chapter 9 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Neutrophils and monocytes are direct descendants of a common progenitor known as:
    a. CLP
    b. GMP
    c. MEP
    d. HSC
A

b. GMP

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2
Q
  1. The stage in neutrophilic development in which the nucleus is indented in a kidney bean shape and the cytoplasm has secondary granules that are lavender in color is the:
    a. Band
    b. Myelocyte
    c. Promyelocyte
    d. Metamyelocyte
A

d. Metamyelocyte

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3
Q
  1. Type II myeloblasts are characterized by:
    a. The presence of fewer than 20 primary granules per cell
    b. Basophilic cytoplasm with many secondary granules
    c. The absence of granules
    d. The presence of a folded nucleus
A

a. The presence of fewer than 20 primary granules per cell

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4
Q
  1. Which one of the following is a function of neutrophils?
    a. Presentation of antigen to T and B lymphocytes
    b. Protection against reexposure by same antigen
    c. Nonspecific destruction of foreign organisms
    d. Initiation of delayed hypersensitivity response
A

c. Nonspecific destruction of foreign organisms

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following cells are important in immune regulation, allergic inflammation, and destruction of tissue invading helminths?
    a. Neutrophils and monocytes
    b. Eosinophils and basophils
    c. T and B lymphocytes
    d. Macrophages and dendritic cells
A

b. Eosinophils and basophils

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6
Q
  1. Basophils and mast cells have high-affinity surface receptors for which immunoglobulin?
    a. A
    b. D
    c. E
    d. G
A

c. E

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following cell types is capable of differentiating into osteoclasts, macrophages, or dendritic cells?
    a. Neutrophils
    b. Lymphocytes
    c. Monocytes
    d. Eosinophils
A

c. Monocytes

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8
Q
  1. Macrophages aid in adaptive immunity by:
    a. Degrading antigen and presenting it to lymphocytes
    b. Ingesting and digesting organisms that neutrophils cannot
    c. Synthesizing complement components
    d. Storing iron from senescent red cells
A

a. Degrading antigen and presenting it to lymphocytes

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following is the final stage of B cell maturation after activation by antigen?
    a. Large, granular lymphocyte
    b. Plasma cell
    c. Reactive lymphocyte
    d. Immunoblast
A

b. Plasma cell

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10
Q
  1. The following is unique to both B and T lymphocytes and occurs during their early development:
    a. Expression of surface antigens CD4 and CD8
    b. Maturation in the thymus
    c. Synthesis of immunoglobulins
    d. Rearrangement of antigen receptor genes
A

d. Rearrangement of antigen receptor genes

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11
Q
  1. The megakaryocyte progenitor that undergoes endomitosis is:
    a. MK-I
    b. BFU-Meg
    c. CFU-Meg
    d. LD-CFU-Meg
A

d. LD-CFU-Meg

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12
Q
  1. The growth factor that is produced in the kidney and in- duces growth and differentiation of committed megakaryocyte progenitors is:
    a. IL-3
    b. IL-6
    c. IL-11 8.
    d. Thrombopoietin
A

d. Thrombopoietin

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13
Q
  1. What platelet organelle sequesters ionic calcium and binds a series of enzymes of the eicosanoid pathway?
    a. Glycocalyx
    b. Dense granules
    c. Dense tubular system
    d. Surface connected canalicular system
A

c. Dense tubular system

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14
Q
  1. What platelet membrane receptor binds fibrinogen and supports platelet aggregation?
    a. GP Ib/IX/V
    b. GP IIb/IIIa
    c. GP Ia/IIa
    d. P2Y1
A

b. GP IIb/IIIa

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15
Q
  1. What platelet membrane phospholipid flips from the inner surface to the plasma surface on activation and serves as the assembly point for coagulation factors?
    a. Phosphatidylethanolamine
    b. Phosphatidylinositol
    c. Phosphatidylcholine
    d. Phosphatidylserine
A

d. Phosphatidylserine

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16
Q
  1. What is the name of the eicosanoid metabolite produced from endothelial cells that suppresses platelet activity?
    a. Thromboxane A2
    b. Arachidonic acid
    c. Cyclooxygenase
    d. Prostacyclin
A

d. Prostacyclin

17
Q
  1. Which of the following molecules is stored in platelet dense granules?
    a. Serotonin
    b. Fibrinogen
    c. Platelet factor 4
    d. Platelet-derived growth factor
A

a. Serotonin

18
Q
  1. What plasma protein is essential for platelet adhesion?
    a. VWF
    b. Factor VIII
    c. Fibrinogen
    d. P-selectin
A

a. VWF

19
Q
  1. Reticulated platelets can be enumerated in peripheral blood to detect:
    a. Impaired platelet production in disease states
    b. Abnormal organelles associated with diseases such as leukemia
    c. Increased platelet production in response to need
    d. Inadequate rates of membrane cholesterol exchange with the plasma
A

c. Increased platelet production in response to need

20
Q
  1. White clots:
    a. Occur primarily in the deep veins of the leg
    b. Are characteristic of the secondary hemostatic process
    c. Are largely composed of platelets and von Willebrand factor
    d. Form normally in response to vascular injury and are completely harmless
A

c. Are largely composed of platelets and von Willebrand factor

21
Q
  1. Upon activation, platelets secrete their a-granule con- tents via:
    a. The dense tubule system
    b. The surface connected canalicular system
    c. The glycocalyx
    d. Microtubules
A

b. The surface connected canalicular system

22
Q
  1. Microparticles:
    a. Are stored in platelet dense granules
    b. Inhibit blood clotting
    c. Bud off of platelets after their exposure to strong
    agonists
    d. Exhibit no biologic activity
A

c. Bud off of platelets after their exposure to strong
agonists