demonstrate that the law is unjust
126
What is coverture?
A legal status of married women in which their separate legal identities were erased
127
Define de facto segregation
Segregation that results from the private choices of individuals
128
What is de jure segregation?
Segregation that results from government discrimination
129
What is disenfranchisement?
The revocation of someone’s right to vote
130
What does the equal protection clause require?
States to treat all residents equally under the law
131
What is the Equal Rights Amendment (ERA)?
The proposed amendment to prohibit all discrimination based on sex
132
What is the glass ceiling?
An invisible barrier caused by discrimination that prevents women from rising to the highest levels of an organization
133
What is a grandfather clause?
A provision that allowed illiterate White people to vote based on their ancestors' voting rights
134
Define hate crime
Harassment or criminal acts directed against someone because of bias against their identity
135
What is intermediate scrutiny?
The standard used by the courts for discrimination cases based on gender
136
What are Jim Crow laws?
State and local laws that promoted racial segregation and undermined Black voting rights
137
What are literacy tests used for?
To disenfranchise racial or ethnic minorities by requiring reading skills to vote
138
What is a poll tax?
An annual tax imposed by some states before a person could vote
139
What is the rational basis test?
The standard courts use to decide most forms of discrimination
140
What was Reconstruction?
The period from 1865 to 1877 when Confederate states were reorganized before being readmitted to the Union
141
What is the Stonewall Inn known for?
The beginning of the modern Gay Pride movement after protests against police treatment of the LGBT community
142
What is strict scrutiny?
The standard used by courts for discrimination cases based on race, ethnicity, or religion
143
What does Title IX prohibit?
Discrimination in education on the basis of sex
144
What does the Trail of Tears refer to?
The forced migration of the Cherokees from Georgia to Oklahoma
145
What are understanding tests?
Tests requiring prospective voters to explain a passage of text
146
What is a White primary?
A primary election in which only White people are allowed to vote

POLS 1100 (1 decks)

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