Chapter 66 Flashcards

1
Q

First line agents for AF rate control

A

Beta blocker
CCB: verapamil, diltiazem

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2
Q

Beta blockers for SND + tachy-brady syndrome (2)

A

Pindolol
Acebutolol

intrinsic sympathomimetic activity- provide rate control without aggravating sinus bradycardia

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3
Q

True of digitalis:
A. Works mainly by decreasing vagal tone
B. Recommended as alternative for rate control
C. Increases risk of all-cause mortality in AF
D. Works adequately in exertional tachycardia

A

C

Digitalis:
does not provide adequate rate control during exertion
works mainly by increasing vagal tone
no longer recommended for rate control except in patients with heart failure
increase the risk of all-cause mortality
Guidelines recommend digoxin for rate control only in patients with heart failure
ADD: from MS chapter
Ivabradine - decreases HR during exercise, but do not decrease LA-LV gradient
BB- decreases LA-LV gradient, no effect on exercise

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4
Q

Name the Trial:
Class IIb recommendation for catheter ablation of AF in asymptomatic patients

A

CABANA trial

No difference in the primary end-point
Secondary end-point of death or cardiovascular hospitalization was significantly lower in the ablation arm than the medical arm
CASTLE AF STUDY- Primary composite endpoint of death from any cause or hospitalization for worsening heart failure was lower in the ablation arm

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5
Q

True of Amiodarone:
A. First line agent in rhythm control of AF
B. Belongs to Class III anti-arrhythmic drug
C. First line anti-arrhythmic in HF patients only
D. All of the above

A

B

Risk of organ toxicity associated with long-term therapy:
Amiodarone can be an appropriate choice for rate control if the other agents are not tolerated or are ineffective
An appropriate choice for a patient with persistent AF, heart failure, and reactive airway disease who cannot tolerate either a CCB or a BB and who has a rapid ventricular rate despite treatment with digitalis
class IIb recommendation in the 2014 ACC/AHA/HRS AF Guidelines

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6
Q

Classof anti-arrhythmics with QT-prolonging side effects resulting to Torsades de Pointes:
A. Class II
B. Class Ia
C. Class III
D. B and C

A

D

Class Ia agents (quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide)
(sotalol,
Class III agents (dofetilide, dronedarone, amiodarone)

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7
Q

Risk factors for developing prolonged QT among patients on AAD (4)

A

Female
LV dysfunction
Hypokalemia
Concomitant use of QT-prolonging drug

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8
Q

AF is associated with the following by how many times?
1. Cerebrovascular accident (stroke)
2. All-cause mortality
3. Cognitive dysfunction
4. Stroke in post-op AF

A

5
2
2
2

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9
Q

Name the trial:
sustained weight loss and exercise decreases AF burden

A

LEGACY

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10
Q

The only percutaneous occlusion device approved by
the FDA specifically for stroke prevention as an
alternative to warfarin

A

WATCHMAN device

nitinol plug covered with fenestrated fabric
After implantation, anticoagulation with warfarin is recommended for at least 45 days
DOACs can be used instead of warfarin

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11
Q

Device approved by FDA for soft tissue approximation (not stroke prevention)

A

LARIAT

Percutaneous or surgical LAA occlusion are class IIa and IIb recommendations in situations where anticoagulation is contraindicated.

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12
Q

AAD used to lowers the defibrillation energy requirement & improves the success rate of transthoracic cardioversion

A

Ibutilide

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13
Q

ORAL agents for acute conversion of AF

A

Propafenone (300 to 600 mg)
Flecainide (100 to 200 mg).

Flecainide-surveillance on first use due to pronounced post conversion pause
-“pill-in-the-pocket” approach
Both have increase propensity for ventricular fibrillation in the setting of myocardial ischemia or infarction- NOT RECOMMENDED IN CAD

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14
Q

Risk of torsades de pointes appears to be much lower
with these Class III AAD

A

dronedarone and amiodarone

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15
Q

minimally invasive procedure used to treat resistant hypertension that is associated with a significant reduction in both BP and AF burden at 12 months’ follow-up

A

Renal denervation

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16
Q

Cause of AF in diabetes (2)

A

Probably because of fibrotic changes in the atria and downregulation of connexin-43

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17
Q

Cause of AF with alcohol intake (2)

A

Direct cellular effects on atrial myocytes with acute
oxidative stress, and also from activation of the
sympathetic nervous system

abstinence from alcohol results in a
reduction in AF burden

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18
Q

BMI target for AF reduction among obese

A

Goal of weight loss ideally should be a BMI of
≤27 kg/m2

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19
Q

Role of ablation in AF

A

Palliative measure

AF ablation should NOT be
considered a “cure” for AF but rather a palliative measure to keep the patient in sinus rhythm for as long as possible

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20
Q

Optimal ablation technique for eliminating
triggers and drivers of AF

A

electrical isolation of PV

21
Q

Name the trial: outcomes of AF ablation were similar in the cryoballoon and RF arms of the study.

A

CIRCA-DoSE TRIAL

AF burden reduced by approximately 98%.

22
Q

What is a strong
independent predictor of durable PV isolation?

A

Disappearance or dissociation of PV potentials within the first minute of a cryoenergy application is a strong
independent predictor of durable PV isolation.

other predictors:
oTemperature recorded by a thermocouple proximal to the balloon of at least −40°C within 60 seconds of an application of cryoenergy
oan interval thaw time to 0°C of >10 seconds upon completion of a cryoenergy application.

23
Q

What is the most feared complication of AF ablation?

A

atrial-esophageal fistula

oChest CT with intravenous contrast is the diagnostic test of choice.
- contrast in the esophagusor air in the mediastinum or cardiac chambers is indicative of an esophageal perforation or fistula formation.

24
Q

How to reduce risk of causing atrial-esophageal fistula during ablation?

A

Limiting the power of RF energy applications to 20 to
25 watts for < 30 seconds when ablating along the posterior left atrial wall

25
The only proven benefit of AF ablation?
Improvement in quality of life
26
Class I indication for AF ablation?
Symptomatic Paroxysmal AF nonresponsive to at least one medication ## Footnote patients with symptomatic paroxysmal AF who have not responded well to least one antiarrhythmic medication
27
What is the advantage of surgical ablation to catheter ablation?
Greater efficacy but it is associated with a higher rate of complications (permanent pacemaker) ## Footnote Cox maze- cryoablation energy delivered with a handheld probe is used to create linear lesions. Mini maze- Stand-alone surgical AF (surgical ablation) Hybrid AF ablation- operator preference
28
Peak incidence of post-op AF
2nd post-op day
29
Risk factors for AF after open heart surgery: (8)
Matandang matabang lalaki na maraming comorbidities ## Footnote age over 70 years, history of prior AF, male sex, left ventricular dysfunction, left atrial enlargement, chronic lung disease, diabetes obesity
30
Prophylactic treatment to reduce incidence of AF after open heart surgery (3)
amiodarone, sotalol, or beta blockers
31
Ways to reduce post-op AF apart from medical treatment:
Right atrial or biatrial pacing using temporary electrodes ## Footnote colchicine, statins, and steroids- variable results
32
Therapy that reduces post-op AF until 3 years post CABG
injection of botulinum toxin into the four major epicardial fat pads at operation ## Footnote Causes temporary autonomic blockade, Has been shown to decrease incidence of AF after CABG to < 10% and reduced the AF burden for up three years after surgery
33
True/False? Rhythm control is the goal in post-op AF.
FALSE ## Footnote Patients who develop postoperative AF can be managed using a rate- or rhythm-control strategy. oTrial: no significant differences between the two strategies in the number of days of hospitalization, mortality, or adverse events.
34
AF that occurs after cardiac surgery often resolves until _____.
3 months
35
When to discontinue anticoagulation in post-op AF?
60-90 days after OR ## Footnote Because new-onset AF after cardiac surgery often does not recur after 60 to 90 days, rhythm- control medications can be discontinued at that time
36
AAD with neutral effect on mortality especially among HF (2)
amiodarone dofetilide ## Footnote class IIb recommendation for AF ablation in patients with HF Amiodarone and dofetilide can be used to help maintain sinus rhythm after sinus rhythm is restored by cardioversion.
37
Safest first-line options for rhythm control in CAD (DDS)
dronedarone dofetilide sotalol ## Footnote Amiodarone - 2nd line
38
TRUE/FALSE CHA2DS2-VASC scoring is not applicable in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
TRUE ## Footnote Because of a high risk of thromboembolic complications, anticoagulation is indicated in AF patients with HCM, independent of the CHA2DS2- VASc score
39
TRUE/FALSE CHA2DS2-VASC scoring is not applicable in pregnant women.
FALSE ## Footnote The decision to anticoagulate a pregnant woman with AF should be made using the same criteria as in nonpregnant women.
40
Anticoagulation in pregnancy
1st trimester and final month of pregnancy: LMWH 2nd trimester until 1 month before the due date: Warfarin
41
TRUE/FALSE Transthoracic cardioversion is considered safe at all stages of pregnancy.
TRUE
42
Recommended rate control agent among pregnant?
digoxin ## Footnote if ineffective, beta blocker can be used (but only after the first trimester)
43
Choice of rhythm control for patients with structural heart disease
amiodarone
44
Choice of rhythm control for patients without structural heart disease (2)
flecainide and sotalol
45
Efficacy rate of catheter ablation in WPW
95%
46
Preferred AAD for pharmacologic cardioversion among patients with WPW
Procainamide ## Footnote blocks accessory pathway conduction and slows the ventricular rate before AF has converted to sinus rhythm.
47
Contraindicated in patients with WPW syndrome and AF
Digitalis CCB ## Footnote Selectively block conduction in the AV node, hence conduction accelerates via the accesory pathway
48
Mechanism of AF in WPW
AV reciprocating tachycardia that degenerates into AF ## Footnote AF typically no longer recurs after successful accessory pathway ablation