Chapter Quizes Flashcards

1
Q

Health care delivery in Canada and the United States has been greatly impacted by escalating costs, resulting in medical necessity requirements (to justify acute care hospitalizations), review of appropriateness of admissions, and requirement for administration of quality and effective treatments. Which was implemented as a direct results of current health care methods?

a. Health care consumers demand higher quality, more costly health care, and the focus on primary and preventative care
b. patients routinely undergo preadmission testing on an outpatient basis instead of being admitted as a hospital inpatient
c. Tertiary-care level services provided by specialized hospitals equiped with diagnostic and treatment facilities are offered in all communities
d. the performance of outpatient testing and surgiccal procedures has decreased due to advances in technology

A

b. patients routinely undergo preadmission testing on an outpatient basis instead of being admitted as a hospital inpatient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ultimate legal authority and responsibility for the hospital’s operation is the responsibility of the

a. administration
b. department chairpersons
c. governing board
d. medical staff

A

c. governing board

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

An internist sees a patient with an unusual blood condition and then refers the patient to a specialist. This is an example of

a. continuity of care
b. primary care
c. secondary care
d. tertiary care

A

a. continuity of care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Many of the physicians in a teaching hospital are interns and residents who work under the superivision of senior staff physician. A resident has

a. a medical degree and is continuing training immediately following completion of the four year medical curriculum
b. been granted active medical staff status by the health care facility
c. completing an internship and is engaged in a program of advanced specialized training
d. not yet written the state licensing exam to become a physician (e.g. MD)

A

c. completing an internship and is engaged in a program of advanced specialized training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Medical staff policies that delineate medical staff responsibilities are called

a. bylaws
b. procedures
c. regulations
d. rules

A

a. bylaws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Coders assign ICD-10-CM procedure codes to which of the following cases?

a. emergency room
b. inpatient
c. outpatient
d. physician office

A

b. inpatient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The purpose of abstracting patient cases is to

a. classify diagnoses and procedures for facilities
b. generate statistical reports and disease/procedure indexes
c. identify deficiencies in the discharged patient record
d. process reimbursement for inpatient and outpatient care

A

b. generate statistical reports and disease/procedure indexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If a facility adopts the universal chart order, this means that

a. after a patient is discharged from the health care facility, the record is assembled in chronological date order
b. discharged patient records are maintained in chronological date order to eliminate the patient record assembly task
c. inpatient reports are filed in strict chronological order within each section of the patient records
d. the discharged patient record is organized in the same order as when the patient was on the nursing floor

A

d. the discharged patient record is organized in the same order as when the patient was on the nursing floor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cancer registries collect cancer data from a variety of sources and report cancer statistics to government and health care agencies. The primary responsibility of the Cancer Registrar is to:

a. assign code numbers to all diagnoses, services, and procedures, based on patient record documentation
b. ensure the timely, accurate, and complete collection and maintenance of cancer data
c. organize, analyze, and maintain patient information to ensure the delivery of quality health care
d. review health related claims to determine whether the costs are reasonable and medically necessary, based on the patient’s diagnosis

A

b. ensure the timely, accurate, and complete collection and maintenance of cancer data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A coding specialist ensures that all diagnosis, services and procedure documents in patient records are coded accurately to

a. ensure the delivery of quality healthcare
b. determine whether the costs are reasonable and medically necessary, based on the patient’s diagnosis
c. ensure reimbursement, and for research and statistical purposes
d. plan, direct, coordinate, and supervise the delivery of health care

A

c. ensure reimburseent and for research and statistical purposes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Patient data is organized, analyzed, and maintained by health information managers to

a. ensure the delivery of quality health care
b. ensure the timely, accurate, and complete collection and maintenance of cancer data
c. plan, direct, coordinate, and supervise the delivery of health care
d. verify claims against third-party payer guidelines

A

a. ensure the delivery of quality health care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Health Insurance Specialists verify health claims against third-party payer guidelines to

a. authorize appropriate payment or refer the claim to an investigator for more thorough review
b. determine whether the costs are reasonable and medically necessary, based on the patients diagnosis
c. ensure reimbursement and for research an statistical purposes
d. ensure the delivery of quality health care

A

a. authorize approprate payment or refer the claim to an investigator for more thorough review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Health services managers plan, direct, coordinate, and supervise the delivery of health care. They include specialists who:

a. complete physician credentialing
b. coordinate a health care facility’s quality improvement
c. direct clinical departments or services
d. perform routine administrative and clinical tasks

A

c. direct clinical department or services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Medical assistants perform routine administrative and clinical tasks, which include

a. answer telephones, greeting patients, and arranging outpatient laboratory tests
b. ensure the timely, accurate, and complete collection and maintenance of cancer data
c. examining, diagnosis, and treating patients under the direct supervision of a physician
d. managing the physician credentialing process

A

a. answer telephones, greeting patients, and arranging outpatient laboratory tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Medical staff coordinators usually report directly to the health care facility’s administrator, and they are responsible for managing the medical staff office and complying with medical staff bylaws, which means they manage the (U.S.)

a. the physician credentialing and re-credentialing process
b. the privacy of patient health information
c. professional and general liability incidents, claims and lawsuits
d. quality improvement program

A

a. the physician credentialing and re-credentialing process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A privacy officer oversees the development, implementation, and maintenance of, and adherence to an organization’s policies and procedures covering privacy of and access to patient health information in compliance with

a. federal and state laws
b. federal laws only
c. state laws only
d. federal laws, regardless of whether state laws superseded federal laws (US/Canada)
- in Canada, it is governed by provincial laws

A

a. federal and state laws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A quality manager coordinates a health care facility’s quality improvement program to

a. analyze actual and potential risks to the health care facility
b. conduct accreditation surveys
c. identify liability incidents, claims, and lawsuits
d. improve patient’s outcomes

A

d. improve patient’s outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A risk manager investigates incidents to

a. ensure they are filed in the patient’s record
b. prepare patient’s for testimony against the facility
c. provide copies to the plaintiff’s attorney
d. recommend appropriate corrective action

A

d. recommend appropriate corrective action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The hospital’s quality management department has determined that 10% of the medical staff is noncompliant regarding documentation issues related to appropriate assignment of diagnosis and procedure codes. Which professional would be best to provide in-service training in this area?

a. cancer registrars
b. coding specialist
c. medical staff coordinator
d. quality manager

A

b. coding specialist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Mrs. Petrie enters the physician’s office for her appointment and signs in at the reception area. Which professional initially greets Mrs. Petrie and updates her registration information in the computer system

a. coding specialist
b. health insurance specialist
c. health services manager
d. medical assistant

A

d. medical assistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

An acute care facility is a hospital that provides health care services to patients who have serious, sudden, or acute illness and/or who need certain surgeries. What is an accurate statement about an ACF

a. a quality manager closely monitors patients care for medical necessity
b. inpatient stays are typically lengthy (more than 30 days)
c. services are limited to emergency and critical care
d. they provide a full range of health care services

A

d. they provide a full range of health care services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Hospitals have an organized medical and professional staff, and inpatient beds are available on a 24 hour basis. The primary function of hospitals is to provide inpatient medical and nursing services

a. along with other services (e.g. outpatient)
b. exclusively as single hospitals, where the facility is not part of a larger organization
c. to nonsurgical patients, along with other services (e.g. outpatient)
d. to surgical and nonsurgical patients, but no other services

A

a. along with other services (e.g. outpatient)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A consideration when discussing hospital organization is to identify the population served by a health care facility. This means that health care is provided to specific groups of peple. Which is a true statement

a. a facility that specializes in the treatment of inpatient children is called a pediatric hospital
b. facilities that serves as “mini-intensive care units” are called emergency facilities
c. the hospital’s longest length of stay determines whether the hospital is classified as short- or long-term
d. the inpatient bed size licensed by the state determines whether the hospital is general or specialize

A

a. a facility that specializes in the treatment of inpatient children is usually called a pediatric hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

To calculate an inpatient length of stay, count the day of admission but not the day of discharge. A patient admitted on July 25 and discharged on August 3 has which LOS

a. 7 days
b. 8 days
c. 9 days
d. 10 days

A

c. 9 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Physicians who spend most of their time in a hospital setting admitting patients to their inpatient services from local primary care providers are called

a. attending physicians
b. hospitalist
c. internist
d. residents

A

b. hospitalist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Outpatients are treated and released the same day and do not stay overnight in the hospital. Their length of stay is a maximim of

a. 11 hours, 59 minutes, 59 seconds
b. 23 hours, 59 minutes, 59 seconds
c. 24 hours, 00 minutes, 00 seconds
d. 24 hours, 59 minutes, 00 seconds

A

b. 23 hours, 59 minutes, 59 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Ambulatory surgery patients undergo certain procedures that can be performed on an oupatient basis, which means the patient is

a. considered an inpatient
b. receive subacute care
c. treated and released the same day
d. treated for urgent problems

A

c. treated and released the same day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which is an example of durable medical equipment that patients would use in their home

a. daily living activities
b. home infusion care
c. inpatient bed
d. wheelchair

A

d. wheelchair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hospice care provides comprehensive medical and supportive social, emotional, and spiritual care to terminally ill patients and their families. The goal of hospice is to provide

a. long-term care
b. palliative care
c. respite care
d. therapeuitc care

A

b. palliative care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Long-term care services that provide assistance with activities of daily living are associated with

a. custodial care
b. intermediate care
c. managed care
d. skilled care

A

a. custodial care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Preadmission certification is defined as a form of utilization management that

a. controls health care costs by reviewing cases for appropriateness
b. includes a review of patient cases to determine that quality health care is provided
c. involves the review for medical necessity of inpatient care prior to inpatient admission
d. requires the documentation of services needed for diagnosis or treatment of a medical condition

A

c. involves the review for medical necessity of inpatient care prior to inpatient admission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which is the goal of both manual and electronic patient records

a. documentation of patient care
b. medicolegal protection of providers
c. reimbursement of health care services provided
d. research and education

A

a. documentation of patient care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which is most important for medicolegal purposes

a. discharge summary
b. entire record
c. nurses notes
d. progress notes

A

b. entire record

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Although hospital inpatient records have traditionally served as the documentation source and business record for patient care information,

a. all patient records contain similar content and format features
b. alternate care facilities records serve as the best documentation source for patient care information
c. patient identification information must be captured by the physician’s office that treats the patient
d. the definition and purpose of the patient record is supported only by the financial record

A

a. all patient records contain similar content and format features

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Information capture is the process of recording respresentation of human thought, perceptions, or actions in documenting patient care, as well as device-generated information that is gathered and/or computed about a patient as part of health care. Which is an example of information capture

a. analyzing patient information
b. constructing a health care document (paper or digital)
c. formatting and/or structuring captured information
d. generating images through x-rays

A

d. generating images through x-rays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The primary purpose of the patient record is to provide continuity of care, which means

a. documenting services so others have a source from which to base care
b. evaluating the quality of inpatient care
c. providing information to third-party payers for reimbursement
d. service the medicolegal interest of the patient, facility, and providers of care

A

a. documenting services so others have a source from which to base care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following statements is accurate

a. the medical record is the property of both the provider and patient
b. the medical record is the property of the provider
c. the patient owns the documents in the medical record
d. the provider owns the information in the medical record

A

b. the medical record is the property of the provider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Mrs. Wright is a long standing patient of Dr. Bartron’s medical practice. Mrs. Wright also happens to be a credentialed health information personnel, and she comes to the physicians office to request access to her medical record. She wants to make sure that the recent history that was documented by Dr. Bartron accurately reflects statements about her recent car accident. The receptionist has Mrs. Wright sign an authorization to release information and arranges to supervise Mrs. Wright’s review of the record. Upon review, Mrs. Wright determines that there is an error in the documentation of the record and she approaches the medical assistant to request that it be corrected. How should the medical assistant respond? The medical assistant informs Mrs. Wright that

a. because the receptionist shouldn’t have let Mrs. Wright review the record in the first place, her request for correction is denied.
b. Dr. Bartron does not correct entries in the medical record, but Mrs. Wright can write a letter clarifying the information, which will be filed in the record
c. medical record entries can be corrected only after Mrs. Wright submits a letter that clarifies the information that she wants changed
d. She has the right to access the contents for review and to request the physician to amend the record to correct inaccurate information

A

d. she has the right to access the contents for review and to request the physician to amend the record to correct inaccurate information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The hospital inpatient record documents the care and treatment received by a patient admitted to the hospital. Where is the paper-based record stored while the patient is in the hospital

a. all patient records are stored in the health information department
b. each record is housed in the location specified in the physician’s order
c. the inpatient record is typically located at the nursing station
d. the record is placed in a locking wall desk at the nursing station

A

c. the inpatient record is typically located at the nursing station

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Since the early 1980s, provision of outpatient services has steadily increased due to cost savings associated with providing health care on an ambulatory instead of inpatient basis. This shift from inpatient to outpatient care has also resulted in hospital health information departments managing a(n)

a. decreasing volume of outpatient information
b. equal volume of inpatient and outpatient information
c. fluctuating volume of outpatient information
d. increaseing volume of outpatient information

A

d. increasing volume of outpatient information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Patient health care services received in a physician’s office are documented in the physician office record, which includes both administrative and clinical data. Generally, physicians who practice independently use a(n) ______ used by physicians in a group practice

a. less structured office record versus a more structured office record
b. more structured office record versus a less structured office record
c. office record that is very similar in comparison to the hospital inpatient’s record
d. structured office record similar to that

A

a. less structured office record versus a more structured office record

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

One of the statements below is an interpretation of the familiar phrase “if it wasn’t documented, it wasn’t done” in the following care: Dr. White performed a thyroid biopsy procedure at the patient’s bedside. He didn’t document it in the patient record. Which statement is correct?

a. the health care facility should reprimand Dr. White and possibly suspend his privileges
b. The patient has no legal recourse to bring a malpractice suit against the physician
c. the physician is not allowed to add documentation of the procedure after the fact
d. upon review of the record, the third-party payer can refuse to pay for the procedure

A

d. upon review of the record, the third-party payer can refuse to pay for the procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Health care services rendered must be documented to prove that care was provided and that good medical care is supported by patient record documentation. Therefore, inadequate patient record documentation may indicate

a. an illegible entry should be rewritten by it’s author
b. enhanced continuity of care
c. poor health care delivery
d. the need to adopt an auto authentication policy

A

c. poor health care delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Dr. Broad dictated a discharge summary on July 15, which was transcribed and placed in the patient record later the next day. Upon review of the report, Dr. Broad decided not to authenticate it and redictate it. He told the medical transcriptionist the reason was that, when he originally dictated the report, he had been ill with the flu; the report was incomplete and doesn’t flow properly. Dr. Broad drew one line across each page of the report, wrote “re-dictated” on it, and dated and signed the notation. After the transcriptionist transcribes the new dictations, what action should the file clerk take? The file clerk should

a. insert the newly transcribed report after the old report
b. place the newly transcribed report on top of the other report
c. remove the original report from the record and insert the newly transcribed report
d. use a permanent marker to redact the old report, and file the new report

A

b. place the newly transcribed report on top of the other report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A technical control mechanism created by an electronic health record system that consists of a listing of all transaction and activities that occurred, along with date, time, and user who performed the transaction is called a(n)

a. addendum
b. amended record
c. audit trail
d. indexed record

A

c. audit trail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Preadmission testing incorporates patient registration, testing, and other services into one visit prior to

a. ancillary services
b. emergency care
c. inpatient care
d. urgent care

A

c. inpatient care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

X-ray films are consered a ______ of patient information

a. primary source
b. secondary source

A

a. primary source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The original patient record is a ____ of information

a. primary source
b. secondary source

A

a. primary source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

EKG/ECGs are ____ of patient information

a. primary source
b. secondary source

A

a. primary source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Indexes and registers are a _________ of patient information

a. primary source
b. secondary source

A

b. secondary source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

An incident report is a ____ of patient information

a. primary source
b. secondary source

A

b. secondary source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The inpatient record format that is organized according to sections is called the

a. electronic record
b. integrated record
c. problem-oriented record
d. source-oriented record

A

d. source-oriented record

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

In what order is the source oriented record usually arranged for permanent filing purposes

a. by sections, chronological date order
b. by sections, reverse chronological date order
c. in the problem oriented fashion
d. integrated, reverse chronological date order

A

a. by sections, chronological date order

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The problem oriented record’s data base

a. acts as a table of contents for the patient’s record because it is filed at the beginning of the record and it contains a list of the patient’s problems.
b. contains minimum information collected on every patient, such as chief complaint, present conditions and diagnoses, social data
c. describes actions that will be taken to learn more about the patient’s condition and to treat and educate the patient
d. includes one or more problems and notes documented for each using a subjective, objective, assessment, and plan structure

A

b. contains minimum information collected on every patient, such as chief complaint, present conditions and diagnoses, social data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The problem oriented record’s problem list

a. acts as a table of contents for the patient’s record because it is filed at the beginning of the record and it contains a list of the patient’s problems.
b. contains minimum information collected on every patient, such as chief complaint, present conditions and diagnoses, social data
c. describes actions that will be taken to learn more about the patient’s condition and to treat and educate the patient
d. includes one or more problems and notes documented for each using a subjective, objective, assessment, and plan structure

A

a. acts as a table of contents for the patient’s record because it is filed at the beginning of the record and it contains a list of the patient’s problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The problem oriented record’s initial plan

a. acts as a table of contents for the patient’s record because it is filed at the beginning of the record and it contains a list of the patient’s problems.
b. contains minimum information collected on every patient, such as chief complaint, present conditions and diagnoses, social data
c. describes actions that will be taken to learn more about the patient’s condition and to treat and educate the patient
d. includes one or more problems and notes documented for each using a subjective, objective, assessment, and plan structure

A

c. describes actions that will be taken to learn more about the patient’s condition and to treat and educate the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The problem oriented record’s progress notes

a. acts as a table of contents for the patient’s record because it is filed at the beginning of the record and it contains a list of the patient’s problems.
b. contains minimum information collected on every patient, such as chief complaint, present conditions and diagnoses, social data
c. describes actions that will be taken to learn more about the patient’s condition and to treat and educate the patient
d. includes one or more problems and notes documented for each using a subjective, objective, assessment, and plan structure

A

d. includes one or more problems and notes documented for each using a subjective, objective, assessment, and plan structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

SOAP is the abbreviation for

a. Source, Objective, Assessment, Problem
b. Subjective, Objective, Analysis, Plan
c. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
d. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Problem

A

c. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The SOAP format is commonly used by physicians to document progress notes, the subjective portion is the

a. documentation of patient physical examination
b. patient’s problem in his or her own words
c. physician orders for treatment of the patient
d. physician’s terminology that describes the patient’s problems

A

b. patient’s problem in his or her own words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which would be performed as part of a quantitiative analysis

a. abstracting information from the patient record into a computer software program
b. review of the face sheet and patient record to locate a diagnosis missing from the face sheet
c. review of the patient record for inconsistent documentation
d. review of the record to ensure that each document is present and authenticated

A

d. review of the record to ensure that each documet is present and authenticated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Qualitative analysis involves the review of the patient record for

a. inaccurate documentation
b. patient identification on each patient
c. presence of authentication by providers
d. reports that are missing

A

a. inaccurate documentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The best way to mark authentication deficiencies in the patient’s record is to

a. call each physician and leave a message as to the number of chart deficiencies
b. complete a deficiency form and place it in the physician’s mailbox
c. use a red marking pen to enter a check mark next to the documentation that needs authentication
d. use pressure sensitive coloured tags to flag missing signatures

A

d. use pressure sensitive coloured tags to flag missing signatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

From 1970 to 1980 the term _______ was used to describe early attempts at medical record automation

a. automated medical records
b. computerized medical record
c. patient health record
d. personal health record

A

b. computerized medical record

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Maria Jones’ medical record includes records from different episodes of care, providers, and facilities, which are linked to form a view, over time of her health encounters. This type of medical record is called a

a. comprehensive patient record
b. computer based patient record
c. longtiduinal patient record
d. patient historical record

A

c. longtiduinal patient record

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which of the following is a DISADVANTAGE of manual medical records

a. low start up costs
b. record linkage
c. simplified staff training
d. timely caputre of information

A

d. timely capture of information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The electronic or paper based medical record that is maintained and updated by an individual for personal use is called a

a. patient health record
b. patient medical record
c. personal health record
d. personal medical record

A

c. personal health record

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Samantha Smith, HIM manager, is transitioning a manual patient record system to an electronic health record system by capturing existing paper record images in an electronic storage media. The most effective approach to accomplish this would be to

a. entirely recreate the manual health information in the electronic health information system
b. exclude manual patient records information from the electronic health record system
c. keyboard all manual patient record system data into the electronic health record
d. scan existing paper record images using a scanner to create an electronic record

A

d. scan exisiting paper record images using a scanner to create an electronic record

68
Q

The standards development organization that creates electronic health record standards under the direction of the U.S. department of health and human services is called

a. AHIMA
b. AMA
c. CMS
d. HL7

A

d. HL7

69
Q

Which of the following statements are false?

a. electronic health health records systems are advantageous because there is no requirement for downtime
b. facilities need to clearly define their legal record so as to respond to various requests for an entire patient’s record when an electronic health record system is implemented
c. implementation of each electronic health record system is based on information needs, budget, existing automated systems, and other factor unique to the organization
d. no two facilities have the same electronic health record system

A

a. electronic health records systems are advantageous because there is no requirement for downtime

70
Q

Raw facts that are not interpreted or processed, such as numbers, letters, images, symbols, and sounds are called

a. characters
b. data
c. fields
d. information

A

b. data

71
Q

Which of the following is NOT an administrative application of the electronic health record system?

a. admission/discharge/transfer and registration
b. business and financial functions
c. medication administration record documentation
d. payroll applications

A

c. medication administration record documentation

72
Q

The functions of electronic health record (EHR) _____ applications include ordering x-ray tests, creating MRI/CT images, and reporting x-ray test results

a. laboratory
b. nursing
c. pharmacy
d. radiological

A

d. radiological

73
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

a. a record contains more data than a file
b. information is data that has been given meaning
c. information is raw facts
d. the first letter of a person’s last name represents a field

A

b. information is data that has been given meaning

74
Q

A pathology report is required

a. at the discretion of the pathologist
b. at the discretion of the surgeon
c. only in predefined cases where tissue is removed
d. whenever tissue (or other material) is removed

A

d. whenever tissue (or other material) is removed

75
Q

A provisional diagnosis is also known as a

a. comorbidity
b. final diagnosis
c. principal diagnosis
d. tentative diagnosis

A

d. tentative diagnosis

76
Q

The tissue report is the written report of findings on surgical specimens and is documented by the

a. attending physician
b. pathologist
c. radiologist
d. surgeon

A

b. pathologist

77
Q

Major sections of the history include

a. family and past history, mental and neuro-psychiatric exams, personal exams, and physical exams
b. past history, family history, social history, review of systems, impression, and lab data
c. past history, social history, chief complaint, present illness, and review of systems
d. social and family history, past history, present illness, physical exam, and system review

A

c. past history, social history, chief complaint, present systems, impression, and lab data

78
Q

A graphic record documents

a. the amount of medicine given per dose
b. the number of times a patient is visited by his doctor
c. the total number of times a patient has been in the hospital
d. vital signs throughout the patient’s stay

A

d. vital signs throughout the patient’s stay

79
Q

Who provides the patient’s admitting diagnosis for an inpatient stay?

a. admitting office
b. attending physician

A

b. attending physician

80
Q

An operative record should contain a

a. description of the procedure
b. history of the anesthesia reactions
c. post-anesthesia status
d. vital signs

A

a. description of the procedure

81
Q

The history of present illness

a. describes the patient’s current illness
b. is a review of symptoms by body systems
c. is a statement about the patient’s life
d. summarizes the patient’s past illnesses

A

a. describes the patient’s current illness

82
Q

Where is the fact that a patient smokes cigarettes documented

a. family history
b. physical examination
c. review of systems
d. social history

A

d. social history

83
Q

Laboratory tests are ordered by the

a. laboratory technician
b. medical technologist
c. pathologist
d. responsible physician

A

d. responsible physician

84
Q

An “impression” is most likely to be found on the

a. advances directive
b. discharge summary
c. face sheet
d. physical exam

A

d. physical exam

85
Q

The review of systems is found on the

a. history
b. physical examination

A

a. history

86
Q

A patient is admitted on May 1 and discharged on May 2. The diagnosis is tonsillectomy, and the patient underwent routine tonsillectomy. Which applies?

a. A discharge note must be documented in the progress note
b. a discharge summary must be dictated
c. a short stay record may be documented
d. an internal history and physical can be documented

A

c. a short stay record may be documented

87
Q

If the physician wants to determine how her patient reacted to a new medication administered during the night, she would review the

a. anciallary data
b. medication administration record
c. nurses notes
d. physician orders

A

c. nurses notes

88
Q

Inpatient progress notes are documented

a. according to federal government mandates
b. as the patient’s condition warrants
c. at least on a daily basis
d. more than one a day, as a minimum

A

b. as the patient’s condition warrants

89
Q

The face sheet is also known as admission/discharge

a. record
b. register

A

a. record

90
Q

The condition established after the study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the admission of the patient to the hospital for care is the diagnosis

a. principal
b. principle

A

a. principal

91
Q

Which type of inpatient procedure is usually sequenced first?

a. diagnostic procedure to treat a complication
b. diagnostic procedure to treat the reason for admission after study
c. therapeuitc procedure to treat a complication
d. therapeutic procedure to treat the reason for admission after study

A

d. therapeutic procedure to treat the reason for admission after study

92
Q

A coexisting condition is a

a. comorbidity
b. complication

A

a. comorbidity

93
Q

The best method of communication for members of the health care team caring for a hospital inpatient is the

a. consultation report
b. discharge summary
c. physicians report
d. progress report

A

d. progress report

94
Q

The description of surgical tissue analysis is found on the

a. autoposy report
b. laboratory report
c. operative report
d. pathology report

A

d. pathology report

95
Q

The choice of anesthesia to be administered during surgery is documented by the anesthesiologist on the

a. operative record
b. pre-anesthesia evaluation note
c. preoperative note
d. recovery room record

A

b. pre-anesthesia evaluation note

96
Q

Progress notes are a chronological report of the patient’s hospital course and reflect changes of the patient’s

a. data entries that direct patient treatment during an inpatient stay
b. documentation of patient examination and review of the patient’s record
c. evidence that sufficient treatment was rendered to justify the stay
d. the only basis upon which the patient or payer is billed for the hospital stay

A

c. evidence that sufficient treatment was rendered to justify the stay

97
Q

Which is an ancillary service form?

a. flow sheet
b. laboratory report
c. medical administration record
d. nursing discharge summary

A

b. laboratory report

98
Q

Which statement would be documented in a physical examination?

a. admitted because of sharp epigastric pain
b. had cholecystectomy three years ago
c. HEAD: occasional headache
d. negative bowel sounds

A

d. negative bowel sounds

99
Q

Which filing system houses all patient records in one department

a. centralized
b. decentralized

A

a. centralized

100
Q

Terminal digit filing is also called reverse numerical filing becase

a. deceased patient records are filed according to this system
b. the last two numbers of the patient number are considered primary

A

b. the last two numbers of the patient number are considered primary

101
Q

When a patient is assigned a new number at each admission to the hospital and a seaparte record is generated for the patient, which numbering system is being utilized

a. phonetic
b. serial
c. serial unit
d. unit

A

b. serial

102
Q

Which system is used when a patient receives a number on his first admission and retains it for all subsequent admissions

a. phonetic
b. serial
c. serial unit
d. unit

A

d. unit

103
Q

When filing patient number 38-47-23 according to terminal digit, the digits, “23” would be considered

a. primary
b. principal
c. secondary
d. tertiary

A

a. primary

104
Q

Within one primary section, which represents records filed in terminal digit order

a. 00-00-52, 01-00-52, 02-00-52, 03-00-52
b. 00-00-52, 01-00-53, 02-00-54, 03-00-55
c. 00-00-52, 01-40-53, 02-40-54, 03-35-55
d. 05-00-52, 02-00-53, 01-00-54, 06-00-54

A

a. 00-00-52, 01-00-52, 02-00-52, 03-00-52

105
Q

Six patients were admitted to the hospital between 9:00 and 10:00 a.m. on January 1. The following patient numbers were entered, one after another, in the admission register: 9010, 2053, 9011, 9012, 3155, 0381
Which numbering system does the hospital use?
a. pseudo numbering
b. serial-unit
c. serial unit
d. unit

A

d. unit

106
Q

How does the serial unit system differ from the serial system

a. serial unit records on the same patient are filed in one location in the health information department files, while serial records on the same patient are filed in multiple locations
b. there is no difference; both the serial and serial unit filing systems follow the same number assignment guidelines as well as filing procedures in the filing system

A

a. serial unit records on the same patient are filed in one location in the health information department files, while serial records on the same patient are filed in multiple locations

107
Q

The file system requires 2,000 file guides, which pattern of guides will appear in the terminal digit files

a. 00-00-00, 00-05-00, 00-10-00
b. 00-00-00, 00-00-05, 00-00-10
c. 00-00-00, 00-50-00, 01-00-00
d. 00-00-00, 00-00-05, 00-00-10

A

a. 00-00-00, 00-05-00, 00-10-00

108
Q

An outguide is typically used within the health record filing system to

a. identify convenient units of patient record folders
b. indicate that a patient record has been removed
c. separate files by department
d. show that a record has been lost

A

b. indicate that a patient record has been removed

109
Q

Loose filing usually involves

a. filing reports in the record that are generated after a patient is discharged
b. filing reports that have been previously misplaced
c. leaving space available in a file system to allow additional records to be file
d. stapling together reports that are loose in a folder

A

a. filing reports in the record that are generated after a patient is discharged

110
Q

In a terminal digit filing system, if the number is 64 79 36, the tertiary numbers is

a. 36
b. 64
c. 79
d. 936

A

b. 64

111
Q

The hospital assigned patient numbers using the serial numbering system. Which number was most assigned by admissions

a. 44 10 74
b. 56 00 96
c. 76 02 82
d. 89 03 76

A

d. 89 03 76

112
Q

Which numbering system is typically used when a hospital assigns pseudonumbers as patient numbers

a. family
b. serial
c. serial-unit
d. unit

A

d. unit

113
Q

A jukebox is a component of

a. automated record tracking
b. microfilming
c. optical imaging
d. transcribing dication

A

c. optical imaging

114
Q

The medical center has adopted the unit numbering system to assign patient numbers. The number that will be assigned to the next admission is 201562. Patricia Sloan’s number on her last admission 010921. What number is assigned to Miss Sloan today as she is registered for outpatient care?

a. 010921
b. 010922
c. 201562
d. 201563

A

a. 010921

115
Q

The primary purpose of color coding the file system is to

a. flag deficiencies
b. guide files
c. indicate missing records
d. reduce misfiles

A

d. reduce misfiles

116
Q

How many secondary sections does each primary section have in terminal digit filing?

a. 50
b. 100
c. 1000
d. 10 000

A

b. 100

117
Q

Open shelf filing is preferred over file cabinets because

a. filing is more hazardous
b. it is more attractive
c. it is required by JCAHO
d. less floor space is required

A

d. less floor space is required

118
Q

Alfred State Medical Centre has a total of 20,000 records in their filing systems and plans to place a guide every 100 records. How many guides will they need?

a. 50
b. 100
c. 200
d. 400

A

c. 200

119
Q

Which system requires extra digits in front of (at the end of) the patient numbers to signify placement of the individual in the household

a. family numbering
b. pseudonumbering
c. social security numbering
d. unit numbering

A

a. family numbering

120
Q

What type of filing units are mounted on tracks

a. lateral
b. movable files
c. open shelf files
d. visible files

A

b. moveable files

121
Q

Which allows for ease in the expansion of a file folder

a. actvity legend
b. fasteners
c. color coded
d. scoring

A

d. scoring

122
Q

The review of a filing system to locate misfiles is called

a. auditing
b. colour coding
c. guiding
d. requistioning

A

a. auditing

123
Q

When a record is removed from the filing system, what is left in its place?

a. file guide
b. incomplete record
c. loose file
d. outguide

A

d. outguide

124
Q

When the length of time a record remains active has passed, the record is processed for

a. destruction
b. microfilm
c. retention
d. storage

A

a. destruction

125
Q

When using the straight numeric filing methodology, which would be filed first

a. 11320
b. 12465
c. 62374
d. 73912

A

a. 11320

126
Q

A formal or official recording of items, names or actions is called a

a. register
b. registry

A

a. register

127
Q

An organized system for the collection, storage, retrieval, analysis, and dissemination of information on individuals who have either a particular disease, a condition that predisposes to the occurrence of a health related event, or prior exposure to substances (or circumstances) known or suspected to cause adverse health effects is called a

a. register
b. registry

A

b. registry

128
Q

Soundex is a phonetic

a. filing system
b. numbering system

A

a. filing system

129
Q

Ideally, the master patient index (MPI) (CPI) is retained by the facility

a. according to state statute
b. as established by medical staff bylaws
c. in accordance with federal law
d. permanently

A

d. permanently

130
Q

The master patient index is filed

a. alphabetically
b. chronologically
c. numerically
d. reverse numerically

A

a. alphabetically

131
Q

Which is the key for locating patient’s records filed by numbers

a. admission/discharge register
b. discharge log
c. master patient index
d. patient registry

A

b. discharge log

132
Q

If more than one person with the same surname and first name has been admitted to hospital, the master patient index cards are being arranged by

a. date of birth
b. date of discharge
c. middle name
d. patient number

A

c. middle name

133
Q

The main advantage of phonetic filing of master patient index cards is

a. emphasis is placed on foreign language
b. keyboarding errors are eliminated
c. names that sound alike are filed together
d. spelling accuracy is insured

A

c. names that sound alike are filed together

134
Q

Which statement is true about filing master patient index cards

a. a married woman’s MPI card is filed under her husband’s first name
b. a surname particle, such as da in daVinci, is not considered when filing MPI index cards
c. Titles that precede an individual’s name, such as Doctor or Sister, are considered when filing MPI index cards
d. When the patient’s legal name has an initial first, such as T Berry Bracelton, the intitial is considered when filing and precedes all full first names

A

d. when the patient’s legal name has an initial first, such as T Berry Bracelton, the initial is considered when filing and preceds all full first names

135
Q

Before the case abstracting process can begin, a standard method for collecting and reporting individual data elements must be established so data can be easily compared. This is called a

a. data dictionary
b. data set

A

b. data set

136
Q

Which is an example of descriptive statistics

a. narrative report
b. run chart

A

b. run chart

137
Q

Data ______ is accurate, complete, consistent, up to date and the same no matter where the data is recorded

a. integrity
b. quality
c. reliability
d. validity

A

a. integrity

138
Q

A technique that uses software to search for patterns and trends and to produce data content relationships

a. analysis
b. collection
c. mining
d. warehousing

A

c. mining

139
Q

Limited two dimensional structures that do not allow for complete trend analysis are called

a. online analytical processing servers
b. relational databases

A

b. relational databases

140
Q

The date of a patient’s authorization to release information is generally acepted

a. according to established facility policy
b. at any time regardless of the date
c. as long as it contains an expiration date
d. in accordance with federal regulations

A

a. according to established facility policy

141
Q

Alcohol or drug abuse records may be released via

a. court order
b. subpoena duces tecum
c. tort
d. interrogatory

A

a. court order

142
Q

A subpoena duces tecum requires the

a. completion of a list of written questions by the party served
b. despondent to answer certain questions, obtained as a sworn statement
c. patient to produce his records in court and testify
d. witness to come to court with specified documents

A

d. witness to come to court with specified documents

143
Q

A patient demands to see his medical records. How would you proceed

a. advise him to request records through his attorney
b. advise the patient of the procedure for access of information
c. allow him to view the records immediately because HIPAA requires you to do so
d. tell him that he cannot view his records because the law does not allow it

A

b. advise the patient of the procedure for access of information

144
Q

Mildred is transferred from the Alfred State Medical Center to the Community Nursing Facility. Two weeks later, the charge nurse from the nursing facility calls the medical center to request a copy of the discharge summary. How would you proceed

a. contact the patient to obtain her autorization to release information
b. require patient authorization before sending the information
c. send the information
d. use the “call back method” to verify the request for information

A

c. send the information

145
Q

Documentation regarding release of information to outside agencies is usually kept in the

a. accession register
b. admission/discharge register
c. correspondence log
d. master patient index

A

c. correspondence log

146
Q

A court order is signed by the

a. attorney
b. court clerk
c. judge
d. patient

A

c. judge

147
Q

Rule of conduct passed by a legislative body that is enforced by the gvernment and results in penalities when violated is called a(n)

a. civil law
b. contract
c. statute
d. tort

A

c. statute

148
Q

Which deals with the legal rights and relationships of private individuals and includes torts and contracts?

a. civil law
b. criminal law
c. public law
d. statutory law

A

a. civil law

149
Q

Any wrongful act for which a civil suit can be brough is called a(n)

a. tort
b. contract
c. deposition
d. interrogatory

A

a. tort

150
Q

Which deals with relationships between individuals and government and includes criminal law and regulations

a. civil law
b. criminal law
c. public law
d. statutory law

A

c. public law

151
Q

Published rules that interpret laws are called

a. administrative laws
b. cases
c. depositions
d. regulatory terms

A

d. regulatory terms

152
Q

The individual who initiates a civil complaint and has the burden of proof is called the

a. administrator
b. attorney
c. defendant
d. plaintiff

A

d. plaintiff

153
Q

The individual against whom the complaint is brought is called the

a. attorney
b. claimant
c. defendant
d. plaintiff

A

c. defendant

154
Q

Which is the legal process lawyers use to obtain information about all aspects of a case

a. disposition
b. discovery
c. interrogatory
d. trial

A

b. discovery

155
Q

Which is a form of discovery that includes a list of written questions that must be answered by the party upon which it is served

a. disposition
b. discovery
c. interrogatory
d. trial

A

c. interrogatory

156
Q

Which is a form of discovery used to obtain a sworn statement from a witness

a. deposition
b. discovery
c. interrogatory
d. trial

A

a. deposition

157
Q

Which is based on judicial decisions and precedent rather than on statutes

a. administrative law
b. case law
c. civil law
d. public law

A

b. case law

158
Q

For HIV related information request from an insurance company an authorization is

a. required
b. not required

A

b. not required

159
Q

For public health activities, an authorization is

a. required
b. not required

A

b. not required

160
Q

For patient or patient representative requests for information, an authorization is

a. required
b. not required

A

a. required

161
Q

For health care providers who do not render care to the patient, an authorization is

a. required
b. not required

A

a. required

162
Q

A vocabulary of clinical and medical terms is called a

a. coding system
b. medical nomenclature

A

b. medical nomenclature

163
Q

Which organizes a medical nomenclature according to similar conditions, diseases, procedures, and services and establishes numeric and alphanumeric characters for each

a. classificiation system
b. medical nomenclature

A

a. classification system

164
Q

Which is used to report diagnoses

a. ABC
b. CPT
c. HCPCS
d. ICD

A

d. ICD

165
Q

A third party payer is an organization that

a. acts on behalf of insurance companies to process insurance claims
b. processes claims for remibursement covered by a health care plan

A

b. processes claims for reimbursement covered by a health care plan

166
Q

Health care facilities analyze their case mix to

a. determine whether a facility is serving caseloads that inlude disproportionate shares of patients with above-average (or below average) care needs
b. forecast health care trends unique to their individual settings, ensure that they continue to provide appropriate services to their patient populations, and recognize that different patients require different resources for care

A

b. forecast health care trends unique to their individual settings, ensure that they continue to provide appropriate services to their patient populations, and recognize that different patients require different resources for care

167
Q

Severity of illness is the physiologic complexity that comprises the extent and interactions of a patient’s disease as presented to medical presonnel. Severity of illness scores are based on

a. ICD codes
b. physiologic measures and ICD codes

A

b. physiologic measures and ICD codes