Chapter 7: Investment Funds Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the Asset management sector responsible for?

A

For investment management of institutional and retail funds which totalled £9.4 trillion.

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2
Q

How can the size of the asset management sector be seen?

A

Seen in regular reports issued by IA - the trade body for UK-based asset management industry.

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3
Q

What’s the role of IA?

A

Represent the industry, principally to the gov’t and regulators, as well as to press and public, and to promote high standards.

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4
Q

Before making any investments, what questions should investors ask themselves?

A
  • What am I investing for?
  • What amount of money will I need?
  • Over what timescale do I want investment returns?
  • What risks am I prepared to take?
  • What types of assets are right for me?
  • How can I avoid risk?
  • What mix of investments is best suited to my objectives and attitude to risk.
  • Do I need income now or later?
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5
Q

What are the two ways in which an investor can purchase an asset class?

A

Direct or indirect.

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6
Q

What is Direct Investment?

A

When an individual personally buys shares in a company, e.g. BP.

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7
Q

What is Indirect Investment?

A

When an individual buys a stake in an investment fund, e.g. mutual fund that invests in shares of a range of different types of companies.

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8
Q

What do Collective Investment Schemes (CISs) do?

A

Pool resources of a large number of investors, with the aim of pursuing a common investment objective.

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9
Q

What benefits do CISs bring?

A
  • Economies of scale.
  • Diversification.
  • Access to professional investment management.
  • Access to geographical markets, asset classes or investment strategies which might otherwise be inaccessible to the individual investor.
  • Regulatory oversight.
  • Tax deferral (some cases).
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10
Q

What’s a key benefit of diversification?

A

Risk is lessened when an investor holds a diversified portfolio (but opportunity of incredible outperformance is diversified away) helping to mitigate against impact incase of big collapse of a company, e.g. Lehman Brothers, Northern Rock.

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11
Q

What must an investor have before they can diversify a portfolio correctly?

A

Substantial amount of capital:
* £3k in 30 different companies = £100 each plus commission (not great).
* £3k into a fund with 80 companies and small commission = money goes further.

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12
Q

What’s the benefits of an Collective Investment?

A
  • As investment is pooled with those of lots of other investors, commission, as a proportion of the fund, is very small.
  • Fund might be invested on shares from many different sectors (industry diversification)
  • Fund may invest in a variety of bonds, cash, equities and property allowing for diversification.
  • Access to investing skills of a fund manager - they follow their chosen markets closely and carefully consider what to buy and whether to keep or sell their chosen investments.
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13
Q

What fees are associated with Collective Investments?

A
  • Entry/Initial charges.
  • Exit charges.
  • Annual management fees.
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14
Q

What do the fees for Collective Investment cover?

A
  • Fund manager’s salary’s.
  • Technology.
  • Research.
  • Their dealing.
  • Settlement and risk management systems.
  • To provide a profit.

(no guarantee on performance of a fund or how it will perform in comparison to similar funds or benchmarks).

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15
Q

What is Active Management?

A

Seeks to outperform a predetermined benchmark over a specified time period. It does so by employing fundamental and technical analysis to assist in forecasting of future events, which may be economic or specific to a company, so as to determine the portfolio’s holdings and timing of purchases and sales.

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16
Q

Which fund has higher charges?

A

Actively managed funds have higher charges than passive funds.

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17
Q

What is meant by ‘top-down’ and ‘bottom-up’?

A

TD = manager focuses on economic and industry trends rather than prospects of particular companies.
BU = analysis of company’s net assets, future profitability and cash flow, and other company-specific indicators, is a priority.

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18
Q

What investment styles are included in bottom-up?

A
  • Growth investing.
  • Value investing.
  • Momentum investing.
  • Contrarian investing.
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19
Q

What’s meant by Growth Investing?

A

Picking shares of companies that present opportunities to grow significally in the long term.

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20
Q

What’s meant by Value Investing?

A

Picking shares of companies that are undervalued relative to their present and future profits or cash flows.

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21
Q

What’s meant by Momentum Investing

A

Picking shares whose share price is rising on the basis that it will rise and continue.

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22
Q

What’s meant by Contrarian Investing?

A

Flip side of momentum investing, involves picking shares that are out of favour and may have ‘hidden’ value.

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23
Q

What is Passive Management?

A

Seen in investment funds (often described as index tracker funds/Indexation). Involves constructing portfolio in such a way that it will track/mimic the performance of a recognised index.

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24
Q

What assumption does Indexation take?

A

That securities markets are efficiently price and therefore cannot be consistently outperformed. Consequently no attempt is made to forecast future events or outperform the broader market.

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25
Q

What is a benefit of employing indexation?

A
  • Relatively dew active portfolio managers consistently outperform benchmark equity indices.
  • Fund’s charges will typically be significantly lower than actively managed funds.
  • Once set up, passive portfolios are generally less expensive to run than active portfolios, given a lower ratio of staff to funds managed and lower portfolio turnover.
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26
Q

What is a disadvantage of adopting indexation?

A
  • Performance is affected by the need to manage cash flows, rebalance the portfolio to replicated changes in index-constituent weightings, and adjust the portfolio for stocks coming into, and falling out of, the index. This can lead to tracking error when the performance does not match that of the underlying index.
  • Most indices reflect the effect of the value of dividends from constituent equities on the ex-dividend date.
  • Indexed portfolios may not meet all of an investor’s objectives.
  • Indexed portfolios follow the index down in bear markets.
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27
Q

What is Core-Satellite management?

A

Investment strategies that incorporate both active and passive investment styles.

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28
Q

What is one way of core-satellite managing?

A

By indexing, say, 70-80% of the portfolio’s value (the ‘core’), so as to minimise the risk of under performance, and then fine-tuning this by investing the remainder a number of specialist actively managed funds or individual securities. This is the ‘satellite’ element of the fund.

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29
Q

What are funds described as ‘Smart-Beta’?

A

Instead of tracking an index, these funds take into account other factors, such as value or growth, when creating an index that they will track. It can be regarded as a mix of active and passive - follows an index, but active as it considers alternative factors.

30
Q

Who classifies investment funds?

A
  • IA for UK authorised open-ended funds industry (maintains system for classifying funds).
  • Association of Investment Companies (AIC) occupies a similar role for investment trusts (close-ended companies).
31
Q

What sectors does IA group funds and ETF’s into?

A

Most sectors categorised between those designed to provide:
* ‘income’
* ‘growth’
Other funds that don’t fall under these headings are in other categories:
* capital protection
* specialist funds
* volatility-managed
* absolute/target return
* unclassified

32
Q

What is each sector made up of?

A
  • Similar asset categories
  • Same stock market sectors
  • Same geographical region
33
Q

What are the sectors aimed at?

A

Aimed at needs of investor who has a desire to compare funds on a like-for-like basis. Sector classification provides groups of similar funds whose performance can be readily compared by an investor and their adviser.

34
Q

What does UCITS refer to?

A

A series of EU regulations (‘directives’) that were originally designed to facilitate the promotion of funds to retail investors across the EU and European Economic Area (EEA).

35
Q

What does a UCITS fund comply with?

A

Requirements of UCITS, no matter which EU country it’s established in.

36
Q

What is the aim of the UCITS directives?

A

Create a framework for cross-border sales of investment funds throughout the EU, which would allow an investment fund to be sold throughout the EU, subject to regulation by its home country regulator.
- rationale being allowing funds to be sold across borders would reduce costs involved and improve customer choice, while ensuring a level playing field through common standards of investor protection.

37
Q

Since the end of the Brexit transition period, what have UK fund management firms lost their ability to do?

A

Establish a fund in the UK as a UCITS fund and then sell the fund across Europe. Mean many UK fund management groups have set up subsidiaries in Luxembourg, Ireland and other countries so that they can operate from there.
Equally EEA-based funds will encounter difficulties selling funds to UK.

38
Q

As funds can’t be sold in the UK, what does the FCA intend to do?

A

Permit EEA UCITS funds to continue to be marketed to retail investors during a temporary period before they require them to apply for recognition.
But, the sheer numbers involved makes individual recognition of funds impractical, so HM Treasury has introduced an overseas fund regime which allows the gov’t to recognise another country’s regime for funds which will then enable funds from those countries to access the UK market.

39
Q

What does NURS stand for?

A

‘Non-UCITS Retail Schemes’

40
Q

What are NURS deemed as?

A

These funds are deemed by UK regulator to be suitable for retail investors, but don’t meet more prescriptive rules of European UCITS Directive.
They allow greater range of investment opportunities including direct investment in property. Many fund of funds adopted NURS as this allows the use of much wider range if underlying investments.

41
Q

What is a Unit Trust?

A

UT is a CIS in the form of a trust in which the trustee is the legal owner of the underlying assets and the unitholders are the beneficial owners. It may be authorised and unauthorised.

42
Q

How do unit trusts work?

A
  • Investors pay money into the trust in exchange for units.
  • Money invested in a diversified portfolio of assets, usually consisting of shares or bonds or a mix of the 2.
  • If the diversified portfolio increases in value, the value of units will increase (also possible that portfolio might fall in value, in which case the units will decrease in value).
43
Q

Why is a UT described as an open-ended CIS?

A

The trust can grow as more investors buy into the fund, or shrink as investors sell units back to the fund and they’re either cancelled or reissued to new investors.

44
Q

What’s the role of the unit trust manager?

A

Decide, within rules of the trust and various regulations, which investments are included within the unit trust to meet its investment objectives. Includes deciding what to buy and when to buy it, as well as what to sell and when to sell it. The unit trust manager may (and commonly does) outsource this decision-making to a separate investment manager.
- Provides market for units by dealing with investors who want to buy or sell units.
- Carries out daily pricing of units, which is based on the Net Asset Value (NAV) of underlying constituents.

45
Q

How does the manager provide a market for the units?

A

Deals with investors who want to but or sell units. Carries out daily pricing of units, based on the Net Asset Value (NAV) of underlying constituents.

46
Q

Who must every unit trust appoint?

A

A trustee

47
Q

What is a trustee?

A

Legal owner of assets in the trust, holding the assets for the benefit of the underlying unit holders.

48
Q

How does a trustee protect the interests of investors?

A

By monitoring actions of unit trust managers. Whenever new units are created for a trust, they are created by the trustee. Trustees are organisations that unit holders can trust with their assets.

49
Q

What are trustees for Authorised Unit Trusts (AUTs)?

A

Companies subject to special regulation - all part of global banking groups.

50
Q

What’s an OEIC?

A

Open-ended investment company - a CIS structured as a company, with the investors holding shares.

51
Q

What are OEICs referred to by the FCA?

A

Investment companies with variable capital (ICVCs).

52
Q

What’s an ICVC?

A

An investment company with variable capital.

53
Q

What’s an example of an ICVC?

A

Societe d’Investissement a Capital Variable (SICAV)

54
Q

Where do OEIC invest money?

A

Invests shareholders’ money in a diversified pool of investments.

55
Q

How do OEICs differ from conventional companies?

A

Because they are established under special legislation and not the Companies Act. They’re not subject to share repurchase restrictions, create new shares and redeem existing ones according to investor demand, unlike ordinary companies. This means they’re open ended in nature, just like unit trusts.

56
Q

What is a requirement needed when an OEIC is setup?

A

Authorised Corporate Director (ACD) and a depository are appointed.

57
Q

What is ACD?

A

Responsible for the day-to-day management of the fund, including managing the investments, valuing and pricing the fund, and dealing with investors. It may undertake these activities itself or delegate them to specialist third parties. It’s subject to the sam e requirements as the manager of an AUT.

58
Q

Where are the OEIC’s investments held?

A

By an independent depository, responsible for looking after the investments on behalf of the OEIC shareholders and overseeing the activities of the ACD. The depository occupies a similar role to that of the trustee of an AUT and is subject to the same regulatory requirements.

59
Q

Where is the register of the shareholders maintained?

A

By the ACD.

60
Q

The prices at which authorised unit trusts or OEICs are bought and sold are based on what?

A

Based on the value of the fund’s flexibility to quote prices, which can be either single-priced or dual-priced (although this decision must be taken at the outset and manager cannot switch between the two as and when it suits).

61
Q

What is Single pricing?

A

Refers to the use of mid-market prices of the underlying assets to produce a single price.

62
Q

What is Dual-pricing?

A

Involves using marker’s bid and offer prices of the underlying assets to produce separate prices for buying and selling of shares/units in the fund.

63
Q

Traditionally, what have AUTs and OEICs used to price?

A

AUTs use Dual-pricing.
OEICs use Single-pricing.

64
Q

Do funds have a choice about what pricing they use?

A

Yes - whichever is chosen must be disclosed in the prospectus.

65
Q

When a fund is single-price, what does this method of pricing not provide? What is the remedy?

A

With its underlying investments valued based on their mid-market value, this method of pricing doesn’t provide the ability to recoup dealing expenses and commissions within the spread. Therefore, where necessary such costs are recouped by applying a separate charge (dilution levy) on purchases or redemptions, or by swinging the daily price to a dual-priced basis depending on the ratio of buyers and sellers on any day. The initial charge will be charged separately, whichever pricing method is used.

66
Q

What is the maximum buying price?

A

The max price at which the fund manager is able to sell new units prescribed by the FCA. Under dual pricing, it comprises of the creation price + he fund manager’s initial charge.

67
Q

What’s the creation price?

A

Price the manager must pay to the trustee to create new units, which broadly consists of the value of the underlying investments and an allowance for dealing costs.

68
Q

What is the selling price? (from the investors point of view)

A

The price at which the fund manager will repurchase units.

69
Q

What’s the cancellation price?

A

Minimum selling price, or the price received from the fund by the manager when they cancel the units, using as its starting point the value of the portfolio at bid prices. The manager has flexibility about the price that is set, subject to it being no less than the minimum selling price.

70
Q

Which charges are explicit for an investor in CIS?

A
  • Initial charge made for the investment
  • Annual Management Charge (AMC) - applied to cover the ongoing costs of the management and administration of the fund.
71
Q

Which charges are less explicit for an investor in CIS?

A
  • Brokers’ commission for trades undertaken
  • Legal and audit fees
  • Fees for specialist taxation advice
72
Q

Why are these charges less explicit?

A

Because they are incurred in the necessary management of the fund, such as any audit costs for the fund. Managers of funds are entitled (under terms of their management agreements) to charge certain other costs to the fund.