Chapter 7- Spine and Spinal Cord Trauma Flashcards
__% of patients with a spinal injury have at least mild brain injury
25%
__-% of patients with a cervical spine fracture have second noncontiguous vertebral column fracture
10%
is cervical spinal injury common in children?
No, seen in
In a patient w/o neuro deficit what else is needed to r/o spinal injury
no pain or tenderness along the spine
not intoxicated
no distracting injury
what part of the spine is most vulnerable to injury
cervical spine
at what age is a child’s spinal cord similar to an adult
age 12
are most thoracic fractures associated with spinal cord injury
no, most are wedge compression fractures
what makes up the dorsal columns
fasciculus gracilis
fasciculus cuneatus
15% of spinal injuries occur in what region
thoracolumbar
where does the spinal cord originate?
caudal end of the medulla oblongata at the foramen magnum and ends near L1
patient has no demonstrable sensory or motor function below a certain level
complete spinal cord injury (can’t be diagnosed w/i the first couple weeks)
injury where any degree of motor or sensory function remains, prognosis is better
incomplete spinal cord
where is the corticospinal tract located?
posterolateral segment of the cord
what does the corticospinal tract control
motor power on the same side of the body
how to test corticospinal tracts
voluntary muscle contractions or involuntary response to painful stimuli
where is the spinothalamic tract located
anterolateral aspect of the cort
what does the spinothalamic tract do
transmits pain and temp sensation from teh OPPOSITE side of the body
how to test spinothalamic tract
pinprick and light touch
where are the dorsal columns located
posteromedial aspect of the cord
what do the dorsal columns do
carry position sense (proprioception), vibration sense and some light touch form same side of the body
testing of dorsal columns
position sense in the toes/ vibratory sense
spinal nerve tha tinnervates perianal region
S4 and S5
innervates xiphisternum
T8
innervates medial aspect of calf
L4
innervates web space b/w 1st and 2nd toes
L5
innervates lateral border of the foot
S1
innervates symphysis pubis
T12
innervates middle finger
C7
innervates little finger
C8
INnervates thumb
C6
innervates ischial tuberosity area
S3
innervates nipple
T4
innervates area over deltoid
C5
what provides innervation to the region overlying the pectoralis muscle (cervical cape)
C2-C4
Neurogenic shock is rare in the spinal cord injury below what level?
T6
flaccidity and loss of reflexes seen after spinal cord injury
spinal shock (spinal cord may not be destroyed though)
Muscle strength score with full ROM w/ gravity eliminated
2
muscle strength score with Full ROM against gravity
3
muscle strength score for full ROM bull
4
muscle strength score for palpable or visible contraction
1
muscle strength score for total paralysis
0
Myotome for deltoid
C5
myotome for flexing wrist and fingers
C8
myotome for extending forearm (biceps)
C6
myotome for extending forearm (triceps)
C7
myotome for small finger abductors (abductor digiti minimi)
T1
Myotome for ankle plantar flexors (gastrocnemius, soleus)
S1
myotome for knee flexion (hamstrings)
L4,L5 to S1
myotomse for hip flexors
L2
myotomse for knee extensors (quads, patellar reflexes)
L3, L4
myotome for ankle and big toe dorsiflexors (tibilalis anterior and extensor hallucis longus)
L5
The 4 ways spinal cord injuries are classified
1- level
2- severity of neuro deficit
3- spinal cord syndromes
4- morphology
what is the neurological level of a spinal cord injury
most caudal segment of the spinal cord with normal sensory and motor function on both sides.
sensory= normal sensory function
motor= normal motor function (at least 3/5)
Injury of the first __ cervical segments of the spinal cord result in quadriplegia
8
Lesions below the level of ___ result in parapelgia
T1
What is the bony level of injury
vertebra at which the bones are damaged
why is there frequently a discrepancy b/w the bony and neurologic levels of injury
spinal nerves enter the spinal canal through the foramina and ascend or descend inside the spinal canal before actually entering the spinal cord. Further down more pronounced the discrepancy is
what does incomplete paraplegia suggest
incomplete thoracic injury
what does complete quadriplegia suggest
complete cervical injury
any motor or sensory funciton below the level of injury constitutes what
an incomplete injury
signs of incomplete injury
voluntary movement in LE
sacral sparing
voluntary anal sphincter contraction
voluntary toe flexion
Does the bulbocavernosu reflex or anal wink qualify as sacral sparing
No
disproportionately greater loss of motor strenght in the UE than the LE with varying degrees of sensory loss
central cord syndrome
what causes central cord syndrome
hyperextension injury in patient with preexisiting cervical canal stenosis and hx of fall forward that resulted in facial impact
what is thought to cause central cord syndrome
Due to vascular compromise of the anterior spinal artery (motor fibers topographically arranged toward center of the cord arms and hands affected more severely)
CHaracteristic pattern of recovery with central cord syndrome
LE regain strength
bladder function comes back
proximal upper extremitites next
hands last
paraplegia and dissociated sensory loss with a loss of pain and temp sensation
anterior cord syndrome
what is preserved in anterior cord syndrome
dorsal column function (position, vibration, deep pressure sense)
what causes anterior cord syndrome
infarction fo the cord in the territory supplied by the anterior spinal artery.
what syndrome has the poorest prognosis of the incomplete injuries
Anterior cord syndrome
results from hemisection fo the cord usually from penetrating trauma
Brown-Sequard syndrome
What is brown sequard syndrome
ipsilateral motor loss (corticospinal tract)
loss of position sense (dorsal column)
associated with C/L loss of pain and temperature sensation beginning 1-2 levels below injury (spinothalamic tract)
who should be considered to have an unstable spinal injury
all patient w/ radiographic evidence of injury and all those with neuro deficits
patients with this injury die of brainstem destruction and apnea or have profound neuro impairments (ventilator dependent, quadriplegic).
atlanto-occipital dislocation
waht is a commonc ause of death in cases of shaken baby syndrome
atlanto-occipital dislocation
What is the most common C1 (atlas) fracture
Jefferson (burst fracture)
mechanicm for atlas (C1) jefferson fracture
large load falls vertically on head/ patient lands on top of head in neutral position
best way to see atlas fracure
open mouth view of C1 to C2 region and axial CT scans
who is C1 rotary subluxation most often seen in
children
how does C1 rotary subluxation present
persistent rotaiton of the head (torticollis)
how is C1 roatry subluxation best seen
open-mouth odontoid view (odontoid is not equidistant form teh two lateral msses of C11)
Largest cervical vertebrae with most unusual shape and is most susceptible to various fractures
Axis (C2)
60% of C2 fractures involve what
the odontoid process (peg-shpaed bony protuberance that projects upward and is normally positioned in contact with anterior arch of C1)
most common type of odontoid fracture
Type II- occur though base of the dens
Fracture that involves the posterior elements of C2 (pars interarticularis) and is usually caused by extension like injury
hangman’s fracture (posterior elements fractures)
what levels does the greatest flexion and extension of the cervical spine occur
C5 and C6
in adults where is the most common level of cervical certebral fracture
C5 (most common subluxation is C5 on C6)
are neuro injuries high or low with facter dislocations
high
what are the 4 categories of thoracic spine fractures. Which one is stable? (the other three usually require internal fixation)
anterior wedge compression injury (stable)
burst injury
chance fracture
fracture- dislocation
what type fracture does axial loading with flexion produce
anterior wedge compression injury
injury caused by vertical-axial compression
burst injury
transverse fractures though a vertebral body cause by flexion about an axis anterior to the vertebral column. Often seen in MVAs with only lap belt
chance fractures
who are at risk for thoracolumbar junction fractures
people who fall form a height and restrained drivers who sustain severe flexion energy transfer
Injury to what level of the cord commonly results in bladder and bowel dysfunction and decreased sensation and strength in LE
Level of L1
what type fractures are particularly vulnerable to rotational movement
thoracolumbar fractures
is complete neuro deficit more or less likely with lumbar fractures
Less likely since onlyt he cauda equina is involved
3 type of fractures that are more likely to result in blunt carotid and vertebral vascular injuries
C1-C3 fracture
cervical spine fracture w/ subluxation
fractures involving foramen transversarium
who is cervical spine radiography indicated in
all trauma patients with midline neck pain tenderness on palpation neuro deficits referable to cervical spine ALOC distracting injury
Preferable screening modality for cervical spine injury
axial CT from occiput to T1 with sagittal and coronal reconstructions
what must been seen on a lateral cervical x-ray to be acceptable
all 7 cervical vertebrae and 1st thoracic vertebrae (if not all seen then swimmer’s view of lwoer cervical and upper thoracic area needed)
what to do for patients with neck pain and normal films
evaluate by MRI or flexion/ extension x-ray films OR
semirigid cervical color for 2-3 weeks
____ % of patients with a cervical spine fracture have a second, noncontiguous vertebral column fracture
ten percent
so do a full x-ray screening on entire spine in patients with cervical spine fracture
patients with neurogenic shock typically have what type heart rate
bradycardia
vasopressors that are recommended in neurogenic chock
Phenylephrine hydrochloride, dopamine, norepi
cervical spine injures above ___ can result in partial or total loss of respiratory function
C6