Chapter 9 | Cerebrospinal Fluid Flashcards

1
Q

The functions of the CSF include all of the following except:

A

Producing an ultrafiltrate of plasma

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2
Q

The CSF flows through the:

A

Arachnoid space

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3
Q

Substances present in the CSF are controlled by the:

A

Blood–brain barrier

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4
Q

What department is the CSF tube labeled 3 routinely sent to?

A

Hematology

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5
Q

The CSF tube that should be kept at room temperature is:

A

Tube 2

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6
Q

Even distribution of blood in all tubes

A

Intracranial hemorrhage

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7
Q

Xanthochromic supernatant

A

Intracranial hemorrhage

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8
Q

Concentration of blood in tube 1 is greater than in tube 3

A

Traumatic tap

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9
Q

Specimen contains clots

A

Traumatic tap

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10
Q

The presence of xanthochromia can be caused by all of the following except:

A

A recent hemorrhage

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11
Q

A web-like pellicle in a refrigerated CSF specimen indicates:

A

Tubercular meningitis

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12
Q

Given the following information, calculate the CSF WBC count: cells counted, 80; dilution, 1:10; large Neubauer squares counted, 10.

A

800

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13
Q

A CSF WBC count is diluted with:

A

Acetic acid

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14
Q

A total CSF cell count on a clear fluid should be:

A

Counted undiluted

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15
Q

The purpose of adding albumin to CSF before cytocentrifugation is to:

A

D. Both A and B

Increase the cell yield
Decrease the cellular distortion

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16
Q

The primary concern when pleocytosis of neutrophils and lymphocytes is found in the CSF is:

A

Meningitis

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17
Q

Neutrophils with pyknotic nuclei may be mistaken for:

A

Nucleated RBCs

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18
Q

The presence of which of the following cells is increased in a parasitic infection?

A

Eosinophils

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19
Q

Macrophages appear in the CSF after:

A

D. All of the above

Hemorrhage
Repeated spinal taps
Diagnostic procedures

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20
Q

Nucleated RBCs are seen in the CSF as a result of:

A

Bone marrow contamination

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21
Q

After a CNS diagnostic procedure, which of the following might be seen in the CSF?

A

D. All of the above

Choroidal cells
Ependymal cells
Spindle-shaped cells

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22
Q

Hemosiderin granules and hematoidin crystals are seen in:

A

Macrophages

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23
Q

Myeloblasts are seen in the CSF:

A

As a complication of acute leukemia

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24
Q

Cells resembling large and small lymphocytes with cleaved nuclei represent:

A

Lymphoma cells

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25
Q

The reference range for CSF protein is:

A

15 to 45 g/dL

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26
Q

CSF can be differentiated from serum by the presence of:

A

Globulin

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27
Q

In serum, the second most prevalent protein is IgG; in CSF, the second most prevalent protein is:

A

Prealbumin

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28
Q

Elevated CSF protein values can be caused by all of the following except:

A

Fluid leakage

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29
Q

The integrity of the blood–brain barrier is measured using the:

A

CSF/serum albumin index

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30
Q

Given the following results, calculate the IgG index: CSF IgG, 50 mg/dL; serum IgG, 2 g/dL; CSF albumin, 70 mg/dL; serum albumin, 5 g/dL.

A

1.8

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31
Q

The CSF IgG index calculated in Study Question 27 indicates:

A

Synthesis of IgG in the CNS

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32
Q

The finding of oligoclonal bands in the CSF and not in the serum is seen with:

A

Multiple sclerosis

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33
Q

A CSF glucose of 15 mg/dL, WBC count of 5000, 90% neutrophils, and protein of 80 mg/dL suggests:

A

Bacterial meningitis

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34
Q

A patient with a blood glucose of 120 mg/dL would have a normal CSF glucose of:

A

60 mg/dL

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35
Q

CSF lactate will be more consistently decreased in:

A

Bacterial meningitis

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36
Q

Measurement of which of the following can be replaced by CSF glutamine analysis in children with Reye syndrome?

A

Ammonia

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37
Q

Before performing a Gram stain on CSF, the specimen must be:

A

Centrifuged

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38
Q

All of the following statements are true about cryptococcal meningitis except:

A

The WBC count is over 2000

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39
Q

The test of choice to detect neurosyphilis is the:

A

FTA-ABS

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40
Q

Maturation of spermatozoa takes place in the:

A

Epididymis

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41
Q

Enzymes for the coagulation and liquefaction of semen are produced by the:

A

Prostate gland

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42
Q

The major component of seminal fluid is:

A

Fructose

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43
Q

If the first portion of a semen specimen is not collected, the semen analysis will have which of the following?

A

Decreased sperm count

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44
Q

Failure of laboratory personnel to document the time a semen sample is collected primarily affects the interpretation of semen:

A

Viscosity

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45
Q

Liquefaction of a semen specimen should take place within:

A

1 hour

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46
Q

A semen specimen delivered to the laboratory in a condom has a normal sperm count and markedly decreased sperm motility. This indicates:

A

Antispermicide in the condom

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47
Q

An increased semen pH may be caused by:

A

D. All of the above

Prostatic infection
Decreased prostatic secretions
Decreased bulbourethral gland secretions

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48
Q

Proteolytic enzymes may be added to semen specimens to:

A

Decrease the viscosity

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49
Q

The normal sperm concentration is:

A

More than 20 million/mL

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50
Q

Given the following information, calculate the sperm concentration: dilution, 1:20; sperm counted in five RBC squares on each side of the hemocytometer, 80 and 86; volume, 3 mL.

A

83 million/mL

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51
Q

Using the above information, calculate the sperm concentration when 80 sperm are counted in 1 WBC square and 86 sperm are counted in another WBC square.

A

16.6 million/mL

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52
Q

The primary reason to dilute a semen specimen before performing a sperm concentration is to:

A

Immobilize the sperm

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53
Q

When performing a sperm concentration, 60 sperm are counted in the RBC squares on one side of the hemocytometer and 90 sperm are counted in the RBC squares on the other side. The specimen is diluted 1:20. The:

A

Specimen should be rediluted and counted

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54
Q

Sperm motility evaluations are performed:

A

Within 1 hour of collection

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55
Q

The percentage of sperm showing average motility that is considered normal is:

A

50%

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56
Q

The purpose of the acrosomal cap is to:

A

Penetrate the ovum

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57
Q

The sperm part containing a mitochondrial sheath is the:

A

Midpiece

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58
Q

All of the following are associated with sperm motility except the:

A

Head

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59
Q

The morphologic shape of a normal sperm head is:

A

Oval

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60
Q

Normal sperm morphology when using the WHO criteria is:

A

> 30% normal forms

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61
Q

Additional parameters measured by Kruger’s strict morphology include all of the following except:

A

Vitality

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62
Q

Round cells that are of concern and may be included in sperm counts and morphology analysis are:

A

D. Both A and B

Leukocytes
Spermatids

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63
Q

If 5 round cells per 100 sperm are counted in a sperm morphology smear and the sperm concentration is 30 million, the concentration of round cells is:

A

1.5 million

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64
Q

Following an abnormal sperm motility test with a normal sperm count, what additional test might be ordered?

A

Eosin-nigrosin stain

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65
Q

Follow-up testing for a low sperm concentration would include testing for:

A

Seminal fluid fructose

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66
Q

The immunobead test for antisperm antibodies:

A

D. All of the above

Detects the presence of male antibodies
Determines the presence of IgG, IgM, and IgA antibodies
Determines the location of antisperm antibodies

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67
Q

Measurement of -glucosidase is performed to detect a disorder of the:

A

Epididymis

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68
Q

A specimen delivered to the laboratory with a request for prostatic acid phosphatase and glycoprotein p30 was collected to determine:

A

A possible rape

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69
Q

Following a negative postvasectomy wet preparation, the specimen should be:

A

Centrifuged and reexamined

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70
Q

Standardization of procedures and reference values for semen analysis is primarily provided by the:

A

WHO

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71
Q

The functions of synovial fluid include all of the following except:

A

Removal of cartilage debris

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72
Q

The primary function of synoviocytes is to:

A

Provide nutrients for the joints

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73
Q

Which of the following is not a frequently performed test on synovial fluid?

A

Uric acid

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74
Q

The procedure for collecting synovial fluid is called:

A

Arthrocentesis

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75
Q

Match the following disorders with their appropriate group:
____ Gout
____ Neisseria gonorrhoeaeinfection
____ Systemic lupus erythematosus
____ Osteoarthritis
____ Hemophilia
____ Rheumatoid arthritis
____ Heparin overdose

A

Noninflammatory
____ Osteoarthritis

Inflammatory
____ Gout
____ Systemic lupus erythematosus
____ Rheumatoid arthritis

Septic
____ Neisseria gonorrhoeaeinfection

Hemorrhagic
____ Hemophilia
____ Heparin overdose

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76
Q

Normal synovial fluid resembles:

A

Egg white

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77
Q

Before testing, very viscous synovial fluid should be treated with:

A

Hyaluronidase

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78
Q

Addition of a cloudy, yellow synovial fluid to acetic acid produces a/an:

A

Easily dispersed clot

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79
Q

Which of the following could be the most significantly affected if a synovial fluid is refrigerated before testing?

A

Crystal examination

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80
Q

The highest WBC count can be expected to be seen with:

A

Septic arthritis

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81
Q

When diluting a synovial fluid WBC count, all of the following are acceptable except:

A

Acetic acid

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82
Q

The lowest percentage of neutrophils would be seen in:

A

Noninflammatory arthritis

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83
Q

All of the following are abnormal when seen in synovial fluid except:

A

Synovial lining cells

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84
Q

Synovial fluid crystals that occur as a result of purine metabolism or chemotherapy for leukemia are:

A

Monosodium urate

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85
Q

Synovial fluid crystals associated with inflammation in dialysis patients are:

A

Calcium oxalate

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86
Q

Crystals associated with pseudogout are:

A

Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate

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87
Q

Synovial fluid for crystal examination should be examined as a/an:

A

Wet preparation

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88
Q

Crystals that have the ability to polarize light are:

A

D. All of the above

Corticosteroid
Monosodium urate
Calcium oxalate

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89
Q

In an examination of synovial fluid under compensated polarized light, rhomboid-shaped crystals are observed. What color would these crystals be when aligned parallel to the slow vibration?

A

Yellow

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90
Q

If crystals shaped like needles are aligned perpendicular to the slow vibration of compensated polarized light, what color are they?

A

Negative

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91
Q

Negative birefringence occurs under red-compensated polarized light when:

A

Fast light runs against the molecular grain of the crystal

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92
Q

Synovial fluid cultures are often plated on chocolate agar to detect the presence of:

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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93
Q

The most frequently performed chemical test on synovial fluid is:

A

Calcium

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94
Q

Which of the following chemistry tests can be performed on synovial fluid to determine the severity of RA?

A

Lactate

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95
Q

Serologic tests on patients’ serum may be performed to detect antibodies causing arthritis for all of the following disorders except:

A

Pseudogout

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96
Q

The primary purpose of serous fluid is to:

A

Lubricate serous membranes

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97
Q

The membrane that lines the wall of a cavity is the:

A

Parietal

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98
Q

During normal production of serous fluid, the slight excess of fluid is:

A

Absorbed by the lymphatic system

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99
Q

Production of serous fluid is controlled by:

A

D. All of the above

Capillary oncotic pressure
Capillary hydrostatic pressure
Capillary permeability

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100
Q

An increase in the amount of serous fluid is called a/an:

A

Effusion

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101
Q

Pleural fluid is collected by:

A

Thoracentesis

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102
Q

A. Transudate
B. Exudate
____ Caused by increased hydrostatic pressure
____ Caused by increased capillary permeability
____ Caused by decreased oncotic pressure
____ Caused by congestive heart failure
____ Malignancy related
____ Tuberculosis related
____ Endocarditis related
____ Clear appearance

A

A. Transudate
____ Caused by increased hydrostatic pressure
____ Malignancy related
____ Tuberculosis related

B. Exudate
____ Caused by increased capillary permeability
____ Caused by decreased oncotic pressure
____ Caused by congestive heart failure
____ Endocarditis related
____ Clear appearance

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103
Q

Fluid:serum protein and lactic dehydrogenase ratios are performed on serous fluids:

A

To classify transudates and exudates

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104
Q

Which of the following requires the most additional testing?

A

Exudate

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105
Q

An additional test performed on pleural fluid to classify the fluid as a transudate or exudate is the:

A

Fluid:cholesterol ratio

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106
Q

A milky-appearing pleural fluid indicates:

A

D. Both A and B

Thoracic duct leakage
Chronic inflammation

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107
Q

Which of the following best represents a hemothorax?

A

Blood HCT: 30 Fluid HCT: 20

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108
Q

All of the following are normal cells seen in pleural fluid except:

A

Mesothelioma cells

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109
Q

A differential observation of pleural fluid associated with tuberculosis is:

A

Decreased mesothelial cells

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110
Q

All of the following are characteristics of malignant cells except:

A

Absence of nucleoli

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111
Q

A pleural fluid pH of 6.0 indicates:

A

Esophageal rupture

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112
Q

Plasma cells seen in pleural fluid indicate:

A

Tuberculosis infection

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113
Q

A significant cell found in pericardial or pleural fluid that should be referred to cytology is a:

A

Mesothelioma cell

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114
Q

Another name for a peritoneal effusion is:

A

Ascites

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115
Q

A test performed primarily on peritoneal lavage fluid is a/an:

A

RBC count

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116
Q

The recommended test for determining whether peritoneal fluid is a transudate or an exudate is the:

A

Serum ascites albumin gradient

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117
Q

Given the following results, classify this peritoneal fluid: serum albumin, 2.2 g/dL; serum protein, 6.0 g/dL; fluid albumin, 1.6 g/dL.

A

Exudate

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118
Q

Differentiation between bacterial peritonitis and cirrhosis is done by performing a/an:

A

Absolute neutrophil count

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119
Q

Detection of the CA 125 tumor marker in peritoneal fluid indicates:

A

Ovarian cancer

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120
Q

Chemical tests primarily performed on peritoneal fluid include all of the following except:

A

Amylase

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121
Q

Cultures of peritoneal fluid are incubated:

A

D. Both A and B

Aerobically
Anaerobically

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122
Q

Which of the following is not a function of amniotic fluid?

A

Allows carbon dioxide and oxygen exchange

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123
Q

What is the primary cause of the normal increase in amniotic fluid as a pregnancy progresses?

A

Fetal urine

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124
Q

Which of the following is not a reason for decreased amounts of amniotic fluid?

A

Fetal failure to begin swallowing

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125
Q

Why might a creatinine level be requested on an amniotic fluid?

A

Differentiate amniotic fluid from maternal urine

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126
Q

Amniotic fluid specimens are placed in amber-colored tubes prior to sending them to the laboratory to prevent the destruction of:

A

Bilirubin

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127
Q

How are specimens for FLM testing delivered to and stored in the laboratory?

A

Delivered on ice and refrigerated

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128
Q

Why are amniotic specimens for cytogenetic analysis incubated at 37°C prior to analysis?

A

To prolong fetal cell viability and integrity

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129
Q

Fetal death

A

Red-brown

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130
Q

Normal

A

Colorless

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131
Q

Presence of bilirubin

A

Yellow

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132
Q

Presence of meconium

A

Dark green

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133
Q

A significant rise in the OD of amniotic fluid at 450 nm indicates the presence of which analyte?

A

Bilirubin

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134
Q

Plotting the amniotic fluid OD on a Liley graph represents the severity of hemolytic disease of the newborn. A value that is plotted in zone II indicates what condition of the fetus?

A

Moderately affected fetus that requires close monitoring

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135
Q

The presence of a fetal neural tube disorder may be detected by:

A

Increased maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein

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136
Q

True or False: An AFP MoM value greater than two times the median value is considered an indication of a neural tube disorder.

A

T

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137
Q

When severe HDN is present, which of the following tests on the amniotic fluid would the physician not order to determine whether the fetal lungs are mature enough to withstand a premature delivery?

A

AFP levels

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138
Q

When performing an L/S ratio by thin-layer chromatography, a mature fetal lung will show:

A

Lecithin twice as concentrated as sphingomyelin

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139
Q

True or False: Phosphatidyl glycerol is present with an L/S ratio of 1.1.

A

T

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140
Q

A rapid immunologic test for FLM that does not require performance of thin-layer chromatography is:

A

Aminostat-FLM

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141
Q

Does the failure to produce bubbles in the Foam Stability Index indicate increased or decreased lecithin?

A

Decreased

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142
Q

The presence of phosphatidyl glycerol in amniotic fluid fetal lung maturity tests must be confirmed when:

A

The mother has maternal diabetes

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143
Q

A lamellar body count of 50,000 correlates with:

A

OD at 650 nm of 0.150 and an L/S ratio of 2.0

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144
Q

In what part of the digestive tract do pancreatic enzymes and bile salts contribute to digestion?

A

.Small intestine

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145
Q

Where does the reabsorption of water take place in the primary digestive process?

A

Large intestine

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146
Q

Which of the following tests is notperformed to detect osmotic diarrhea?

A

Fecal neutrophils

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147
Q

The normal composition of feces includes all of the following except:

A

Blood

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148
Q

What is the fecal test that requires a 3-day specimen? A.Fecal occult blood

A

Quantitative fecal fat testing

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149
Q

The normal brown color of the feces is produced by:

A

Urobilin

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150
Q

Diarrhea can result from all of the following except:

A

Increased reabsorption of intestinal water and electrolytes

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151
Q

Stools from persons with steatorrhea will contain excess amounts of:

A

Fat

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152
Q

Which of the following pairings of stool appearance and cause does notmatch?

A

Yellow-green: barium sulfate

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153
Q

Stool specimens that appear ribbon-like are indicative of which condition?

A

Intestinal constriction

154
Q

A black tarry stool is indicative of:

A

Upper GI bleeding

155
Q

Chemical screening tests performed on feces include all of the following except:

A

Pilocarpine iontophoresis

156
Q

Secretory diarrhea is caused by:

A

Vibrio cholerae

157
Q

The fecal osmotic gap is elevated in which disorder?

A

Osmotic diarrhea

158
Q

Microscopic examination of stools provides preliminary information as to the cause of diarrhea because:

A

Neutrophils are present in conditions that affect the intestinal wall

159
Q

True or False: The presence of fecal neutrophils would be expected with diarrhea caused by a rotavirus.

A

F

160
Q

Large orange-red droplets seen on direct microscopic examination of stools mixed with Sudan III represent:

A

Neutral fats

161
Q

Microscopic examination of stools mixed with Sudan III and glacial acetic acid and then heated will show small orange-red droplets that represent:

A

Fatty acids, soaps, and neutral fats

162
Q

When performing a microscopic stool examination for muscle fibers, the structures that should be counted:

A

Have two-dimensional striations

163
Q

A value of 85% fat retention would indicate:

A

Steatorrhea

164
Q

Which of the following tests would not be indicative of steatorrhea?

A

Fecal occult blood

165
Q

The term “occult” blood describes blood that:

A

Is not visibly apparent in the stool specimen

166
Q

What is the recommended number of samples that should be tested to confirm a negative occult blood result?

A

Two samples taken from different parts of three stools

167
Q

The immunochemical tests for occult blood:

A

Test for human globulin

168
Q

Guaiac tests for detecting occult blood rely on the:

A

Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin

169
Q

What is the significance of an APT test that remains pink after addition of sodium hydroxide?

A

Fetal hemoglobin is present.

170
Q

In the Van de Kamer method for quantitative fecal fat determinations, fecal lipids are:

A

Converted to fatty acids prior to titrating with sodium hydroxide

171
Q

A patient whose stool exhibits increased fats, undigested muscle fibers, and the inability to digest gelatin may have:

A

Cystic fibrosis

172
Q

A stool specimen collected from an infant with diarrhea has a pH of 5.0. This result correlates with a:

A

Positive Clinitest

173
Q

Which of the following tests differentiates a malabsorption cause from a maldigestion cause in steatorrhea?

A

D-xylose test

174
Q

All states require newborn screening for PKU for early:

A

Modifications of diet

175
Q

All of the following disorders can be detected by newborn screening except:

A

Melanuria

176
Q

The best specimen for early newborn screening is a:

A

Blood specimen

177
Q

Abnormal urine screening tests categorized as an overflow disorder include all of the following except:

A

Melanuria

178
Q

Which of the following disorders is not associated with the phenylalanine-tyrosine pathway?

A

MSUD

179
Q

The least serious form of tyrosylemia is:

A

Immature liver function

180
Q

An overflow disorder of the phenylalanine-tyrosine pathway that would produce a positive reaction with the reagent strip test for ketones is:

A

MSUD

181
Q

An overflow disorder that could produce a false-positive reaction with Clinitest procedure is:

A

Alkaptonuria

182
Q

A urine that turns black after sitting by the sink for several hours could be indicative of:

A

A. Alkaptonuria
C. Melanuria

183
Q

Ketonuria in a newborn is an indication of:

A

A. MSUD B. Isovaleric acidemia C. Methylmalonic acidemia

184
Q

Urine from a newborn with MSUD will have a significant:

A

Sweet odor

185
Q

Hartnup disease is a disorder associated with the metabolism of:

A

Tryptophan

186
Q

. 5-HIAA is a degradation product of:

A

Serotonin

187
Q

Elevated urinary levels of 5-HIAA are associated with:

A

Carcinoid tumors

188
Q

False-positive levels of 5-HIAA can be caused by a diet high in:

A

Bananas

189
Q

IEM

A

Cystinosis

190
Q

Inherited disorder of tubular reabsorption

A

Cystinuria

191
Q

Fanconi syndrome

A

Cystinosis

192
Q

Cystine deposits in the cornea

A

Cystinosis

193
Q

Early renal calculi formation

A

Cystinuria

194
Q

Blue diaper syndrome is associated with:

A

Hartnup disease

195
Q

Homocystinuria is caused by failure to metabolize:

A

Methionine

196
Q

The Ehrlich reaction will only detect the presence of:

A

Porphobilinogen

197
Q

Acetyl acetone is added to the urine before performing the Ehrlich test when checking for:

A

Porphobilinogen

198
Q

The classic urine color associated with porphyria is:

A

Port wine

199
Q

Which of the following specimens can be used for porphyrin testing?

A

A. Urine B. Blood C. Feces

200
Q

The two stages of heme formation affected by lead poisoning are:

A

Aminolevulinic acid and protoporphyrin

201
Q

Hurler, Hunter, and Sanfilippo syndromes are hereditary disorders affecting metabolism of:

A

Mucopolysaccharides

202
Q

Many uric acid crystals in a pediatric urine specimen may indicate:

A

Lesch-Nyhan disease

203
Q

Deficiency of the GALT enzyme will produce a:

A

A. Positive Clinitest
C. Galactosemia

204
Q

PKU

A

Mousy odor

205
Q

Indicanuria

A

Blue color

206
Q

Cystinuria

A

Sulfur odor

207
Q

Alkaptonuria

A

Black color

208
Q

Lesch-Nyhan disease

A

Orange sand in diaper

209
Q

Isovaleric acidemia

A

Sweaty feet odor

210
Q

Most glomerular disorders are caused by:

A

Immunologic disorders

211
Q

Dysmorphic RBC casts would be a significant finding with all of the following except:

A

Chronic pyelonephritis

212
Q

Occasional episodes of macroscopic hematuria over periods of 20 or more years are seen with:

A

IgA nephropathy

213
Q

Antiglomerular basement membrane antibody is seen with:

A

Goodpasture syndrome

214
Q

Antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody is diagnostic for:

A

Wegener granulomatosis

215
Q

Respiratory and renal symptoms are associated with all of the following except:

A

Goodpasture syndrome

216
Q

The presence of fatty casts is associated with all of the following except:

A

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

217
Q

The highest levels of proteinuria are seen with:

A

Nephrotic syndrome

218
Q

Ischemia frequently produces

A

Acute renal tubular necrosis

219
Q

A disorder associated with polyuria and low specific gravity is:

A

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

220
Q

An inherited disorder producing a generalized defect in tubular reabsorption is:

A

Fanconi syndrome

221
Q

A teenage boy who develops gout in his big toe and has a high serum uric acid should be monitored for:

A

Uromodulin-associated kidney disease

222
Q

The only protein produced by the kidney is:

A

Uromodulin

223
Q

The presence of renal tubular epithelial cells and casts is an indication of:

A

Acute tubular necrosis

224
Q

Differentiation between cystitis and pyelonephritis is aided by the presence of:

A

WBC casts

225
Q

The presence of WBCs and WBC casts with no bacteria is indicative of:

A

Acute interstitial nephritis

226
Q

End-stage renal disease is characterized by all of the following except:

A

Hypersthenuria

227
Q

Prerenal acute renal failure could be caused by:

A

Massive hemorrhage

228
Q

The most common composition of renal calculi is:

A

Calcium oxalate

229
Q

Urinalysis on a patient with severe back pain being evaluated for renal calculi would be most beneficial if it showed:

A

Microscopic hematuria

230
Q

Macroscopic screening of urine specimens is used to:

A

Provide results as soon as possible

231
Q

Variations in the microscopic analysis of urine include all of the following except:

A

Identification of formed elements

232
Q

All of the following can cause false-negative microscopic results except:

A

Dilute alkaline urine

233
Q

The two factors that determine relative centrifugal force are:

A

Diameter of rotor head and rpm

234
Q

When using the glass slide and cover-slip method, which of the following might be missed if the cover slip is overflowed?

A

Casts

235
Q

Initial screening of the urine sediment is performed using an objective power of:

A

10×

236
Q

Which of the following should be used to reduce light intensity in bright-field microscopy?

A

Rheostat

237
Q

Which of the following are reported as number per lpf?

A

Casts

238
Q

The Sternheimer-Malbin stain is added to urine sediments to do all of the following except:

A

Decrease precipitation of crystals

239
Q

Nuclear detail can be enhanced by:

A

B. Toluidine blue C. Acetic acid

240
Q

Which of the following lipids is/are stained by Sudan III?

A

B. Neutral fats C. Triglycerides

241
Q

Which of the following lipids is/are capable of polarizing light?

A

Cholesterol

242
Q

The purpose of the Hansel stain is to identify:

A

Eosinophils

243
Q

Crenated RBCs are seen in urine that is:

A

Hypersthenuric

244
Q

Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following except:

A

Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid

245
Q

A finding of dysmorphic RBCs is indicative of:

A

Glomerular bleeding

246
Q

Leukocytes that stain pale blue with Sternheimer-Malbin stain and exhibit brownian movement are:

A

Glitter cells

247
Q

Mononuclear leukocytes are sometimes mistaken for:

A

Renal tubular cells

248
Q

When pyuria is detected in a urine sediment, the slide should be carefully checked for the presence of:

A

Bacteria

249
Q

Transitional epithelial cells are sloughed from the:

A

Bladder

250
Q

The largest cells in the urine sediment are:

A

Squamous epithelial cells

251
Q

A clinically significant squamous epithelial cell is the:

A

Clue cell

252
Q

Forms of transitional epithelial cells include all of the following except:

A

Convoluted

253
Q

Increased transitional cells are indicative of:

A

A. Catheterization B. Malignancy

254
Q

A primary characteristic used to identify renal tubular epithelial cells is:

A

Eccentrically located nucleus

255
Q

Following an episode of hemoglobinuria, RTE cells may contain:

A

Hemosiderin granules

256
Q

The predecessor of the oval fat body is the:

A

Renal tubular cell

257
Q

A structure believed to be an oval fat body produced a Maltese cross formation under polarized light but does not stain with Sudan III. The structure:

A

Contains cholesterol

258
Q

The finding of yeast cells in the urine is commonly associated with:

A

Diabetes mellitus

259
Q

The primary component of urinary mucus is:

A

Uromodulin

260
Q

The majority of casts are formed in the:

A

Distal convoluted tubules

261
Q

Cylindruria refers to the presence of:

A

All types of casts

262
Q

A person submitting a urine specimen following a strenuous exercise routine can normally have all of the following in the sediment except:

A

WBC casts

263
Q

Prior to identifying an RBC cast, all of the following should be observed except:

A

Intact RBCs in the cast

264
Q

WBC casts are primarily associated with:

A

Pyelonephritis

265
Q

The shape of the RTE cell associated with renal tubular epithelial casts is primarily:

A

Round

266
Q

When observing RTE casts, the cells are primarily:

A

Embedded in a clear matrix

267
Q

The presence of fatty casts is associated with:

A

A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Crush injuries C. Diabetes mellitus

268
Q

Nonpathogenic granular casts contain:

A

Cellular lysosomes

269
Q

All of the following are true about waxy casts except they:

A

Require staining to be visualized

270
Q

Observation of broad casts represents:

A

A. Destruction of tubular walls
C. Formation in the collecting ducts

271
Q

All of the following contribute to urinary crystals formation except:

A

Protein concentration

272
Q

The most valuable initial aid for identifying crystals in a urine specimen is:

A

pH

273
Q

Crystals associated with severe liver disease include all of the following except:

A

Cystine

274
Q

All of the following crystals routinely polarize except:

A

Cystine

275
Q

Casts and fibers can usually be differentiated using:

A

Polarized light

276
Q

Envelopes

A

Calcium oxalate dihydrate

277
Q

Yellow-brown, whetstone

A

Uric acid

278
Q

Pink sediment

A

Amorphous urates

279
Q

Ovoid

A

Calcium oxalate monohydrate

280
Q

Thin prisms

A

Calcium phosphate

281
Q

“Coffin lids”

A

Triple phosphate

282
Q

Dumbbell shape

A

Calcium carbonate

283
Q

White precipitate

A

Amorphous phosphate

284
Q

Thorny apple

A

Ammonium biurate

285
Q

Bundles following refrigeration

A

Ampicillin

286
Q

Bright yellow clumps

A

Bilirubin

287
Q

Hexagonal plates

A

Cystine

288
Q

Flat plates, high specific gravity

A

Radiographic dye

289
Q

Concentric circles, radial striations

A

Leucine

290
Q

Notched corners

A

Cholesterol

291
Q

Fine needles seen in liver disease

A

Tyrosine

292
Q

Indirect light is reflected off the object

A

Dark-field

293
Q

Objects split light into two beams

A

Polarized

294
Q

Low refractive index objects may be overlooked

A

Bright-field

295
Q

Three-dimensional images

A

Interference contrast

296
Q

Forms halo of light around object

A

Phase

297
Q

The concentration of a normal urine specimen can be estimated by which of the following?

A

Color

298
Q

The normal yellow color of urine is produced by:

A

Urochrome

299
Q

The presence of bilirubin in a urine specimen produces a:

A

Yellow foam when shaken

300
Q

A urine specimen containing melanin will appear:

A

Black

301
Q

Specimens that contain hemoglobin can be visually distinguished from those that contain RBCs because:

A

Hemoglobin produces a clear, yellow specimen

302
Q

A patient with a viscous orange specimen may have been:

A

Treated for a urinary tract infection

303
Q

The presence of a pink precipitate in a refrigerated specimen is caused by:

A

Uroerythrin

304
Q

Microscopic examination of a clear urine that produces a white precipitate after refrigeration will show:

A

Amorphous phosphates

305
Q

The color of urine containing porphyrins will be:

A

Port wine

306
Q

Which of the following specific gravities would be most likely to correlate with a pale yellow urine?

A

1.005

307
Q

A urine specific gravity measured by refractometer is 1.029, and the temperature of the urine is 14°C. The specific gravity should be reported as:

A

1.029

308
Q

The principle of refractive index is to compare:

A

Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions

309
Q

A correlation exists between a specific gravity by refractometer of 1.050 and a:

A

Radiographic dye infusion

310
Q

A cloudy urine specimen turns black upon standing and has a specific gravity of 1.012. The major concern about this specimen would be:

A

Color

311
Q

A specimen with a specific gravity of 1.035 would be considered:

A

Hypersthenuric

312
Q

A specimen with a specific gravity of 1.001 would be considered:

A

Not urine

313
Q

A strong odor of ammonia in a urine specimen could indicate:

A

An old specimen

314
Q

The microscopic of a clear red urine is reported as many WBCs and epithelial cells. What does this suggest?

A

Possible mix-up of specimen and sediment

315
Q

Which of the following would contribute the most to a urine osmolality?

A

One osmole of sodium chloride

316
Q

Which of the following colligative properties is not stated correctly?

A

The freezing point is raised by solute

317
Q

An osmole contains:

A

One gram molecular weight of solute dissolved in one kilogram of solvent

318
Q

The unit of osmolality measured in the clinical laboratory is the:

A

Osmole

319
Q

In the reagent strip specific gravity reaction the polyelectrolyte:

A

Releases hydrogen ions in response to ion concentration

320
Q

Which of the following will react in the reagent strip specific gravity test?

A

Chloride

321
Q

Leaving excess urine on the reagent strip after removing it from the specimen will:

A

Cause run-over between reagent pads

322
Q

Failure to mix a specimen before inserting the reagent strip will primarily affect the:

A

B.Blood reading C.Leukocyte reading

323
Q

Testing a refrigerated specimen that has not warmed to room temperature will adversely affect:

A

Enzymatic reactions

324
Q

The reagent strip reaction that requires the longest reaction time is the:

A

Leukocyte esterase

325
Q

Quality control of reagent strips is performed:

A

A. Using positive and negative controls B. When results are questionable C. At least once every 24 hours

326
Q

All of the following are important to protect the integrity of reagent strips except:

A

Removing the desiccant from the bottle

327
Q

The principle of the reagent strip test for pH is the:

A

Double indicator reaction

328
Q

A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0:

A

Should be recollected

329
Q

In the laboratory, a primary consideration associated with pH is:

A

A. Identifying urinary crystals
C. Determining specimen acceptability

330
Q

Microalbuminuria

A

renal

331
Q

Acute phase reactants

A

prerenal

332
Q

Pre-eclampsia

A

renal

333
Q

Vaginal inflammation

A

postrenal

334
Q

Multiple myeloma

A

prerenal

335
Q

Orthostatic proteinuria

A

renal

336
Q

Prostatitis

A

postrenal

337
Q

The principle of the protein error of indicators reaction is that:

A

Albumin accepts hydrogen ions from the indicator

338
Q

All of the following will cause false-positive protein reagent strip values except:

A

Microalbuminuria

339
Q

A patient with a 2+ protein reading in the afternoon is asked to submit a first morning specimen. The second specimen has a negative protein reading. This patient is:

A

Positive for orthostatic proteinuria

340
Q

Testing for microalbuminuria is valuable for early detection of kidney disease and monitoring patients with:

A

A. Hypertension B. Diabetes mellitus C. Cardiovascular disease risk

341
Q

The primary chemical on the reagent strip in the MicralTest for microalbumin binds to:

A

Antihuman albumin antibody

342
Q

All of the following are true for the ImmunoDip test for microalbumin except:

A

Unbound antibody migrates farther than bound antibody

343
Q

The principle of the protein-high pad on the Multistix Pro reagent strip is the:

A

Protein error of indicators

344
Q

Which of the following is not tested on the Multistix Pro reagent strip?

A

Urobilinogen

345
Q

The principle of the protein-low reagent pad on the Multistix Pro is the:

A

Binding of albumin to sulphonphthalein dye

346
Q

The principle of the creatinine reagent pad on microalbumin reagent strips is the:

A

Diazo reaction

347
Q

The purpose of performing an albumin:creatinine ratio is to:

A

Estimate the glomerular filtration rate

348
Q

A patient with a normal blood glucose and a positive urine glucose should be further checked for:

A

Renal disease

349
Q

The principle of the reagent strip tests for glucose is the:

A

Double sequential enzyme reaction

350
Q

All of the following may produce false-negative glucose reactions except:

A

Detergent contamination

351
Q

The primary reason for performing a Clinitest is to:

A

Check for newborn galactosuria

352
Q

The three intermediate products of fat metabolism include all of the following except:

A

Ketoacetic acid

353
Q

The most significant reagent strip test that is associated with a positive ketone result is:

A

Glucose

354
Q

The primary reagent in the reagent strip test for ketones is:

A

Sodium nitroprusside

355
Q

Ketonuria may be caused by all of the following except:

A

Bacterial infections

356
Q

Urinalysis on a patient with severe back and abdominal pain is frequently performed to check for:

A

Hematuria

357
Q

Associated with transfusion reactions

A

Hemoglobinuria

358
Q

Clear red urine and pale yellow plasma

A

Myoglobinuria

359
Q

Clear red urine and red plasma

A

Hemoglobinuria

360
Q

Associated with rhabdomyolysis

A

Myoglobinuria

361
Q

Produces hemosiderin granules in urinary sediments

A

Hemoglobinuria

362
Q

Associated with acute renal failure

A

Myoglobinuria

363
Q

The principle of the reagent strip test for blood is based on the:

A

Peroxidase activity of heme

364
Q

A speckled pattern on the blood pad of the reagent strip indicates:

A

Hematuria

365
Q

List the following products of hemoglobin degradation in the correct order by placing numbers 1 to 4 in the blank.

A
  1. Conjugated bilirubin
  2. Unconjugated bilirubin
  3. Urobilinogen and stercobilinogen
  4. Urobilin
366
Q

The principle of the reagent strip test for bilirubin is the:

A

Diazo reaction

367
Q

An elevated urine bilirubin with a normal urobilinogen is indicative of:

A

Biliary obstruction

368
Q

The primary cause of a false-negative bilirubin reaction is:

A

Specimen exposure to light

369
Q

The purpose of the special mat supplied with the Ictotest tablets is that:

A

Bilirubin remains on the surface of the mat.

370
Q

The reagent in the Multistix reaction for urobilinogen is:

A

p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

371
Q

The primary problem with urobilinogen tests using Ehrlich reagent is:

A

Positive reactions with porphobilinogen

372
Q

The reagent strip test for nitrite uses the:

A

Ehrlich reaction

373
Q

All of the following can cause a negative nitrite reading except:

A

Gram-negative bacteria

374
Q

A positive nitrite test and a negative leukocyte esterase test is an indication of a:

A

Specimen older than 2 hours

375
Q

All of the following can be detected by the leukocyte esterase reaction except:

A

Lymphocytes

376
Q

Screening tests for urinary infection combine the leukocyte esterase test with the test for:

A

Nitrite

377
Q

The principle of the leukocyte esterase reagent strip test uses a:

A

Diazo reaction

378
Q

The principle of the reagent strip test for specific gravity uses the dissociation constant of a(n):

A

Polyelectrolyte

379
Q

A specific gravity of 1.005 would produce the reagent strip color:

A

Blue

380
Q

Reagent strip–specific gravity readings are affected by:

A

Alkaline urine