Chapter 7 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A patient with postural hypotension would most likely make which​statement?

A. ​”I get so dizzy when I get up off of the​couch.”

B. ​”When lying in​bed, I have a hard time​breathing.”

C. ​”I go through periods where my heartbeat seems​irregular.”

D. ​”My shoes are tight because my ankles are​swollen.”

A
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2
Q
  1. Which assessment finding should the Emergency Medical Technician expect after administering epinephrine to a​patient?

A. Labored breathing

B. Increased blood pressure

C. Slowing of the heart rate

D. Generalized weakness

A
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3
Q
  1. What is the primary function of the left​atrium?

A. It pumps blood to the lungs.

B. It receives blood from the vena cava.

C. It receives blood from the pulmonary veins.

D. It pumps blood to the body.

A
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4
Q
  1. A patient has experienced a burn to the skin. Based on the function of the​skin, he is now more susceptible​to:

A. Infection

B. Heart problems

C. Fluid overload

D. Endocrine disorders

A
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5
Q
  1. A female patient has suffered a stroke to the right side of her brain and has paralysis to the contralateral portion of the body. Which description of this condition is​ correct?

A. She cannot move her left arm and leg.

B. She is paralyzed on the right side of her body.

C. She cannot move her arms or legs.

D. Her left and right legs are paralyzed.

A
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6
Q
  1. Which statement regarding the endocrine system is most​correct?

A. It is a system of glands that regulates consciousness.

B. It is a system of glands that releases hormones via ducts into the bloodstream.

C. It includes the​thyroid, parathyroid,​adrenal, and salivary glands.

D. It is made up of several glands whose secretions cause specific actions in specific organs.

A
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7
Q
  1. Which statement best describes the anatomic​position?

A. Supine position with arms at the side and palms facing downward

B. Upright and facing backward with the arms raised and legs straight

C. Prone position with arms upward and palms facing upward

D. Standing with the arms down at the side and palms facing forward

A
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8
Q
  1. You are picking up a patient at a family​physician’s office who has trouble breathing. While speaking with the​physician, he also tells you
    the patient has a history of neuromas. This means he has​a:

A. Tumor of a nerve

B. Spinal cord injury

C. Sleep apnea

D. Cancer of white blood cells

A
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9
Q
  1. Which individual finding in a patient is the most reliable indicator that the patient is breathing​inadequately?

A. Chest wall motion outward of 1 inch during inhalation in an adult patient

B. Respiratory rate of 22​breaths/min in an elderly patient

C. Respiratory rate of 16​breaths/min in a child

D. Shallow breathing at a rate of 12​breaths/min in an infant

A
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10
Q
  1. Assessment of a patient who was involved in a motor vehicle collision reveals tenderness over ribs 9–12 on the lateral right​side, and
    some diffuse upper right abdominal quadrant pain. Based on this​injury, the Emergency Medical Technician should be alert for which
    additional concern.

A. Damage to the heart

B. Damage to the false ribs

C. Pain from possible rib fractures

D. Injury to the liver

A
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11
Q
  1. Which division of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for increasing gastric juice secretions after a person eats a​meal?

A. Autonomic

B. Voluntary

C. Sympathetic

D. Somatic

A
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12
Q
  1. The prefix​”endo-“ refers​to:

A. Small intestines

B. An artificial airway

C. Between

D. Within something

A
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13
Q
  1. The left side of a​patient’s heart is in severe​failure, causing blood to back up behind it. What other organ may show findings of failure
    because of​this?

A. Lungs

B. Brain

C. Liver

D. Spleen

A
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14
Q
  1. A patient suffering a carpal fracture would most likely complain of pain in​her:
    A. Ankle
    B. Elbow
    C. Knee
    D. Wrist
A
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15
Q
  1. If the body was dissected through this​plane, plane would show the​liver, stomach, and spleen at once.

A. Midline plane

B. Transverse plane

C. Sagittal plane

D. Coronal plane
YOU​ANSWERED: B.

A
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16
Q
  1. A​23-year-old male patient has been shot with a rifle by an assailant standing in front of him. The bullet initially penetrated the​victim’s
    chest just above the left nipple and exited his body laterally left of his fourth lumbar vertebrae. Proper documentation of this injury
    would​include:

A. Exit wound to the posterior thorax

B. Entry wound to the anterior thorax

C. Exit wound to the posterior torso

D. Entry wound to the abdomen

A
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17
Q
  1. Which type of joint provides the greatest amount of free​motion?

A. Saddle joint

B. Hinged joint

C. Gliding joint

D. ​Ball-and-socket joint

A
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18
Q

A patient complains of extreme​dizziness, headache, and other​”stroke-like” symptoms. Which condition is most likely to be responsible
for these​symptoms?

A. Occlusion of a carotid artery

B. Occlusion of the popliteal vein

C. Clot in the abdominal aorta

D. Rupture of the radial vein

A
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19
Q
  1. Which body system protects internal organs of the chest and provides for movement of the​extremities?

A. Musculoskeletal

B. Immune

C. Nervous

D. Endocrine

A
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20
Q
  1. In​newborns, which of these would be expected to be present first if the newborn was​hypoxic?
    A. Bradycardia
    B. Tachycardia
    C. Unequal breath sounds
    D. Decreased urine output
    YOU​ANSWERED: B.
A
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21
Q
  1. The structure containing a​person’s true vocal cords and false vocal cords is termed​the:
    A. Pharynx
    B. Larynx
    C. Sternum
    D. Trachea
A
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22
Q
  1. The spinal column is composed of which​sections, described in order from most superior to most inferior.
    A. ​Coccyx, lumbar,​thoracic, cervical, and sacral
    B. ​Cervical, thoracic,​lumbar, sacral, and coccyx
    C. ​Thoracic, lumbar,​cervical, coccyx, and sacral
    D. ​Cervical, lumbar,​thoracic, sacral, and coccyx
A
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23
Q
  1. What is the name of the structure in males and females that transports the urine from the kidneys to the urinary​bladder?
    A. Vulva
    B. Ureters
    C. Renal pelvis
    D. Urethra
A
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24
Q
  1. You are assessing a patient with an obvious left​mid-shaft femur fracture. The most immediate threat to this​patient’s survival​is:
    A. Nerve damage
    B. Infection
    C. Pain
    D. Blood loss
A
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25
25. Which organ would be affected first from a low glucose level due to its heavy reliance on circulating​glucose? A. Spleen B. Muscles C. Heart D. Brain
26
26. Nephritis indicates which kind of infection. A. Digestive B. Bladder C. Kidney D. Urinary tract
27
27. A patellar fracture affects which part of the body. A. Tibia B. Knee C. Elbow D. Hip
28
28. A patient informs you that he injured a tendon in his knee three years ago and has had a difficult time walking since then. You recognize that this injury involves a structure​that: A. Attaches a ligament to the knee B. Connects the muscles together surrounding the knee C. Connects muscles to the knee D. Holds and secures the bones of the knee
29
29. The outer two layers of the skin are​the: A. Epidermal and dermal layers B. Dermal layer C. Dermal and subcutaneous layers D. Epidermis
30
30. Following radiation therapy for breast cancer, a female patient has a low white blood cell count. Which condition does this factor place her at risk to acquire? A: Infection B: Low blood pressure C: Hypoxia D: Bleeding
31
31. Which structure or vessel carries oxygen-depleted blood to the right atrium? A: Posterior tibial B: Internal jugular C: Aorta D: Vena cava
32
32. A patient with an orbital fracture is most likely to complain of: A: Pain around the eye B: Difficulty swallowing C: Pain around the ear D: Pain when moving his lower jaw
33
33. Emergency Medical Responders inform you that a 73-year-old female patient has fallen and has a hematoma to the occipital area of her head. Based on this description, you should expect to find the injury in which area of the head. A: Back B: Front C: Top D: Side
34
34. Another Emergency Medical Technician informs you that a patient has been stabbed once with a knife in the right midaxillary region. Which description best identifies where this injury is located? A: Right shoulder B: Right side of the abdomen C: Right lateral chest D: Right chest
35
35. A patient with myalgia is suffering from: A: Kidney failure B: Muscle pain C: Increased mucous production D: Muscle disease
36
36. A patient has severe swelling of the leaf-shaped flap that helps to prevent food from entering the lower respiratory system while swallowing. Knowing that the suffix “itis” refers to inflammation, what is this patient’s condition? A: Bronchitis B: Epiglottitis C: Tracheitis D: Pharyngitis
37
37. A patient with a calcaneal fracture has a broken: A: Thigh B: Knee C: Foot D: Heel
38
38. Which term is most closely related to the elbow? A: Acetabular B: Tibial C: Cubital D: Calcaneal
39
39. Knowing that muscular dystrophy affects the voluntary muscles, which additional problem should you expect to be a direct effect of the disease? A: Inability to walk B: Vasodilation C: Slow heart rate D: Constipation
40
40. What is the name of the male reproductive structure that stores sperm? A: Testes B: Seminal vesicles C: Epididymis D: Vas deferens
41
41. What is the major artery of the thigh called? A: Brachial artery B: Carotid artery C: Femoral artery D: Radial artery
42
42. Involuntary or smooth muscles are found in the walls of which types of structures? A: Spinal cord B: Muscles of the arms and legs C: Heart and brain D: Blood vessels and intestines
43
43. When palpating a pulse on top of the foot, the Emergency Medical Technician is assessing blood flow in which vessel? A: Posterior tibial vein B: Dorsalis pedis artery C: Coronary artery D: Femoral vein
44
44. Which statement best describes the difference between cardiac and smooth muscle? A: Cardiac muscle relies on an electrical impulse to be stimulated; smooth muscle does not. B: Cardiac muscle does not need a blood supply; smooth muscle does. C: Cardiac muscle is able to extend; smooth muscle can only contract. D: Cardiac muscle can generate its own electrical impulse; smooth muscle cannot.
45
45. A patient has fractured bones in his left leg. Which bones could be involved in this injury? A: Radius, ulna, humerus, or carpals B: Femur, tibia, or fibula C: Acetabulum, calcaneus, or carpals D: Orbit, lumbar, or shin
46
46. As you arrive on scene, an Emergency Medical Responder informs you that the patient has agonal respirations. Based on this description, you would expect the patient’s breathing to be: A: Rapid and shallow B: Deep and fast C: Occasional and gasping D: Irregular and deep
47
47. Which term refers to how the parts of the body function and interact? A: Physiology B: Aerobic metabolism C: Biome D: Anatomy
48
48. An 89-year-old female patient has fallen in her living room and has pain in her left hip. As you approach, you note that she is on her back with her left leg turned inward. When relaying this information to the receiving hospital, how would you describe her position? A: Supine with left rotation of the right leg B: Supine with lateral rotation of the left lower extremity C: Supine with medial rotation of the left lower extremity D: Lateral recumbent with dorsal rotation of the left leg
49
49. You have been called to transport a patient who has an illness that has impaired the involuntary muscles’ ability to contract. What condition would you expect with this patient? A: Difficulty in walking and grasping objects with the hands B: Decreased heart rate and increased blood pressure C: Difficulty in maintaining an upright posture D: Decreased peristaltic movement of the large intestine
50
50. A paramedic tells you that a patient with a probable spine injury still retains his plantar reflexes. As a knowledgeable Emergency Medical Technician, you should understand that the patient has reflex activity in which part of the body? A: Hands B: Arms C: Fingers D: Feet Let me know if you’d like me to continue or refine the formatting further!
51
51. A male patient informs you that he has had his gallbladder surgically removed. Based on the physiology of the gallbladder, which statement is most true regarding this patient? A: He must avoid meals high in complex carbohydrates B: He will be more prone to gastric ulcers C: He cannot store glycogen produced by the liver D: He may have difficulty digesting large amounts of fats
52
52. Which of these findings is the best indicator of inadequate breathing? A: Slow breathing B: Rapid breathing C: Absent breath sounds D: 1.5” of chest expansion on inhalation
53
53. A patient has experienced a stroke that has permanently injured his brainstem. Which sign or symptom might the Emergency Medical Technician expect to find as a result of this condition? A: Abnormal respirations B: Muscle spasms C: Blindness D: Confusion
54
54. You are assessing a patient who informs you that her body abnormally forms blood clots, even when they are not needed to stop bleeding. Of the listed, which condition would most likely contribute to the blood clotting? A: Low red blood cell count B: Decreased clotting factors C: Elevated number of platelets D: High white blood cell count
55
55. A patient with double vision after a stroke should be documented as having: A: Empyema B: Hematochezia C: Diplopia D: Disconjugate gaze
56
56. What is the name of the fluid that carries blood cells and nutrients? A: Plasma B: Hemoglobin C: Total body water D: Platelet fluid
57
57. Which of these is not a risk factor for the development of hypoglycemia in a pediatric patient? A: Relative inability to maintain arterial vasoconstriction in shock B: Poor glucose stores C: Inability to stimulate the release of glucose from the liver D: Increased metabolic rates
58
58. Acrocyanosis, as documented on a prehospital care report, is best described as a bluish discoloration of the patient’s: A: Head B: Extremities C: Abdomen D: Chest
59
59. Assessment of an elderly male patient reveals that he is confused. His family states that this status is normal for him because he has a disease of his brain that has affected his ability to remember things. Based on this information, identify in which area of the brain is this disease located. A: Brainstem B: Cerebrum C: Pons D: Cerebellum
60
60. Understanding physiology will allow the Emergency Medical Technician to understand that bronchoconstriction will have which effect on breathing? A: There will be an increase in the work of breathing B: There will be a decrease in the patient’s respiratory rate C: There will be an increase in the flow of air through the bronchioles D: There will be a decrease in the work of breathing
61
61. Based on the anatomic and physiological differences between an infant and an adult, which finding would suggest respiratory distress in an infant but would be less likely to be observed in an adult? A: Increased respiratory rate B: Breathing with the mouth open C: Excessive abdominal wall motion D: Nasal flaring during exhalation
62
62. A patient with hepatomegaly has a problem with what organ? A: Appendix B: Pancreas C: Spleen D: Liver
63
63. A patient has a total occlusion of the left femoral artery. With this condition, which assessment finding would the Emergency Medical Technician expect? A: Pale skin to the left foot B: Swelling in the legs C: Decreased radial pulse D: Difficulty moving the left arm
64
64. The segment of the spinal column that forms the posterior pelvis is the: A: Sacral vertebrae B: Lumbar segment C: Thoracic spine D: Cervical vertebrae
65
65. The pressure exerted on the walls of the arteries as the left ventricle contracts is called: A: Arterial B: Systolic C: Diastolic D: Osmotic
66
66. A patient is experiencing the backup of blood and fluid in her lung tissue. Failure of which of the heart’s valves is likely responsible for this condition? A: Right B: Tricuspid C: Pulmonary D: Bicuspid
67
67. Which action produces inhalation and contributes to airflow into the lungs? A: The intercostal muscles relax B: The diaphragm contracts C: The chest cavity decreases in size D: The pressure in the chest increases
68
68. What represents the correct sequence for the passage of air into the lungs, when starting from outside the body? A: Mouth, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli B: Larynx, esophagus, trachea, bronchi, alveoli C: Nose, bronchi, larynx, trachea, pharynx, air sacs D: Epiglottis, trachea, cricoid, bronchi, air sacs
69
69. To which body system do the adrenal glands, pituitary glands belong? A: Endocrine B: Hormonal C: Nervous D: Respiratory
70
70. Occlusion to which pulmonary structure would cause total cessation of airflow into and out of the lungs? A: Nasopharynx B: Esophagus C: Trachea D: Right bronchi
71
71. The alveoli of a patient’s lungs are filled with fluid and pus secondary to pneumonia. How does this disturbance place the patient at risk? A: Decreased movement of the diaphragm B: Decreased movement of air into the lungs C: Decreased absorption of oxygen into the body D: Collapse of the trachea and bronchi
72
72. Which finding is a beta-1 sympathetic (adrenergic) effect? A: Vasodilation B: Vasoconstriction C: Bronchodilation D: Increased heart rate
73
73. Degenerative disk disease to the vertebrae is characterized by damage to which structure(s) between the vertebrae? A: Vertebral nerve endings B: Spinal cord C: Intervertebral disks D: Spinal joints
74
74. A patient experiencing pain in the thoracic region of his spinal column has pain in his: A: Upper back B: Neck C: Tailbone D: Lower back
75
75. What is one of the functions of the skeletal system? A: Forming the vital organs of the body B: Providing structure and points of attachment to blood vessels C: Producing blood cells D: Protecting all of the abdominal organs
76
76. A patient informs you that he must sprinkle artificial digestive enzymes on all his foods before eating them. Based on this information, which endocrine gland should you assume is dysfunctional? A: Thyroid B: Adrenal C: Pancreas D: Spleen
77
77. The Emergency Medical Technician shows correct understanding of the circulatory system when he identifies the primary function of the heart as: A: Oxygenating blood in the lungs B: Transferring oxygen to the cells C: Maintaining the volume of blood D: Pumping blood to the lungs and body
78
78. Which statement regarding the integumentary system is true? A: The skin protects the body against bacteria and other organisms. B: The epidermis is the thickest and most important layer of the skin. C: The dermal layer is the outermost layer of the skin and contains sensory nerves. D: The skin contains four layers: epidermal, dermal, subcutaneous, and nerve layer.
79
79. You are reading a patient care report written by your partner. Which sentence would cause you to tell your partner that you have found an error? A: “The patient was placed in Fowler’s position with the upper body elevated 45 degrees.” B: “The patient was in a lateral recumbent position so as to allow airway monitoring while en route to the hospital.” C: “The patient was placed in a face-up prone position.” D: “The patient was found in a supine position with his hips and legs flexed toward the core.”
80
80. The nervous system is anatomically (or structurally) subdivided into the: A: Involuntary and voluntary nervous systems B: Brain and vertebral column C: Central and peripheral nervous systems D: Skull and vertebral column Let me know if you’d like me to keep going!
81
81. What is the basic function of the respiratory system? A: Transport oxygen throughout the body B: Exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide with the environment C: Release oxygen from the body via hemoglobin sites D: Provide nutrients to the cells absorbed into the bloodstream
82
82. Which statement about the human anatomy is true? A: The shoulder is distal to the hand B: The knee is proximal to the ankle C: The hand is proximal to the elbow D: The hip is distal to the knee
83
83. A patient with bronchitis is experiencing: A: Infection of the alveoli B: Inflammation of the bronchi C: Fluid in the trachea and bronchioles D: Accumulation of mucus in the trachea
84
84. Which components of the nervous system must be functional for a patient to be conscious? A: One cerebral hemisphere and the pineal gland B: Both cerebral hemispheres C: The reticular activating system and pineal gland D: One cerebral hemisphere and the reticular activating system
85
85. As a patient provides you with her past medical history, which condition should you recognize as directly related to the endocrine system? A: Failure of the kidneys B: Removal of the thyroid C: Enlargement of the appendix D: Blockage of the gallbladder
86
86. What is the term that refers to the structure of the body? A: Metabolism B: Combining forms C: Physiology D: Anatomy
87
87. A new Emergency Medical Technician asks you why the elderly are at a higher risk for developing pneumonia, as compared to younger individuals. You inform him that one reason the elderly are more susceptible to respiratory infections is because of: A: Impaired swallowing of saliva B: Decreased cough reflex C: Hardening of the major arteries D: Decreased alveolar gas exchange
88
88. When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, which phase of the respiratory cycle happens? A: Retraction B: Expansion C: Inhalation D: Exhalation
89
89. Which organ(s) is (are) responsible for the production and secretion of the primary female hormone progesterone? A: Ovaries B: External genitals C: Uterus D: Testes
90
90. Accurately communicating patient injury information to other health care professionals is most reliant upon: A: A good knowledge of proper anatomic terminology B: A strong radio signal C: Properly placed cellular towers D: Good handwriting
91
91. A patient complains of pain to the upper jaw. This would be documented as pain in the: A: Maxilla B: Mastoid C: Mandible D: Zygoma
92
92. After you apply and use the automated external defibrillator, a patient regains his pulse and has adequate respirations. The paramedic asks you to place the patient in a lateral recumbent position. How should you position this patient? A: Supine with his head turned left B: On his back C: On his left side D: On his stomach
93
93. A patient with kidney failure has lost his ability to: A: Absorb nutrients B: Digest fatty foods C: Produce all hormones D: Filter and excrete wastes
94
94. An example of a pivot joint of the body would be: A: Where the first and second vertebrae meet B: Where the femur joins the pelvis C: Where the radius and ulna meet the humerus D: Where the ankle meets the tibia and ulna
95
95. Which plane divides the body into right and left halves when viewing it from the front? A: Anterior axillary plane B: Midaxillary plane C: Midsagittal plane D: Coronal plane
96
96. A patient who has had both her thyroid and parathyroid glands removed would most likely have difficulty with: A: Maintaining strong and healthy bones B: Regulating blood sugar C: Producing the hormones that govern sex characteristics D: Maintaining an adequate blood pressure
97
97. A patient has taken a medication that increases the activity of his sympathetic nervous system. Which sign or symptom would the Emergency Medical Technician expect to find? A: Low blood pressure B: Dilated pupils C: Decreased heart rate D: Dry and flushed skin
98
98. The bones of the upper extremities include the: A: Radius, ulna, and tarsals B: Phalanges and tibia C: Humerus and radius D: Humerus and calcaneus
99
99. A patient with asthma is short of breath because her bronchiole airways are constricted. For this patient, the best medication is one that has which sympathetic (adrenergic) properties? A: Beta-2 B: Beta-1 C: Alpha-2 D: Alpha-1
100
100. A female patient has a muscular disease and cannot walk, so she requires a wheelchair. Because the patient cannot ambulate by her own will, you would recognize that the muscles involved are: A: Smooth B: Cardiac C: Voluntary D: Involuntary
101
101. Which portion of the heart is in failure when it can no longer effectively pump blood to the lungs? A: Right ventricle B: Left ventricle C: Left atrium D: Pulmonary vein
102
102. The infant airway differs from the adult airway in that: A: The infant’s epiglottis is smaller and located behind the esophagus B: The infant’s trachea is highly rigid and less flexible to movement C: The infant’s tongue takes up proportionately more space in the mouth D: All of the infant’s respiratory structures are proportionally smaller and more easily obstructed
103
103. A psychologically disturbed patient decided to kill himself by shooting himself in the head. The bullet entered the right temporal lobe and exited the skull on the opposite side. If this patient is unresponsive, what is the most likely cause? A: Both cerebral hemispheres are damaged B: The patient has likely lost too much blood C: The endocrine system (hypothalamus) has failed D: The cerebellum is damaged
104
104. A patient with ataxia presents with: A: Improper muscle contraction B: Being unable to speak C: Having difficulty breathing D: Exhibiting a painful cough
105
105. In the healthy heart, the electrical impulses that cause normal contraction of the cardiac muscle are initiated in the: A: Ventricles B: Sinoatrial node C: Bundle branches D: Left atrium
106
106. The terms “occipital,” “parietal,” and “frontal” can refer collectively to which part of the body? A: Chest B: Pelvis C: Spine D: Cranium
107
107. For the lungs to oxygenate blood, there must be blood flow provided by the right ventricle to the alveoli. This is an example of which principle? A: Anatomic actions B: Anatomy C: Physiology D: Pathophysiology