Chapter R - Female genital tract associated with pregnancy, childbirth and puerperium Flashcards

1
Q

What type of procedures are excluded from Chapter R?

A

Operations associated with abortive outcome
(classified to Chapter Q instead)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the sequencing rule when codes from both categories Y53 or Y68 for method of image control and category Y95 gestational age are required?

A

The code from Y53/Y68 must be sequenced before Y95.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the key points and sequencing rules of standard PCHSR1: Coding deliveries?

A
  • The delivery code (R17-R25) must be assigned in a primary position on all delivery episodes
  • R24.9 All normal delivery must only be assigned when no other code in R17-R25 applies
  • If one type of delivery method is changed for another, only the successful delivery method is coded.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If a pregnant patient admitted for an elective caesarean is found to be in labour prior to surgery, how must the caesarean delivery be coded and why?

A

As an emergency caesarean as all caesareans performed whilst the patient is in labour are to be coded as emergency caesareans (R18.-)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How must multiple deliveries be coded?

A
  • Each different type of delivery must be coded, with the most serious being sequenced first
  • Where all methods of delivery are the same, only one code is required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the abbreviation ARM stand for?

A

Artificial rupture of membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If multiple forms of medical induction of labour are used, how should this be coded?

A

R15.1 Medical induction of labour should only be assigned once per consultant episode even if multiple different forms are given.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the qualifying factor in determining which code to assign from category R21 for forceps delivery?

A

The type of delivery, i.e. low, mid, high, and not the name of the forceps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Explain the standard PCSR6: Gentle cord traction for removal of retained placenta

A

PCSR6: Gentle cord traction for removal of retained placenta states that gental cord traction performed to remove a retained placenta forms part of the management of ‘normal’ delivery and cannot be classified using OPCS-4 code.
(Not to be confused with R29.1 Manual removal of placenta from delivered uterus which would be coded)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is meant by cephalic presentation?

A

The fetal head is presenting first in labour (head first)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What do the following abbreviations mean in relation to fetal presentation?
* ROP/LOP
* ROT/LOT
* ROA/LOA

A
  • ROP/LOP - Right/Left occipitoposterior
  • ROT/LOT - Right/Left occipitotransverse
  • ROA/LOA - Right/Left occipitoanterior
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When must a code for episiotomy be coded and in which sequence?

A

Must be coded when carried out to facilitate delivery.
Sequenced secondary to the delivery code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

According to PCSR5: Episiotomy to facilitate delivery and subsequent repair (R27.1, R32), when is it permissible to code the repair of an episiotomy?

A

Repair is only coded if the episiotomy extends to a perineal tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When must a code for Anti D (X30.1) be assigned?

A

It must be recorded each time it is given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly