chapter 9 Flashcards

1
Q

1) If it is probable that the judgment of a reasonable person will be changed or influenced by the omission or misstatement of information, then that information is, by definition of FASB Statement No. 2:

A

A) material.

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2
Q

2) The scope paragraph of the standard unqualified auditor’s report states that “? the standards require that we plan and perform the audit to obtain ________ assurance about whether the financial statements are free of material misstatement.” What type of assurance is given?

A

C) Reasonable

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3
Q

3) Auditors are responsible for determining whether financial statements are materially misstated, so upon discovering a material misstatement they must bring it to the attention of:

A

D) the client.

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4
Q

1) Audit standards require the auditor to consider materiality early in the audit. Which statement(s) regarding preliminary materiality are true? I. Preliminary materiality may change during the engagement. II. Preliminary materiality is the maximum amount by which the auditor believes the financials could be misstated and still not affect the decisions of reasonable users.

A

C) both I and II

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5
Q

2) Why do auditors establish a preliminary judgment about materiality?

A

C) To help plan the appropriate evidence to accumulate

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6
Q

3) If an auditor establishes a relatively high level for materiality, then the auditor will:

A

B) accumulate less evidence than if a lower level had been set.

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7
Q

4) The preliminary judgment about materiality and the amount of audit evidence accumulated are ________ related.

A

D) inversely

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8
Q

5) Which of the following is the primary basis used to decide materiality for a for-profit entity?

A

C) Net income before tax

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9
Q

6) Auditing standards ________ that the basis used to determine the preliminary judgment about materiality be documented in the audit files.

A

C) require

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10
Q

7) Amounts involving fraud are usually considered ________ important than unintentional errors of equal dollar amounts.

A

D) more

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11
Q

8) Qualitative factors can affect an auditor’s assessment of materiality. Which of the following statements is true? I. Misstatements that are otherwise immaterial may be material if they affect earnings trends. II.Misstatements that are otherwise minor may be material if there are possible consequences arising from contractual obligations.

A

C) I and II

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12
Q

10) Which of the following statements is not correct?

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B) The most important base used as the criterion for deciding materiality is total assets.

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13
Q

12) When setting a preliminary judgment about materiality:

A

A) more evidence is required for a low dollar amount than for a high dollar amount.

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14
Q

13) Lewis Corporation has a few large accounts receivable that total one million dollars whereas Clark Corporation has many small accounts receivable that total one million dollars. Misstatement in any one account is more significant for Lewis corporation because of the concept of:

A

A) materiality.

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15
Q

1) When auditors allocate the preliminary judgment about materiality to account balances, the materiality allocated to any given account balance is referred to as:

A

D) performance materiality.

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16
Q

2) Auditors generally allocate the preliminary judgment about materiality to the:

A

A) balance sheet only.

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17
Q

3) Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the allocation of the preliminary judgment about materiality to balance sheet accounts?

A

B) The allocation has virtually no effect on audit costs because the auditor must collect sufficient appropriate audit evidence.

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18
Q

4) Which of the following statements is true concerning the allocation of preliminary materiality?

A

D) The PCAOB term used when preliminary materiality is allocated to segments is tolerable misstatement.

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19
Q

5) Which of the following statements is false?

A

C) Either an overstatement of an asset account or an overstatement of a liability account would have the same effect on the income statement.

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20
Q

7) When allocating performance materiality:

A

C) professional judgment is critical.

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21
Q

8) When allocating materiality, most practitioners choose to allocate to:

A

B) the balance sheet accounts because most audits focus on the balance sheet.

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22
Q

9) Which of the following is a correct statement regarding performance materiality?

A

A) Determining performance materiality is necessary because auditors accumulate evidence by segments.

23
Q

1) Auditors are ________ to document the known and likely misstatements in the financial statements under audit.

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B) required

24
Q

2) ________ misstatements are those where the auditor can determine the amount of the misstatement in the account.

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C) Known

25
Q

4) When evaluating the audit findings, the auditor should be satisfied that the:

A

B) estimate of the total known and likely misstatements is less than a material amount.

26
Q

2) Based on audit evidence gathered and evaluated, an auditor decides to increase the assessed level of control risk from that originally planned. To achieve an overall audit risk level that is substantially the same as the planned audit risk level, the auditor would:

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B) decrease detection risk.

27
Q

3) When dealing with audit risk:

A

A) auditors accept some level of risk in performing the audit function.

28
Q

1) The measurement of the auditor’s assessment of the likelihood that there are material misstatements due to error or fraud in a segment before considering the effectiveness of internal controls is defined as:

A

B) inherent risk.

29
Q

2) The risk that audit evidence for a segment will fail to detect misstatements exceeding performance materiality levels is:

A

C) inherent risk.

30
Q

3) As the risk of material misstatement increases, detection risk should:

A

B) decrease.

31
Q

4) Inherent risk is ________ related to detection risk and ________ related to the amount of audit evidence.

A

D) inversely, directly

32
Q

5) Auditors frequently refer to the terms audit assurance, overall assurance, and level of assurance to refer to ________.

A

C) acceptable audit risk

33
Q

6) If planned detection risk is reduced, the amount of evidence the auditor accumulates will:

A

A) increase.

34
Q

7) Planned detection risk: determines the amount of substantive evidence the auditor plans to accumulate.

A

determines the amount of substantive evidence the auditor plans to accumulate.

35
Q

8) Inherent risk is often high for an account such as:

A

A) inventory.

36
Q

9) Inherent risk and control risk:

A

B) are inversely related to detection risk.

37
Q

10) To what extent do auditors typically rely on internal controls of their public company clients?

A

A) Extensively

38
Q

11) Auditors typically rely on internal controls of their private company clients:

A

B) only if the controls are determined to be effective.

39
Q

A) only as needed to complete the audit and satisfy Sarbanes-Oxley requirements.

A

C) Audit assurance is the complement of acceptable audit risk.

40
Q

13) The risk of material misstatement refers to:

A

C) the combination of inherent risk and control risk.

41
Q

14) When assessing risk, it is important to remember that:

A

C) detection risk can only be determined after audit risk, inherent risk, and control risk are determined.

42
Q

16) In a financial statement audit, inherent risk is evaluated to help an auditor asses which of the following?

A

D) The susceptibility of a financial statement assertion to a material misstatement assuming there are no related controls

43
Q

17) Which of the following statements is not true?

A

A) Inherent risk is inversely related to the amount of audit evidence whereas detection risk is directly related to the amount of audit evidence required.

44
Q

18) An auditor who audits a business cycle that has low inherent risk should:

A

C) increase the performance materiality level for the area.

45
Q

1) If an auditor believes the chance of financial failure is high and there is a corresponding increase in business risk for the auditor, acceptable audit risk would likely:

A

A) be reduced.

46
Q

2) When management has an adequate level of integrity for the auditor to accept the engagement but cannot be regarded as completely honest in all dealings, auditors normally:

A

A) reduce acceptable audit risk and increase inherent risk.

47
Q

3) When the auditor is attempting to determine the extent to which external users rely on a client’s financial statements, they may consider several factors except for:

A

D) assessment of detection risk.

48
Q

1) Which of the following statements regarding inherent risk is correct?

A

C) Most auditors set a high inherent risk in the first year of an audit and reduce it in subsequent years as they gain more knowledge about the company.

49
Q

2) Auditors begin their assessments of inherent risk during audit planning. Which of the following would not help in assessing inherent risk during the planning phase?

A

A) Obtaining client’s agreement on the engagement letter

50
Q

3) Which of the following is not a primary consideration when assessing inherent risk?

A

C) Degree of separation of duties

51
Q

1) As the acceptable level of detection risk increases, an auditor may change the:

A

A) timing of substantive tests by performing them at an interim date rather than year end.

52
Q

2) Auditors respond to risk primarily by:

A

I. changing the extent of testing. II. changing the types of audit procedures.

53
Q

1) When taken together, the concepts of risk and materiality in auditing:

A

A) measure the uncertainty of amounts of a given magnitude.

54
Q

2) Which of the following is a correct statement?

A

C) The auditor violates due care if he knows that the original assessment of audit risk is inappropriate and he fails to change it.