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Transfusion Science > Chapters 1-3 > Flashcards

Chapters 1-3 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What is the cell involved in acquired immunity?

A

Lymphocytes

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2
Q

What wells are also known as antigen presenting cells?

A

Macrophages

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3
Q

What term is associated with the b-cell response to antigens?

A

Humoral immunity

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4
Q

What is the cell involved in the clearance of viral infected cells, tumou cells, and foreign tissue grafts?

A

CD8 cells

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5
Q

What is responsible for the following is responsible for the activation of the classical pathway of compliment?

A

Antibody bound to antigen

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6
Q

The major histocompatibility complex is located on chromosome 6 and is not important in all the following immune function

A

Hemolysis

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7
Q

Human leukocyte antigen antibodies are often stimulated following a patient’s repeated transfusions of platelets This poor response to platelet transfusion is known as:

A

Refractoriness (repeated platelet transfusions that contain leukocytes can increase the immune response to human leukocyte antigen and decrease the effectiveness of platelet transfusion)

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8
Q

In a lymphocytotoxicity test, cells that take on the dye:

A

Are recognized by a specific antibody

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9
Q

In a serologic test, the term prozone is also known as

A

Antibody excess

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10
Q

What is the potential effect in a tube agglutination test if a red cell suspension with a concentration greater than 5% is used?

A

False negative

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11
Q

After adding antigen and antibody to a test tube, one large agglutinate was observed how should this reaction be graded?

A

4+

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12
Q

Select the portion of the antibody molecule that imparts the antibody is unique class function

A

Constant region of heavy chain

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13
Q

What portion of the antibody molecule binds to receptors on macrophages and assists in removal of antibody bound to red cells?

A

Fc fragment

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14
Q

Select the region of the antibody molecule responsible for imparting unique antibody specificity

A

Variable region

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15
Q

What immunoglobulin class is capable of crossing the placenta?

A

IgG

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16
Q

What immunoglobulin class reacts best by antiglobulin testing?

A

IgG

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17
Q

What immunoglobulin class reacts best at room temperature at immediate spin?

A

IgM

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18
Q

Which of the following red cell antigens do proteolytic enzymes destroy?

A

Antigens Fya and Fyb in the Duffy system

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19
Q

The purpose of adding antibody -sensitized red cells following the antiglobulin test is to?

A

Check that the wash procedure was sufficient to remove unbound antibodies

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20
Q

An antibody with a specificity other than to one’s own cells or tissue that is stimulated by transfusion or pregnancy is termed an:

A

Alloantibody

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21
Q

Which of the following will cause an antigen to elicit a greater immune response?

A

Size greater than 10000 daltons

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22
Q

Incubation step is not necessary

A

Direct antiglobulin test

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23
Q

Requires washing the cells several times before the addition of antihuman globulin reagent

A

Both direct and indirect antiglobulin test

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24
Q

Tests for a certain clinical conditions such as hemolytic disease of the newborn and autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

Direct antiglobulin test

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25
Q

Detect IgG or complement coated red cells

A

Both the direct and indirect antiglobulin test

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26
Q

Test that uses IgG sensitized red calls (check cells)

A

Antiglobulintest

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27
Q

Method the uses a dextran-acrylamide matrix

A

Get technology

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28
Q

What reagent contains antibodies to multiple antigenic epitopes?

A

Polyclonal based

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29
Q

The evidence for reagent red cell deterioration may include which of the following?

A

Spontaneous agglutination, significant hemolysis, loss of agglutination strength over time

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30
Q

Reagent antibodies prepared from human sources are:

A

Polyclonal in specificity

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31
Q

Monoclonal antibodies are prepared in

A

Vitro (monoclonal antibodies are prepared from antibody- producing B lymphocytes and myeloma cells in a hybridoma)

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32
Q

An advantage of using mono Donal antibody over a polyclonaldoesn’t include:

A

All variations of the antigen can be detected

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33
Q

Solid -phase red cell adherence used for antibody detection has an advantage over tape testing because:

A

The end point is more clearly defined

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34
Q

What is the regarding IgG sensitized red cells?

A

They must be used to confirm a negative antiglobulin tube test

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35
Q

The get technology method uses a concentration offed cells that is:

A

Lower than tube techniques

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36
Q

What is true regarding high-protein anti- D reagents?

A

They have been largely replaced with low protein monoclonal reagents.
They contain approx 20% bovine albumin.
They may increase the possibility of a false positive reaction, requiring the use of a control.

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37
Q

How would you interpret the results if both the anti-D reagent and the Rh control were 2+ agglutination reactions?

A

Unable to determine without further testing

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38
Q

Which red cells are used to screen for antibodies in donor samples

A

Pooled screening cells

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39
Q

Polyspecific antihuman globulin contains:

A

Anti-IgG and anti-C3d

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40
Q

The indirect antihuman globulin test is incubated at what temperature?

A

37°C

41
Q

Why is incubation omitted in the direct antihuman globulin test?

A

The antigen-antibody complex has already formed in vivo

42
Q

In the solid-phase red cell adherence test, a negative test would appear as:

A

A button of cells on the bottom of the well

43
Q

Following centrifugation of the gel card, red cells are observed to be evenly dispersed throughout one of the microtubes. This reaction could be graded as:

A

2+

44
Q

Reagent derived from plants used to distinguish group A1 from group A2 red cells

A

Lectins

45
Q

Reagent used to determine the ABO antigenic composition of a patients red cells

A

ABO antisera

46
Q

Reagent to detect the presence of red cell antibodies

A

Screening cells

47
Q

Reagent to identify the specificity of a red cell antibody

A

Panel cells

48
Q

Reagent used in the identification of ABO antibodies

A

A1 and B cells

49
Q

A person whose red cells type M+, N+ with antisera would be:

A

A heterozygote (mand N are alleles, the inheritance of both alleles makes the individual a heterozygote)

50
Q

The children of an AB mother and a B father could phenotype as all the following except:

A

O (unless there was a rare cis AB inheritance pattern, an AB parent would not likely have a group O child)

51
Q

Parents who are both phenotypes as group A cawnot have group O child

A

False

52
Q

In a family study it was determined that all four siblings in the family had a different blood type: A, B, O, and AB. The parents are most likely:

A

AO and BO (punnette square)

53
Q

It anti-M was reacted with red cells that are M+N+, how would they compare with red cells that are M+N-?

A

Weaker

54
Q

A father carries the Xga blood group trait and passes it on to all of his daughters but none to his sons. What type of inheritance pattern does this demonstrate?

A

X -linked dominant (bc. only passed to daughters it was carried on the X chromosome, dominant genetic trait)

55
Q

Of the following matters that can be used to test for paternity, which marker provides the most useful value?
A) human leukocyte antigen typing
B) D antigen
C) ABO system antigens
D) the Kidd system

A

D antigen

56
Q

Mitosis results in ____ chromosomes as the original

A

Two cells with the same number of

57
Q

Crossing over occurs during:

A

Meiosis

58
Q

When an individual is said to be group Ai it refers to the individuals’

A

Phenotype

59
Q

An advantage of the polymerase chain reaction for viral marker testing is

A

A small amount of DNA or RNA can be detected

60
Q

What is meant by the term autosomal?

A

A trait that is not carried on the sex chromosomes

61
Q

How is RNA different from DNA?

A

Single stranded
Sugar is ribose (rather than deoxyribose)
Uracil base only exists with RNA

62
Q

When using hardy-weinberg equation to calculate genetic frequencies, which must be true?

A

The population statistics must be large
Mutations must not occur
Mating has to be random

63
Q

If two traits were found to occur higher in a population together than eachoccurs separately, they may be linked. This would suggest that:

A

The genes are close together on the same chromosome

64
Q

A gene that does not express a detectable product

A

Amorphicgenes

65
Q

Equal expression of two different inherited genes as in most blood group systems

A

Codominant genes

66
Q

Having two or more alleles at a given gene locus

A

Polymorphic

67
Q

When a gene product is expressed only when it is inherited by both parents

A

Recessive

68
Q

The binding of two complementary pairs of DNA

A

Hybridization

69
Q

DNA fragments produced byenzymatic device at specific recognition sites

A

Restriction fragment-length polymorphism

70
Q

Amplified target sequences of DNA produced by polymerase chain reaction

A

Amplicon

71
Q

Short segment of DNA with a known sequence that can be labeled with a marker

A

Probe

72
Q

Technique used to replicate a specific targeted DNA sequence

A

Polymerase chain reaction

73
Q

What ABO phenotype would agglutinate in the presence of anti- A, B produced by group O individuals?

A

A and B
(group O individuals make anti- A, B, an antibody with a specificity to both the A and B antigens)

74
Q

Which ABO phenotype selection contains the most H antigen and the least H antigen, respectively, on the cells surface

A

O, A1B

75
Q

A recipient with group A phenotype requires a transfusion of 2 units of frozen plasma which of the following types are appropriate to select for transfusion

A

AB and A

76
Q

Apatient’s red cells are agglutinate by anti-B but not by anti-A. This person would have which of the following ABO phenotypes

A

Group B

77
Q

The test procedure that combines patient’s serum with commercial A1 and B reagent red cells is called:

A

ABO reverse grouping

78
Q

a group A man marries a group AB woman. The father of the group A man was group O. What possible ABO phenotypes could be expected in the offspring?

A

Group A, B, and AB

79
Q

According to landsteiner’s rule, what ABO antibody will be detected in a group A individual’s serum?

A

Anti-B

80
Q

Select the appropriate strategy if the results of red cell and serum testing in the ABO typing procedure have negative agglutination reactions

A

Incubate tubes at room temperature or 4°C with an autocontrol
(ABO antibodies are stronger at room temperature lower. The autocontrol determines whether the enhanced antibody reaction was due to ABO antibodies onto a cold reacting antibody. The auto control should be negative for the ABO typing to be valid)

81
Q

What would be the agglutination reaction of red cells from a Bombay phenotype with anti-H lectin?

A

Negative

82
Q

Given the following ABO phenotype ping data:
Forward
Anti-A: 2+mf
Anti-B: 0
Reverse
A1 cells: 0
B cells: 3+
What could be a plausible explanation for this discrepancy

A

Group O blood products given to group
(Mixed field reaction save often caused by transfusion of group O red cells, which may take place during an emergency or inventory issue)

83
Q

What forward typing reagent can be used to confirm group O units before placing them in inventory

A

Anti- A, B

84
Q

Which of the following situations is most likely to cause intravascular hemolysis when an incompatible transfusion is given?

A

Group B packed cells to a group O recipient

85
Q

A blood sample from a 90yr old man was submitted to the blood bank for a type and screen before surgery. The forward type demonstrates as a group A, whereas the reverse type appears to be group AB. The most likely cause of this discrepancy is:

A

That patient has low-titer isoagglutinins

86
Q

Most “naturally occurring” ABO system antibodies fall into which class

A

IgM

87
Q

What substances are found in the saliva of a group A person who also inherited the secretor gene?

A

A, H

88
Q

What percentage of the group A population are type A2?

A

20%

89
Q

Approximately what is the percentage of individuals who demonstrate H in their saliva?

A

80%

90
Q

To distinguish between A1 and A2 blood type which reagent is used?

A

Dolichos biflorus lectin

91
Q

Why is it sometimes necessary to distinguish A1 and A2 blood types?

A

To resolve a discrepancy between the forward and reverse typing

92
Q

The subgroup of A with the least amount of A antigen is:

A

Ael

93
Q

N-acetylgalactosamine

A

Group A

94
Q

L-fucose

A

Group O, H antigen

95
Q

D- galactose

A

Group B

96
Q

Does Bombay have immunodominant sugar?

A

No!

97
Q

Which of the following phenotypes will react with anti-f?

A

rr

98
Q

Which of the following genotypes is possible for an individual whose red cells react as indicated below except:
ANTISERA REACTIONS
anti-C +
anti-D +
anti-E +
anti-c +
anti-e +

A

R0r”

99
Q

The weak D test detects

A

A weak D antigen

Transfusion Science (2 decks)

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