Chapter 8: Selling Real Property Flashcards

1
Q

Statute of Frauds

What must be contained within the writing?

A
  1. The essential terms of the transaction (identity of parties, price, property description)
  2. Formal writing or informal memo
  3. Signature of the party sought to be bound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Statute of Frauds

Three ways of describing property

A
  1. Government survey
  2. Metes and bounds
  3. Subdivision map
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Statute of Frauds

What is contained within a government survey?

A
  • Begins at initial point call Principal Meridian (37 in US) - Runs NS
  • Each line running perpendicular called “base line”
  • Townships are divided into 36 1-mile square sections
  • Range designations indicate property’s location east or west of the Principal Meridian
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Statute of Frauds

What is contained within Metes and bounds

A

Based largely on visible topographic features - ridge lines, streams, and trees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Statute of Frauds

What is contained within a subdivision map?

A
  • A tract of land is subdivided into smaller parcels
  • A map shows where each lot is located
  • Each lot is designated by name (eg “lot 10”) with a reference to specific map and page
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Statute of Frauds

Who is bound by the agreement?

A

Enforecement may only be sought against parties that have signed the document

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Statute of Frauds

What must the buyer have done to be entitled to the part performance Exception to the Statute of Frauds?

A

Buyer
1. takes possession;
2. pays at least part of the purchase price; and
3. Makes improvements to the property
4. (some jx require that buyer take possession and either pay the purchase price or make improvements)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Statute of Frauds

Estoppel Exception to the Statute of Frauds

A
  1. One party acts in detriment in reasonable reliance on other’s oral promise and
  2. Serious injury would result if enforcement is refused
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Statute of Frauds

Estoppel Exception to the Statute of Frauds

A
  1. One party acts in detriment in reasonable reliance on other’s oral promise and
  2. Serious injury would result if enforcement is refused
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Marketable Title

A title is generally unmarketable if . . .

A
  1. Seller’s interest in property is less than he purports to sell
  2. Title is subject to encumbrance
  3. There is reasonable doubt about (1) or (2)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Marketable Title

Under what conditions does buyer accept unmarketable title?

A
  1. Property is burdened by visible encumbrance
  2. Buyer actually knows
  3. The buyer accepts the deed at closing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Marketable Title

How much time does a seller have to cure defects?

A

Seller is given time before closing to cure any market defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Equitable Conversion

What is the time between contract signing and closing called?

A

Executory Period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Equitable Conversion

What are the 3 approaches to dealing with risk of loss during the executory period?

A
  1. Buyer bears the risk as the equitable owner
  2. Seller bears the risk as the legal owner
  3. Party entitled to possession bears the risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Equitable Conversion

Can a party recover specific performance and keep proceeds from the insurance?

A

In some jurisdictions, yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Equitable Conversion

What if buyer or seller die before closing?

A

Contract is still valid
May be enforced by heirs and devisees of either party.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Duty to Disclose

What must seller disclose?

A

Defects seller knows about that
1. Materially effect the value of the property
2. Are not known or readily discoverable by a buyer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Duty to Disclose

Examples of typical required disclosures?

A
  1. Building code violations
  2. Zoning violations
  3. Structural defects
  4. Drainage issues
  5. Not psychological stigmas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Duty to Disclose

What is the implied warranty of quality?

A

Seller of newly developed property implies warranty that property is fit for its intended use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The Deed

When is the deed effective?

A

ONLY when it is delivered - even if signed. MUST manifest intent to immediately transfer title

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The Deed

What is the controlling element to determine delivery?

A

INTENT - manual transfer generally satisfies intent. So does recording of the deed. (acceptance is required but normally presume)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The Deed

What is a death escrow?

A

When the grantor deposits the deed with a third party and instructs them to deliver the deed only when the grantor dies - must not reserve right to recall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The Deed

What is a beneficiary deed?

A

Allows owner of real property to designate beneficiaries she wants to receive the property upon death; it is revocable and delivery is not required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Remedies for Breach

When is specific performance granted?

A

Only when monetary damages are inadequate - land is generally considered to be unique and therefore damages are usually an inadequate remedy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
# Remedies for Breach Are sellers entitled to specific performance?
Illogically, courts say "yes"
26
# Remedies for Breach What role does hardship play in the remedy?
Performance has been denied when seller became disabled and moving would have been a hardship (eg may have been fatal for the affected buyer)
27
# Title Covenants What is the *doctrine of merger*?
Provides that once a grantee accepts the deed, all prior promises are extinguished
28
# Title Covenants What is the *general warranty deed*?
Provides best protection: grantor warrants title against all defects, whether they arose before or after grantor obtained the title
29
# Title Covenants What is the *special warranty deed*?
Grantor warrants against title defects that arose after the grantor obtained the title
30
# Title Covenants What is the *quitclaim deed*?
Grantor makes no warranties about the title - grantee only receives what the grantor has, if anything
31
# Title Covenants What are the 3 standard *present* covenants?
1. Covenant of seisin 2. Covenant of right to convey 3. Covenant against encumbrances
32
# Title Covenants Define *covenant of seisin*
A promise that the grantor owns the estate that he purports to convey
33
# Title Covenants Define *convenant of right to convey*
A promise that the grantor has the right to convey title
34
# Title Covenants Define *covenant against encumbrances*
A promise that there are no encumbrances on the title other than the ones expressly listed in the deed
35
# Title Covenants What are the 3 standard *future* covenants?
1. Covenant of warranty 2. Covenant of quiet enjoyment 3. Covenant of further assurances
36
# Title Covenants Define *convenant of warranty*
A promise that the grantor will defend the grantee against any claim of superior title
37
# Title Covenants Define *covenant of quiet enjoyment*
A promise that the grantee's posssession of the property will not be disturbed by anyone holding superior title
38
# Title Covenants Define *convenant of further assurances*
A promise that the grantor will take all future steps reasonably necessary to cure title defects that existed at closing
39
# Title Covenants What is the standard measure of damages for breach of a title covenant
The price paid by the grantee plus interest
40
# Title Covenants What is the standard for breach of the covenant against encumbrances?
The lesser of 1. The amount necessary to remove the encumbrance **or** 2. The amound by which it reduces the property value
41
# Title Covenants What are the rights of remote grantees?
A cause of action is usually transferable - future covenants run with the land to remote grantees and most states allow for present covenants to be transferred as well
42
# Title Covenants Define *estoppel by deed*
If the A grants to B with warranty deed but does not actually have title but later acquires it, it automatically passes to the B
43
# How to Search Title What are the two things a searcher must do to determine the state of the title?
1. Locate the recorded documents that affect title 2. Evaluate their legal significance
44
# How to Search Title What are the two systems for recording title?
1. The *grantor-grantee index* 2. The *tract index*
45
# The Recording Acts What is the universal exception to the *first-in-time* rule?
The *bona fide purchaser doctrine*
46
# The Recording Acts What is the rule in *notice jursidictions*?
A subsequent purchaser for value prevails if he takes without notice or a prior interest - subsequent purchaser does not have to record
47
# The Recording Acts What is the rule in *race-notice jurisdictions*?
A subsequent purchaser for value who *both* takes without notice *and* records first prevails
48
# The Recording Acts What is the *Zimmer* rule
A subsequent purchaser is deemed to have recorded his conveyance only if all prior conveyances in his chain of title are properly recorded
49
# The Recording Acts When is a deed *void*?
If the deed is 1. Undelivered or 2. Forged
50
# The Recording Acts When is a deed *voidable*?
If the deed is induced by fraud
51
# The Recording Acts Define the *shelter rule*
A *bon fide purchaser* is allowed to transfer his protection to a later grantee
52
# The Recording Acts Describe the alternative approach to Title Registration: the *Torrens system*
Title is passed by registration in a government agency (few states use it because it was not mandatory, initial determination was expensive, exceptions undermined it)
53
# The Recording Acts A conveys to B, who does not record B conveys to C C records S conveys to D who does record Who owns the property? Why?
D owns the property B-C deed is *wild* because a reasonable searcher would not be able to discover it
54
# The Recording Acts A conveys to B, who does not record A conveys to C, who records and has actual knowledge of B B records C conveys to D, D records Who owns the property? Why?
D owns the property The S-B deed was recorded *too late* when D is no longer searching under A's name and does not provide notice
55
# The Recording Acts A owns Greenacre B conveys to C, C records A conveys to B, B records B conveys to D, D records Who owns the property? Why?
D owns the property The deed was recorded *too early* because the B-C deed was recorded at a point when D is not looking under B's name
56
# The Recording Acts A owns Greenacre and Forestacre A conveys Greenacre to B granting an easement to cross Forestacre, B records A conveys Forestacre to C who is unaware of the easement, C records What becomes of the easement? Why?
C would not discover the easement because it is part of B's deed relating to Greenacre - this is a *deed from a common grantor*
57
# What constitutes notice? What are the 3 primary forms of notice?
1. *Actual notice* 2. *Record notice* 3. *Inquiry notice*
58
# What constitutes notice? Define *actual notice*
Knowledge of the prior interest
59
# What constitutes notice? Define *record notice*
Notice of any prior interest that would be discovered by a standard search of the public land records
60
# What constitutes notice? Define *inquiry notice*
Notice of any prior interest that would have been obtained by investigating suspicious circumstances
61
# Title Insurance What are the 5 sections of the ALTA (Am. Land Title Assoc.) owner's policy?
1. Cover page 2. Exclusions 3. Schedule A 4. Schedule B 5. Conditions
62
# What constitutes notice? What is in the *Cover page* of the ALTA owner's policy?
Sets forth the scope of the coverage provided
63
# What constitutes notice? What is in the *Exclusions* of the ALTA owner's policy?
Lists specific items that are excluded from coverage for all properties
64
# What constitutes notice? What is in the *Schedule A* of the ALTA owner's policy?
States name of the insured party, the max amount insured by the policy, and the estate that is insured
65
# What constitutes notice? What is in the *Schedule B* of the ALTA owner's policy?
Lists specific items that are excepted from coverage for the property
66
# What constitutes notice? What is in the *Conditions* of the ALTA owner's policy?
Specifies procedural requirements, such as time and manner for making claims