Chapter 9 - Pulm Flashcards

1
Q

Why are infants at higher risk for respiratory insufficiency than older patients?

A
  • smaller caliber airways
  • less compliant lungs and more compliant chest wall
  • less efficient pulmonary mechanics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What happens to pulmonary vascular resistance at birth?

A

the first breathes inflate the lungs and reduce pulmonary vascular resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is suggested by the following lung sounds:

  • inspiratory stridor
  • expiratory wheezing
  • crackles or rales
A
  • stridor: extrathoracic obstruction like croup or laryngomalacia
  • wheezing: intrathoracic obstruction like asthma or bronchiolitis
  • crackles or rales: parenchymal disease like pneumonia or pulmonary edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Laryngomalacia

A
  • a softening with weakness of the laryngeal cartilage that collapses into the airway, causing an extrathoracic obstruction
  • most severe in children 4-8mo
  • presents with inspiratory stridor worst in the supine position and improved when prone
  • diagnose with laryngoscopy to visualize the collapse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Epiglottitis

A
  • inflammation and edema of the epiglottis or arytenoids
  • usually caused by H. influenza, type b; other causes include group A strep, strep pneumo, and staph
  • most common in children 2-7 years old, presenting with abrupt, rapidly progressive upper airway obstruction without prodrome
  • associated symptoms include high fever, muffled speech and inspiratory stridor, dysphagia with drooling, and neck hyperextension
  • the feared complication is complete airway obstruction with respiratory arrest occurring suddenly
  • can typically visualize a cherry red, swollen epiglottis, labs show leukocytosis with left shift, and lateral radiograph of the neck shows a “thumbprint”
  • treat with immediate intubation; offer humidified oxygen and minimize stimulation/examination because this may trigger respiratory arrest
  • treat the underlying infection with 2nd or 3rd gen cephalosporin and an anti-Staph antibiotic; rifampin prophylaxis indicated for unimmunized household contacts younger than 4 y.o.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)

A
  • inflammation and edema of the subglottic larynx, trachea, and bronchi
  • viral is usually caused by parainfluenza virus and is seen in children 6mo to 3yo in the winter and fall; spasmodic is secondary to hypersensitivity reaction
  • viral begins with URI prodrome followed by inspiratory stridor, barky cough, and hoarse voice lasting 3-7 days; stridor worsens at night and with agitation, wheezing may occur, and AP radiograph demonstrates the “steeple sign” of subglottic narrowing
  • spasmodic has an acute onset of stridor, usually at night and typically resolving without treatment
  • mild disease (no stridor at rest) is treated with humidified air and corticosteroids; moderate to severe disease is treated with corticosteroids and nebulizer epinephrine, which vasoconstricts and reduces edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Bacterial Tracheitis

A
  • an acute inflammation of the trachea
  • most often caused by S. aureus, Streptococcus, or nontypeable H. influenza
  • presentation resembles croup with inspiratory stridor but the treatment for croup fails
  • treat with antistaphylococcal antibiotics and airway support
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How can supraglottic disorders be differentiated form subglottic disorders? Give examples of these disorders.

A
  • supraglottic may include epiglottitis or a retropharyngeal abscess whereas subglottic would include bacterial tracheitis or viral croup
  • supraglottic tend to have quiet stridor, no cough, muffled voice, dysphagia, high fever, and neck extension
  • subglottic tend to have loud stridor, a barky cough, hoarse voice, no dysphagia, a range of fevers, and normal posture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Bronchiolitis

A
  • a viral infection, usually RSV, that causes inflammatory bronchiolar obstruction
  • the most common lower resp. tract infection in the first two years of life with epidemics occurring in Nov-Apr
  • onset is gradual with upper respiratory symptoms including rhinorrhea, nasal congestion, fever, and cough
  • respiratory symptoms follow with tachypnea, rales, symmetric wheezing and pseudohepatosplenomegaly as hyperinflated lungs push the organs inferiorly; hypoxemia and apnea may occur
  • may appear like asthma but will not reverse with B-agonist
  • improvement should be noted within 2 weeks
  • management is primarily supportive with careful handwashing to prevent spread; ribavirin can be considered for very ill infants and palivizumab may be given prophylactically during RSV season to those with chronic lung disease
  • can admit if less than 3 months old or has saturations below 92
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Viral Pneumonia

A
  • an infection and inflammation of lung parenchyma
  • more commonly viral than bacterial, organisms include RSV, adenovirus, influenza A and B, and parainfluenza
  • likely to present with upper respiratory complaints followed by fever, cough, and dyspnea
  • diagnosis is supported by interstitial infiltrates on CXR and a white cell count less than 20K with lymphocytes predominated
  • treatment is supportive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bacterial Pneumonia

A
  • an infection and inflammation of the lung parenchyma
  • less common than viral etiologies
  • symptoms have a more rapid onset and greater severity, and the associated fever, cough, and dyspnea typically occur without a URI prodrome
  • diagnosis is supported by lobar consolidation on CXR and a white cell count more than 20K with neutrophils predominating
  • treatment is supportive with antibiotics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis Pneumonia

A
  • a common cause of afebrile pneumonia in those 1-3mo
  • symptoms include a staccato-type cough, dyspnea, and absence of fever
  • many have a history of conjunctivitis after birth and a diagnosis is supported by eosinophilia interstitial infiltrates on cxr
  • treat with oral erythromycin or azithromycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A
  • a common cause of pneumonia in older children and adolescents
  • symptoms include a low-grade fever, chills, nonproductive cough, headache, pharyngitis, and malaise
  • lung examination findings are often worse than expected based on the history
  • diagnosed according to positive cold agglutinins, cxr with bilateral diffuse infiltrates, and elevated IgM serum titers for mycoplasma
  • treated with erythromycin or azithromycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pertussis

A
  • an acute respiratory infection caused by Bordetella pertussis, which is highly contagious
  • infants younger than 6mo are most at risk for severe disease whereas adolescents and adults with waning immunity are the major source
  • the catarrhal stages lasts 1-2 weeks and is characterized by upper respiratory symptoms
  • the paroxysmal stage lasts 2-4 weeks with fits of forceful coughing, often with an inspiratory gasp/whoop heard at the end of the fit and possible post-tussive vomiting
  • the convalescent phase may last weeks to months with continued but declining paroxysmal cough
  • diagnosed based on culture or DFA, supported by lymphocytosis
  • treat with erythromycin for 14 days to prevent the spread but these do not alter the clinical course; isolation is need until antibiotics have been given for five days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of allergen-induced asthma.

A
  • an allergen induces Th2 differentiation in susceptible individuals
  • these T cells secrete IL-4, mediating IgE class switching, IL-5, attracting eosinophils, and IL-10, inhibiting a Th1 response
  • upon re-exposure, the allergen leads to IgE-mediated activation of mast cells
  • histamine and leukotrienes mediate the early phase of bronchoconstriction, inflammation, and edema
  • major basic protein damages cells and perpetuates bronchoconstriction in the late-phase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name two important microscopic findings that can help identify asthmatics.

A
  • Curschmann spirals (mucous plugs)

- Charcot-Leyden crystals (crystallized MBP)

17
Q

Asthma

A
  • chronic inflammation, variable airflow obstruction that is partially reversible, and airway hypersensitivity
  • pathophysiology includes smooth muscle bronchoconstriction, airway mucosal edema, increased secretions with mucous plugging, airway remodeling, and production of inflammatory mediators
  • exacerbations tend to present with tachypnea, dyspnea, nasal flaring, retractions, and wheezing with a prolonged expiratory phase
  • CXR often reveals hyperinflation and PFTs show increased lung volumes with decreased expiratory flow rates (decreased FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio)
  • can also diagnose with a greater than 20% decrease in FEV1 following methacholine challenge
  • typically begin treatment with a short-acting B2 agonist; add an inhaled corticosteroid then a LABA and then an oral steroid
  • cromolyn is a mast cell stabilizer that reduces the risk of attacks, anticholinergic agents are second line bronchodilators, montelukast is a leukotriene modifier, and theophyllines have declining use
  • if patients enter respiratory failure/decompensate, endotracheal intubation may be necessary
18
Q

Cystic Fibrosis

A
  • an autosomal recessive condition caused by a mutation of the CFTR gene on chromosome 7
  • CFTR is an ATP-gated Cl- channel that secretes Cl- into the lungs and Gi tract and reabsorbs chloride ions in the sweat glands
  • most common is a deletion of Phe508, which causes a misfiling of the protein, which is then retained in the RER and not transported to the cell membrane
  • as a result, there is a rise in intracellular chloride ions and a compensatory increase in sodium reabsorption, which increases water reabsorption; water reabsorption causes the lung and GI tract secretions to become very thick; change in sodium causes a more negative trans epithelial potential difference
  • abnormal secretions lead to a chronic productive cough, dyspnea, hyperinflation, digital clubbing, and progressive hypoxemia; eventually PFTs show decreased lung volumes
  • newborn screening looks for an increase in immunoreactive trypsinogen
  • diagnosed based on increase in chloride concentration on sweat test or based on fecal elastase; can also be seen as a contraction alkalosis and hypokalemia
  • complications include recurrent pulmonary infections (S. aureus in early infancy, P. aeruginosa in adolescence); nasal polyps; chronic bronchitis and bronchiectasis; pancreatic insufficiency with malabsorption, steatorrhea, FTT, and fat-solute vitamin deficiencies; biliary cirrhosis and liver disease; meconium ileus in newborns; infertility in men; and sub fertility in women
  • treatment involves chest physiotherapy, albuterol, aerosolized dornase alfa (a DNAse), N-acetylcysteine (a mucolytic which cleaves disulfide bonds) hypertonic saline for mucus clearance, azithromycin for prophylaxis, and pancreatic enzyme replacement
19
Q

Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia

A
  • defined as oxygen dependency beyond 28 days of life resulting from acute lung injury and the resulting cycle of repair
  • often, initial injury is due to barotrauma from mechanical ventilation, meconium aspiration, or infection; oxidants and proteases follow this injury, and lung tissue heals abnormally with an altered airway, parenchymal remodeling, tissue fibrosis, chronic airflow limitations, and diminished compliance
  • may experience diminished oxygenation, hypercarbia, intermittent respiratory distress, frequent respiration tract infections, pulmonary hypertension, or airway hyperreactivity
  • likely to also have greater caloric needs and delayed growth and development
  • treat with supplemental oxygen; bronchodilators, diuretics, anti-inflammatories, and fluid restriction to optimize pulm function; optimize caloric intact; and prevent infection
  • disease usually diminishes with time and growth though continued airway hyperreactivity is possible
20
Q

Foreign Body Aspiration

A
  • history of choking episode is present in most cases
  • laryngotracheal more dangerous than bronchial because it obstructs more airflow
  • laryngotracheal foreign bodies result in cough, hoarseness, and inspiratory stridor
  • bronchial foreign bodies present with asymmetric findings on auscultation, localized wheezing, persistent pneumonia, chronic cough, hemoptysis, and occasionally unilateral emphysema seen on cxr
  • esophageal foreign bodies may compress the trachea and produce respiratory signs as well
  • radiographs have limited utility depending on the foreign body, but consider inspiratory and expiratory films
  • manage with basic life support as natural cough is the most effective mechanism; bronchoscopy may be necessary
21
Q

What is periodic breathing?

A

a breathing pattern with three or more respiratory pauses lasting at least 3 seconds each with less than 20 seconds of normal respiration in between

22
Q

What is an “apparent life-threatening event”?

A

a respiratory event characterized by some combination of apnea, color change, change in muscle tone, choking, or gagging in which recovery occurs only after stimulation or resuscitation

23
Q

What are risk factors for SIDS?

A
  • peak age is 2-4mo
  • prone sleeping position
  • soft bedding, overbundling, and overheating
  • prematurity
  • being a twin of a sibling who died of SIDS
  • low birth weight
  • recent illness
  • lack of breastfeeding
  • maternal smoking, drug abuse, or infection
24
Q

Vascular Rings

A
  • an upper airway obstruction caused by an abnormal aorta putting pressure on the tracheobronchial tree and esophagus
  • presents as inspiratory stridor that improves with neck extension
25
Q

How do we define and treat the following types of asthma:

  • intermittent
  • mild persistent
  • moderate persistent
  • severe
A
  • intermittent: less than twice a week and fewer than 2 awakenings per month; treat with albuterol PRN
  • mild persistent: more than twice a week; treat with low-dose ICS
  • moderate persistent: treat with either an ICS and LABA or medium dose ICS
  • severe: high-dose ICS and LABA
26
Q

Name two low-dose ICS and their adverse effects.

A
  • beclomethasone and fluticasone

- may cause thrush or vocal cord irritation

27
Q

Name two LABAs.

A
  • Salmeterol

- Formoterol

28
Q

How do we know when an asthmatic requires intubation?

A

if patient stops hyperventilating and PCO2 becomes normal or elevated, it is indicative of decompensation and a need for intubation

29
Q

Congenital Cystic Adenomatoid Malformation

A
  • a large cystic lesion that can compress the lung, leading to pulmonary hypoplasia and a midline shift away from the lesion
  • realists from a disruption of embryogenesis before day 35, which causes improper development of bronchioles
30
Q

Kartagener’s Syndrome

A
  • a syndrome of bronchiectasis, male infertility or reduce female fertility, and recurrent sinusitis
  • due to a dynein arm defect, which leaves cilia immotile
  • associated with sinus inversus
31
Q

What is the general presentation of pneumonia?

A
  • cough productive of yellow-green sputum
  • low-grade fever
  • decreased breath sounds with crackles
  • increased white cell count
32
Q

Compare and contrast the features and causes of typical and atypical community acquired pneumonia.

A

Typical
- signs of consolidation with dullness to percussion, vocal remits, late crackles, and egophany
- usually caused by GBS, E. coli, or Listeria in neonates less than 1 month old, polysaccharide-encapsulated strep pneumo is the most common cause in those older than 1 month
Atypical
- has a slower onset, no consolidation because it’s interstitial, and milder symptoms
- can’t visualize the organism on gram stain or culture with standard agar
- C. trachomatis is most common in 1-3 month olds and presents with a staccato cough, Mycoplasma pneumoniae is common after age five, chlamydia pneumoniae is second most common cause in young adults, RSV is the most common cause in infants, and influenza is a potential cause in those who are immunocompromised or have pre-existing lung disease

33
Q

What are zanamivir and oseltamivir?

A

they are neuraminidase inhibitors which reduce release of influenza viral particles

34
Q

What is palivizumab?

A

an antibody against the fusion protein of RSV, used for post-exposure prevention

35
Q

What is ribavirin?

A

an inhibitor of guanine synthesis used to treat RSV

36
Q

What etiologic agent causes pneumonia with a staccato cough?

A

C. trachomatis

37
Q

What are the most common causes of typical and atypical pneumonia in children?

A
  • typical pneumonia in those < 1 mo: GBS, E. coli, Listeria
  • typical pneumonia in those > 1 mo: Strep pneumo, RSV is more common in those 4mo-5yo
  • atypical in infants: RSV is most common, chlamydia trachomatis is also common between 1 mo-3mo
  • atypical in kids > 5: mycoplasma pneumoniae most common but Chlamydia pneumoniae is second
  • atypical in immunocompromised and those with pre-existing lung disease: influenza
38
Q

How should community acquired pneumonia be treated?

A
  • if it’s uncomplicated, azithromycin or doxycycline will cover the most common typicals and atypicals
  • fluoroquinolones are used if there is comorbidity present
  • fluoroquinolone/ceftriaxone plus azithromycin is used in the hospital if hypoxic or hypotensive
39
Q

Hospital Acquired Pneumonia

A
  • the most common cause is S. aureus secondary to influenza, which may form abscess or empyema
  • in those with cystic fibrosis it is likely to be caused by a gram-negative rod and should be treated with ceftazidime, cefepime (a pseudomonas), imipenem, or piperacillin/tazobactam