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ATLS Summary > Chapters 1-3 > Flashcards

Chapters 1-3 Flashcards

1
Q

GCS

A

8

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2
Q

flail chest is accompanied by what?

A

pulmonary contusion

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3
Q

HYPOTN is caused by ____ until proven otherwise

A

hypovolemia

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4
Q

what should crystalloid be heated to?

A

29 celcius

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5
Q

5 signs of urethral injury

A 
blood at urethral meatus
perineal ecchymosis
blood in sctorum
high riding prostate
pelvic fracture
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6
Q

2 limitations for a FAST exam

A

obesity

intraluminal bowel gas

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7
Q

AMPLE history

A 
allergies
meds
PMH/ pregancy
alst meal
event/ environment
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8
Q

minimum UOP for adults

A

0.5 mL/kg/hour

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9
Q

minimum UOP for kids

A

1.0 ml?kg/Hour

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10
Q

when will a bougie deviate R or L

A

at 40 cm

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11
Q

RSI dose for etomidate

A

0-3 mg/kg (usually 20 mg)

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12
Q

RSI for succinchycholine

A

1-2 mg/kg (usually 100 mg)

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13
Q

how will ketamine affect BP

A

increase

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14
Q

how does etomidate affect BP

A

it doesn’t

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15
Q

how will propofol and thiopental affect BP

A

they will drop it

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16
Q

RSI dose of succinylcholine lasts for how long

A

about 5 minutes

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17
Q

why do you not give sux for burn patients, crush injuries, hyperkalemia, chronic NM disease

A

risk for hyperkalemia

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18
Q

size needle for needle cric in adults? kids?

A

adults 12-14 gauge kids 16-18 gauge

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19
Q

surgical cric is not recommended under what age?

A

12

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20
Q

things to try before a surgical airway

A

chin lift, jaw thrust , OPANPA, LMA

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21
Q

what airway maneuver can you not do while maintaining c-spine precuations

A

jaw thrust

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22
Q

OPA size

A

corner of patient’s mouth to external auditory canal

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23
Q

LMA size for kid? women? man?

A

3,4,5

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24
Q

ET size for infant

A

size of nostril or little finger

3 for infants 3.5 for neonates

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25
Q

ET tube size for emergency cricothyroidotomy

A

5 or 6

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26
Q

how to calculate ET tube size for toddlers and kids

A

age/4 + 4= internal diameter

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27
Q

how much percentage of blood is located in the venous circulation

A

70

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28
Q

should vasopressors be used for hemorrhagic shock?

A

No, they will worsen it, only use volume replacement

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29
Q

SBP will drop once ___% is lost

A

30%

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30
Q

tachycardia for infants/ toddlers

A

> 160 (infants)
140 for preschool
120 prepubescent
100 adults

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31
Q

the blood loss of an obese person is based on what?

A

their ideal weight

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32
Q

class I hemorrhage

A

up to 15%

500 mL= ~10%

33
Q

how do you treat class I hemorrhage?

A

you don’t usually. blood volume restored within 24 hours

34
Q

blood volume loss with class II hemorrhage

A

15-30 % (750-1500 mL in a 70 kg adult)

35
Q

Tx for class II hemorrhage

A

crystalloid

36
Q

what CNS changes will you see with Class II hemorrhage

A

anxiety, fright, hostility

37
Q

blood loss with Class III hemorrhage

A

30-40% (2000 mL)

38
Q

loss of >___ % of blood leads to LOC

A

50%

39
Q

blood loss with class IV hemorrhage

A

> 40%

40
Q

what class hemorrhage is associated with a drop in SBP

A

Class III and >

41
Q

Up to how much blood is lost with a femur fx

A

1500 mL

42
Q

unexplained HPOTN/ dysrhythmias are often caused by what in children

A

gastric distention

43
Q

blood on the floor x four more (what are the 4)

A

chest
pelvis
retroperitoneum
thigh

44
Q

rapid responders to fluid resuscitation typically have what type hemorrhage

A

class I or II

45
Q

transient responders are associated with what class of hemorrhage

A

II or III

46
Q

do most patients receiving blood transfusions need calcium replacement

A

no

47
Q

where do you make the incision for a saphenous vein cutdown and low long should the incision be?

A

1 cm anterior and 1 cm superior to the medial malleolus

make a 2.5cm transverse incision though skin and SQ

48
Q

how to tell difference b/w hemothorax and pneumo

A

pneumo will be hyperresonant with percussion hemo will be dull

49
Q

mass hemothorax

A

1500 mL or 1/3 or more of patient’s total blood loss

continuous blood loss of 200 mL/ hour for 2-4 hours

50
Q

common chest tube size

A

38 French

51
Q

where is a chest tube inserted

A

4th or 5th intercostal space just anterior to mid axillary line

52
Q

who can get an ED thoracotomy

A

PEA with penetrating thoracic injuries (not with blunt!)

53
Q

why should any hemothorax be drained

A

it can lead to lung entrapment or empyema

54
Q

a pneumothorax with persistent large air leak after tube thoracostomy suggest a ____ injury

A

tracheobronchial

55
Q

fracture of ribs 10-12 could cause an injury to what

A

lower ribs 10-12

56
Q

4 places for FAST exam

A

mediastinum
hepatorenal fossa
splenorenal fossa
pouch od Douglas

57
Q

only absolute c/i for DPL

A

pre exiisting condition requiring laparotomy

58
Q

relative DPL contraindications

A

morbid obesity, acirrhosis, coagulopathy, previous abdominal surgery (adhesions)

59
Q

2 reasons to use a supraumbilical approach for DPL

A

pelvic fractures and advanced pregnancy

60
Q

DPL that indicates need for laparotomy (initial, not lab)

A

free blood (>10 mL) or GI contents

61
Q

if DPL is not positive initially what do you do

A

Add 1,000 mL of warm isotonic crystalloid (or 10 mL/ kg) for kid

62
Q

lab findings from DPL fluid that indicate need for laparotomy

A

> 100,000 red cells, 500 whit ecells or bacteria (on gram stain)

63
Q

inidications for peritoneal laparotomy with penetrating wounds

A

unstable, GSW

64
Q

what type of pelvic fractures are more common?

A

closed book

65
Q

2 things to decompress before DPL

A

bladder adn stomach

66
Q

adequate fluid return when getting DPL fluid back

A

30%

67
Q

normal ICP in resting state

A

10 mm Hg

68
Q

why might you hyperventilate people w/ brain injuries

A

high levels of CO@ cause cerebral vasculature to dilate

69
Q

a midline shift great than what indicates need for neurosurgery

A

5 mm

70
Q

mannitol dose

A

0.25-1.0g/kg via rapid bolus

71
Q

when should a cast cutter be used to remove a trauma victim’s helmet

A

patient experience pain or paresthesias during inital attempt to remove helment of evidence of c-spien injury

72
Q

most common type of C1 fracture

A

Jefferson (burst fracture)

73
Q

any patient with more than __% of body burned should receive fluid resus.

A

20%

74
Q

difference between partial and full thickness burns

A

full thickness burns go through dermis and into/beyond subQ

75
Q

parkland formula (burns)

A

4(wegiht in kg)percentage BSA burned= volume in 24 hours (1st 1/2 in 8 hours 2nd over 16)

76
Q

partial or full thickness burns of __% warrant transfer to a burn center (age

A

10%

77
Q

partial or full thickness burns of a patient over 10 necessitate transfer to a burn center

A

20%

78
Q

Tx for frostbite

A

soat water in 40 degree C water for 20-30 minutes.

79
Q

how to estimate a child’s total circulating volume

A

80 mL/kg

ATLS Summary (1 decks)

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