CHAPTER 61: SCI and Neurogenic Shock Flashcards

1
Q
The nurse is caring for a patient admitted 1 week ago with an acute spinal cord injury. Which of the following assessment findings would alert the nurse to the presence of autonomic dysreflexia?
A) Tachycardia
B) Hypotension
C) Hot, dry skin
D) Throbbing headache
A
Correct Answer(s): D
Autonomic dysreflexia is related to reflex stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system reflected by hypertension, bradycardia, throbbing headache, and diaphoresis.
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2
Q

When planning care for a patient with a C5 spinal cord injury, which nursing diagnosis is the highest priority?
A) Risk for impairment of tissue integrity caused by paralysis
B) Altered patterns of urinary elimination caused by quadriplegia
C) Altered family and individual coping caused by the extent of trauma
D) Ineffective airway clearance caused by high cervical spinal cord injury

A
Correct Answer(s): D
Maintaining a patent airway is the most important goal for a patient with a high cervical fracture. Although all of these are appropriate nursing diagnoses for a patient with a spinal cord injury, respiratory needs are always the highest priority. Remember the ABCs.
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3
Q

Which of the following signs and symptoms in a patient with a T4 spinal cord injury should alert the nurse to the possibility of autonomic dysreflexia?
A) Headache and rising blood pressure
B) Irregular respirations and shortness of breath
C) Decreased level of consciousness or hallucinations
D) Abdominal distention and absence of bowel sounds

A
Correct Answer(s): A
Among the manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia are hypertension (up to 300 mm Hg systolic) and a throbbing headache. Respiratory manifestations, decreased level of consciousness, and gastrointestinal manifestations are not characteristic.
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4
Q

Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform in the acute care of a patient with autonomic dysreflexia?
A) Urinary catheterization
B) Administration of benzodiazepines
C) Suctioning of the patient’s upper airway
D) Placement of the patient in the Trendelenburg position

A
Correct Answer(s): A
Because the most common cause of autonomic dysreflexia is bladder irritation, immediate catheterization to relieve bladder distention may be necessary. The patient should be positioned upright. Benzodiazepines are contraindicated and suctioning is likely unnecessary.
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5
Q
Nurse is assessing a patient who has a spinal cord injury?Which should the nurse include in the nervous system assessment to determine the extent of the patient's injury? 
select all that apply.
a. vital sign
b. romberg test
c. plantar reflexes
d. bilatereal hand grasps
e. description of trauma
A

Correct Answer (s): a, c, d, e
the assessment to determine the level of spinal cord injury includes analyzing the -vital sign, plantar reflexes, bilatereal hand grasp, description of trauma.
Romberg test must be performed while standing therefore not suitable for unstable patient

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6
Q

Which nursing action will the home health nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with paraplegia in order to prevent autonomic dysreflexia?

a. Assist with selection of a high protein diet.
b. Use quad coughing to assist cough effort.
c. Discuss options for sexuality and fertility.
d. Teach the purpose of a prescribed bowel program.

A

ANS: D
Fecal impaction is a common stimulus for autonomic dysreflexia. The other actions may be included in the plan of care but will not reduce the risk for autonomic dysreflexia.

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7
Q

A patient with a neck fracture at the C5 level is admitted to the intensive care unit. During initial assessment of the patient, the nurse recognizes the presence of neurogenic shock on finding

a. hypotension, bradycardia, and warm extremities.
b. involuntary, spastic movements of the arms and legs.
c. hyperactive reflex activity below the level of the injury.
d. lack of movement or sensation below the level of the injury.

A

ANS: A
Neurogenic shock is characterized by hypotension, bradycardia, and vasodilation leading to warm skin temperature. Spasticity and hyperactive reflexes do not occur at this stage of spinal cord injury. Lack of movement and sensation indicate spinal cord injury, but not neurogenic shock.

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8
Q

A patient has an incomplete right spinal cord lesion at the level of T7, resulting in Brown-Squard syndrome. Which nursing action should be included in the plan of care?

a. Assessment of the patient for left leg pain
b. Assessment of the patient for left arm weakness
c. Positioning the patients right leg when turning the patient
d. Teaching the patient to look at the left leg to verify its position

A

ANS: C
The patient with Brown-Squard syndrome has loss of motor function on the ipsilateral side and will require the nurse to move the right leg. Pain sensation will be lost on the patients left leg. Left arm weakness will not be a problem for a patient with a T7 injury. The patient will retain position sense for the left leg.

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9
Q

A patient with a T1 spinal cord injury is admitted to the intensive care unit. The nurse will teach the patient and family that

a. use of the shoulders will be preserved.
b. full function of the patients arms will be retained.
c. total loss of respiratory function may occur temporarily.
d. elevations in heart rate are common with this type of injury.

A

ANS: B
The patient with a T1 injury can expect to retain full motor and sensory function of the arms. Use of only the shoulders is associated with cervical spine injury. Loss of respiratory function occurs with cervical spine injuries. Bradycardia is associated with injuries above the T6 level.

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10
Q

A patient with paraplegia resulting from a T10 spinal cord injury has a neurogenic reflex bladder. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care?

a. Educate on the use of the Cred method.
b. Teach the patient how to self-catheterize.
c. Catheterize for residual urine after voiding.
d. Assist the patient to the toilet every 2 hours.

A

ANS: B
Because the patients bladder is spastic and will empty in response to overstretching of the bladder wall, the most appropriate method is to avoid incontinence by emptying the bladder at regular intervals through intermittent catheterization. Assisting the patient to the toilet will not be helpful because the bladder will not empty. The Cred method is more appropriate for a bladder that is flaccid, such as occurs with a reflexic neurogenic bladder. Catheterization after voiding will not resolve the patients incontinence.

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11
Q

A patient who sustained a spinal cord injury a week ago becomes angry, telling the nurse I want to be transferred to a hospital where the nurses know what they are doing! Which reaction by the nurse is best?

a. Ask for the patients input into the plan for care.
b. Clarify that abusive behavior will not be tolerated.
c. Reassure the patient about the competence of the nursing staff.
d. Continue to perform care without responding to the patients comments.

A

ANS: A
The patient is demonstrating behaviors consistent with the anger phase of the mourning process, and the nurse should allow expression of anger and seek the patients input into care. Expression of anger is appropriate at this stage and should be tolerated by the nurse. Reassurance about the competency of the staff will not be helpful in responding to the patients anger. Ignoring the patients comments will increase the patients anger and sense of helplessness.

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12
Q

After a 25-year-old patient has returned home following rehabilitation for a spinal cord injury, the home care nurse notes that the spouse is performing many of the activities that the patient had been managing during rehabilitation. The most appropriate action by the nurse at this time is to

a. tell the spouse that the patient can perform activities independently.
b. remind the patient about the importance of independence in daily activities.
c. develop a plan to increase the patients independence in consultation with the patient and the spouse.
d. recognize that it is important for the spouse to be involved in the patients care and support the spouses participation.

A

ANS: C
The best action by the nurse will be to involve all the parties in developing an optimal plan of care. Because family members who will be assisting with the patients ongoing care need to feel that their input is important, telling the spouse that the patient can perform activities independently is not the best choice. Reminding the patient about the importance of independence may not change the behaviors of the spouse. Supporting the activities of the spouse will lead to ongoing dependency by the patient.

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13
Q
A patient has impairments from a SCI at C4 classified as incomplete C on the American Spinal Injury Association, (ASIA) Impairment Sclae. Which patient assessment is the nurse likely to observe in this patient?
A. poor propricopetor in the legs
B. poor peristalsis in the intestines
C. Absent gag and blinking reflexes
D. Absent bladder fulness sensation
A

Answer is B
A patient who has a SCI has neurologic impairment to all extremities and the diaphragm. However, because the injury is C on the ASIA impairment Scale, sensory function can be intact but motor function will be impaired significantly or absent.the patient can lose moderate to complete peristaltic action in the intestines but should retaine the ability to sense bladder fulness and the position of the legs.

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14
Q
The nurse admnisters methylprenisone(Solu-Medrol) as a continous IV fusion to a male patient who has fractures of the cervical vertebrae. Which intervention would prevent or detect adverse effects of the medication?
A. record pt baseline weight
B. adminster PPI( proton pump inhibitor)
C. Check the hear rate for bradycardia 
D. suction the patient's oropharynx
A
Correct Answer(s): B
the nurse should adminster PPI because they are at high risk for Gi erosion and bleeding. from the steroid.
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15
Q
A male patient has a pinal cord injury at L 1-2 . Which clinical manifestation of the patient's injury is the nurse likely to observe before spinal shock resolves?
A. opoiod analgesic Iv for foot pain
B. able to blance in sitting position
C. unresponsive quadriceps muscle
D. requites assist control ventilation
A
Correct Answer(s) : C 
during spinal shock neuromuscular function is lost below the level of the injury along with hyporeflexia and loss of sensation. So the pt will not be able to sit until the spinal shock resolves.
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16
Q

When caring for a patient who was admitted 24 hours previously with a C5 spinal cord injury, which nursing action has the highest priority?

a. Assessment of respiratory rate and depth
b. Continuous cardiac monitoring for bradycardia
c. Application of pneumatic compression devices to both legs
d. Administration of methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) infusion

A

ANS: A
Edema around the area of injury may lead to damage above the C4 level, so the highest priority is assessment of the patients respiratory function. The other actions also are appropriate but are not as important as assessment of respiratory effort.

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17
Q

When caring for a patient who had a C8 spinal cord injury 10 days ago and has a weak cough effort and loose-sounding secretions, the initial intervention by the nurse should be to

a. suction the patients oral and pharyngeal airway.
b. administer oxygen at 7 to 9 L/min with a face mask.
c. place the hands on the epigastric area and push upward when the patient coughs.
d. encourage the patient to use an incentive spirometer every 2 hours during the day.

A

ANS: C
Since the cough effort is poor, the initial action should be to use assisted coughing techniques to improve the ability to mobilize secretions. Administration of oxygen will improve oxygenation, but the data do not indicate hypoxemia. The use of the spirometer may improve respiratory status, but the patients ability to take deep breaths is limited by the loss of intercostal muscle function. Suctioning may be needed if the patient is unable to expel secretions by coughing but should not be the nurses first action.

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18
Q

To evaluate the effectiveness of IV methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) given to a patient with a T4 spinal cord injury, which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

a. Leg strength and sensation
b. Skin temperature and color
c. Blood pressure and apical heart rate
d. Respiratory effort and O2 saturation

A

ANS: A
The purpose of methylprednisolone administration is to help preserve motor function and sensation. Therefore the nurse will assess this patient for lower extremity function. The other data also will be collected by the nurse, but they do not reflect the effectiveness of the methylprednisolone.

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19
Q

A patient with a history of a T2 spinal cord injury tells the nurse, I feel awful today. My head is throbbing, and I feel sick to my stomach. Which action should the nurse take first?

a. Assess for a fecal impaction.
b. Give the prescribed antiemetic.
c. Check the blood pressure (BP).
d. Notify the health care provider.

A

ANS: C
The BP should be assessed immediately in a patient with an injury at the T6 level or higher who complains of a headache to determine whether autonomic dysreflexia is occurring. Notification of the patients health care provider is appropriate after the BP is obtained. Administration of an antiemetic is indicated after autonomic dysreflexia is ruled out as the cause of the nausea. The nurse may assess for a fecal impaction, but this should be done after checking the BP and lidocaine jelly should be used to prevent further increases in the BP.

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20
Q

The nurse is assessing a patient who is being evaluated for a possible spinal cord tumor. Which finding by the nurse requires the most immediate action?

a. The patient has new onset weakness of both legs.
b. The patient complains of chronic severe back pain.
c. The patient starts to cry and says, I feel hopeless.
d. The patient expresses anxiety about having surgery

A

ANS: A
The new onset of symptoms indicates cord compression, an emergency that requires rapid treatment to avoid permanent loss of function. The other patient assessments also indicate a need for nursing action but do not require intervention as rapidly as the new onset weakness.

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21
Q

A 26-year-old patient with a T3 spinal cord injury asks the nurse about whether he will be able to be sexually active. Which initial response by the nurse is best?

a. Reflex erections frequently occur, but orgasm may not be possible.
b. Sildenafil (Viagra) is used by many patients with spinal cord injury.
c. Multiple options are available to maintain sexuality after spinal cord injury.
d. Penile injection, prostheses, or vacuum suction devices are possible options.

A

ANS: C
Although sexuality will be changed by the patients spinal cord injury, there are options for expression of sexuality and for fertility. The other information also is correct, but the choices will depend on the degrees of injury and the patients individual feelings about sexuality.

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22
Q

When caring for a patient who experienced a T1 spinal cord transsection 2 days ago, which collaborative and nursing actions will the nurse include in the plan of care (select all that apply)?

a. Urinary catheter care
b. Nasogastric (NG) tube feeding
c. Continuous cardiac monitoring
d. Avoidance of cool room temperature
e. Administration of H2 receptor blockers

A

ANS: A, C, D, E
The patient is at risk for bradycardia and poikilothermia caused by sympathetic nervous system dysfunction and should have continuous cardiac monitoring and maintenance of a relatively warm room temperature. Gastrointestinal (GI) motility is decreased initially and NG suctioning is indicated. To avoid bladder distention, a urinary retention catheter is used during this acute phase. Stress ulcers are a common complication but can be avoided through the use of the H2 receptor blockers such as famotidine.

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23
Q

In which order will the nurse perform the following actions when caring for a patient with possible C6 spinal cord trauma who is admitted to the emergency department? Put a comma and space between each answer choice (a, b, c, d, etc.) ____________________

a. Infuse normal saline at 150 mL/hr.
b. Monitor cardiac rhythm and blood pressure.
c. Administer O2 using a non-rebreather mask.
d. Transfer the patient to radiology for spinal computed tomography (CT).
e. Immobilize the patients head, neck, and spine.

A

E, C, B, A, D

The first action should be to prevent further injury by stabilizing the patients spinal cord. Maintenance of oxygenation by administration of 100% O2 is the second priority. Because neurogenic shock is a possible complication, monitoring of heart rhythm and BP are indicated, followed by infusing normal saline for volume replacement. A CT scan to determine the extent and level of injury is needed once initial assessment and stabilization are accomplished.

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24
Q
A female nurse is injured in an automobile accident and suffers acute compresssion of the anterior apinal cord at T8-10 Which nursing rols is a potential source of employment for the patients after completing rehabilitation ?
A. Certified nurse practioner
B. Community health nursing
C. Hospital case mangement
D. Inpatient behavioral health
A

Correct C. Hospital case management(s)
the nurse in most likely to have an anterior cord syndrome resulting in the loss of neuromuscular and pain and temp sensation below t8. Pt will have full use of upper extremities , upper back, and resp muscles.thus she will be in a wheel chair.

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25
Q
A 70 yr old patient who has a spinal cord injury at C8 resulting in central cord syndrome. Which effect of the patient's most likely to be life threatening after completeing rehabiliation?
A. increased bone density loss
B. higher tisk for tissue hpoxia
C. vasomotor compensation lost
D. Weakness of thoracic muscles
A
Correct Answer(s): D
Weakness of thoracic muscle is most likely to cause life-threatening complications because affects patients oxygenation and ventilation.
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26
Q

A patient with a neck fracture at the C5 level is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) following initial treatment in the emergency room. During initial assessment of the patient, the nurse recognizes the presence of spinal shock on finding

a. hypotension, bradycardia, and warm extremities.
b. involuntary, spastic movements of the arms and legs.
c. the presence of hyperactive reflex activity below the level of the injury.
d. flaccid paralysis and lack of sensation below the level of the injury.

A
Correct Answer(s): D
Rationale: Clinical manifestations of spinal shock include decreased reflexes, loss of sensation, and flaccid paralysis below the area of injury. Hypotension, bradycardia, and warm extremities are evidence of neurogenic shock. Involuntary spastic movements and hyperactive reflexes are not seen in the patient at this stage of spinal cord injury.
27
Q

When caring for a patient who had a C8 spinal cord injury 10 days ago and has a weak cough effort, bibasilar crackles, and decreased breath sounds, the initial intervention by the nurse should be to

a. administer oxygen at 7 to 9 L/min with a face mask.
b. place the hands on the epigastric area and push upward when the patient coughs.
c. encourage the patient to use an incentive spirometer every 2 hours during the day.
d. suction the patient’s oral and pharyngeal airway.

A
Correct Answer(s): B
Rationale: The nurse has identified that the cough effort is poor, so the initial action should be to use assisted coughing techniques to improve the ability to mobilize secretions. Administration of oxygen will improve oxygenation, but the data do not indicate hypoxemia, and oxygen will not help expel respiratory secretions. The use of the spirometer may improve respiratory status, but the patient's ability to take deep breaths is limited by the loss of intercostal muscle function. Suctioning may be needed if the patient is unable to expel secretions by coughing but should not be the nurse's first action.
28
Q

A 26-year-old patient with a C8 spinal cord injury tells the nurse, “My wife and I have always had a very active sex life, and I am worried that she may leave me if I cannot function sexually.” The most appropriate response by the nurse to the patient’s comment is to

a. advise the patient to talk to his wife to determine how she feels about his sexual function.
b. tell the patient that sildenafil (Viagra) helps to decrease erectile dysfunction in patients with spinal cord injury.
c. inform the patient that most patients with upper motor neuron injuries have reflex erections.
d. suggest that the patient and his wife work with a nurse specially trained in sexual counseling.

A
Correct Answer(s): D
Rationale: Maintenance of sexuality is an important aspect of rehabilitation after spinal cord injury and should be handled by someone with expertise in sexual counseling. Although the patient should discuss these issues with his wife, open communication about this issue may be difficult without the assistance of a counselor. Sildenafil does assist with erectile dysfunction after spinal cord injury, but the patient's sexuality is not determined solely by the ability to have an erection. Reflex erections are common after upper motor neuron injury, but these erections are uncontrolled and cannot be maintained during coitus.
29
Q

The nurse is caring for a man who has experienced a spinal cord injury. Throughout his recovery, the client expects to gain control of his bowels. The nurse’s best response to this client would be which of the following?
a. “Over time, the nerve fibers will regrow new tracts, and you can have bowel movements again.”
b. “Wearing an undergarment will become more comfortable over time.”
c “Having a bowel movement is a spinal reflex requiring intact nerve fibers. Yours are not intact.”
d “It is not going to happen. Your nerve cells are too damaged.”

A
Correct Answer(s: ) C 
Having a bowel movement is a spinal reflex requiring intact nerve fibers. Yours are not intact 
The act of defecation is a spinal reflex involving the parasympathetic nerve fibers. Normally, the external anal sphincter is maintained in a state of tonic contraction. With a spinal cord injury, the client no longer has this nervous system control and is often incontinent.
30
Q

The nurse will explain to the patient who has a T2 spinal cord transection injury that

a. use of the shoulders will be limited.
b. function of both arms should be retained.
c. total loss of respiratory function may occur.
d. tachycardia is common with this type of injury.

A

ANS: B
The patient with a T2 injury can expect to retain full motor and sensory function of the arms. Use of only the shoulders is associated with cervical spine injury. Loss of respiratory function occurs with cervical spine injuries. Bradycardia is associated with injuries above the T6 level.

31
Q

A client with a C6 spinal injury would most likely have which of the following symptoms?

A: Aphasia
B: Hemiparesis
C:Paraplegia
D: Tetraplegia

A

D
Tetraplegia occurs as a result of cervical spine injuries. Paraplegia occurs as a result of injury to the thoracic cord and below.

32
Q

A 30-year-old was admitted to the progressive care unit with a C5 fracture from a motorcycle accident. Which of the following assessments would take priority?

A Bladder distension
B Neurological deficit
C pulse ox readings
D The client’s feelings about the injury

A

C

After a spinal cord injury, ascending cord edema may cause a higher level of injury. The diaphragm is innervated at the level of C4, so assessment of adequate oxygenation and ventilation is necessary. Although the other options would be necessary at a later time, observation for respiratory failure is the priority.

33
Q

While in the ER, a client with C8 tetraplegia develops a blood pressure of 80/40, pulse 48, and RR of 18. The nurse suspects which of the following conditions?

A Autonomic dysreflexia
B Hemorrhagic shock
C Neurogenic shock
D Pulmonary embolism

A

C

Symptoms of neurogenic shock include hypotension, bradycardia, and warm, dry skin due to the loss of adrenergic stimulation below the level of the lesion. Hypertension, bradycardia, flushing, and sweating of the skin are seen with autonomic dysreflexia. Hemorrhagic shock presents with anxiety, tachycardia, and hypotension; this wouldn’t be suspected without an injury. Pulmonary embolism presents with chest pain, hypotension, hypoxemia, tachycardia, and hemoptysis; this may be a later complication of spinal cord injury due to immobility.

34
Q

A client is admitted with a spinal cord injury at the level of T12. He has limited movement of his upper extremities. Which of the following medications would be used to control edema of the spinal cord?

A Acetazolamide (Diamox)
B Furosemide (Lasix)
C Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)
D Sodium Bicarbonate
A

C
High doses of Solu-Medrol are used within 24 hours of spinal injury to reduce cord swelling and limit neurological deficit. The other drugs aren’t indicated in this circumstance.

35
Q

A 22-year-old client with quadriplegia is apprehensive and flushed, with a blood pressure of 210/100 and a heart rate of 50 bpm. Which of the following nursing interventions should be done first?

A Place the client flat in bed
B Assess patency of the indwelling urinary catheter
C Give one SL nitroglycerin tablet
D raise the head of the bed immediately to 90 degrees

A

D

Anxiety, flushing above the level of the lesion, piloerection, hypertension, and bradycardia are symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia, typically caused by such noxious stimuli such as a full bladder, fecal impaction, or decubitus ulcer. Putting the client flat will cause the blood pressure to increase even more. The indwelling urinary catheter should be assessed immediately after the HOB is raised. Nitroglycerin is given to reduce chest pain and reduce preload; it isn’t used for hypertension or dysreflexia.

36
Q

A client with a cervical spine injury has Gardner-Wells tongs inserted for which of the following reasons?

A To hasten wound healing
B To immobilize the cervical spine
C To prevent autonomic dysreflexia
D To hold bony fragments of the skull together

A

B

Gardner-Wells, Vinke, and Crutchfield tongs immobilize the spine until surgical stabilization is accomplished.

37
Q

Which of the following interventions describes an appropriate bladder program for a client in rehabilitation for spinal cord injury?

A Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to straight drainage
B Schedule intermittent catheterization every 2 to 4 hours
C Perform a straight catheterization every 8 hours while awake
D Perform Crede’s maneuver to the lower abdomen before the client voids.

A

B
Intermittent catherization should begin every 2 to 4 hours early in the treatment. When residual volume is less than 400 ml, the schedule may advance to every 4 to 6 hours. Indwelling catheters may predispose the client to infection and are removed as soon as possible. Crede’s maneuver is not used on people with spinal cord injury.

38
Q

Which of the following clients on the rehab unit is most likely to develop autonomic dysreflexia?

A A client with a brain injury
B A client with a herniated nucleus pulposus
C A client with a high cervical spine injury
DA client with a stroke

A

C
Autonomic dysreflexia refers to uninhibited sympathetic outflow in clients with spinal cord injuries about the level of T10. The other clients aren’t prone to dysreflexia.

39
Q

Which of the following conditions indicates that spinal shock is resolving in a client with C7 quadriplegia?

A Absence of pain sensation in chest
B Spasticity
C Spontaneous respirations
D Urinary continence

A

B
Spasticity, the return of reflexes, is a sign of resolving shock. Spinal or neurogenic shock is characterized by hypotension, bradycardia, dry skin, flaccid paralysis, or the absence of reflexes below the level of injury. The absence of pain sensation in the chest doesn’t apply to spinal shock. Spinal shock descends from the injury, and respiratory difficulties occur at C4 and above.

40
Q

During an episode of autonomic dysreflexia in which the client becomes hypertensive, the nurse should perform which of the following interventions?

A Elevate the client’s legs
B Put the client flat in bed
C Put the client in the Trendelenburg’s position
D Put the client in the high-Fowler’s position

A

D

Putting the client in the high-Fowler’s position will decrease cerebral blood flow, decreasing hypertension. Elevating the client’s legs, putting the client flat in bed, or putting the bed in the Trendelenburg’s position places the client in positions that improve cerebral blood flow, worsening hypertension.

41
Q

A client with a T1 spinal cord injury arrives at the emergency department with a BP of 82/40, pulse 34, dry skin, and flaccid paralysis of the lower extremities. Which of the following conditions would most likely be suspected?

A Autonomic dysreflexia
B Hypervolemia
C Neurogenic shock
D Sepsis

A

C

Loss of sympathetic control and unopposed vagal stimulation below the level of injury typically cause hypotension, bradycardia, pallor, flaccid paralysis, and warm, dry skin in the client in neurogenic shock. Hypervolemia is indicated by rapid and bounding pulse and edema. Autonomic dysreflexia occurs after neurogenic shock abates. Signs of sepsis would include elevated temperature, increased heart rate, and increased respiratory rate.

42
Q

A client has a cervical spine injury at the level of C5. Which of the following conditions would the nurse anticipate during the acute phase?

A Absent corneal reflex
B Decerebrate posturing
C Movement of only the right or left half of the body
D The need for mechanical ventilation

A

D

The diaphragm is stimulated by nerves at the level of C4. Initially, this client may need mechanical ventilation due to cord edema. This may resolve in time. Absent corneal reflexes, decerebrate posturing, and hemiplegia occur with brain injuries, not spinal cord injuries.

43
Q

A client with C7 quadriplegia is flushed and anxious and complains of a pounding headache. Which of the following symptoms would also be anticipated?

A Decreased urine output or oliguria
B Hypertension and bradycardia
C Respiratory depression
D Symptoms of shock

A

B

Hypertension, bradycardia, anxiety, blurred vision, and flushing above the lesion occur with autonomic dysreflexia due to uninhibited sympathetic nervous system discharge. The other options are incorrect

44
Q
A 40-year-old paraplegic must perform intermittent catheterization of the bladder. Which of the following instructions should be given?
A
"Clean the meatus from back to front."
B
"Measure the quantity of urine."
C
"Gently rotate the catheter during removal."
D
"Clean the meatus with soap and water."
A

D

Intermittent catheterization may be performed chronically with clean technique, using soap and water to clean the urinary meatus. The meatus is always cleaned from front to back in a woman, or in expanding circles working outward from the meatus in a man. It isn’t necessary to measure the urine. The catheter doesn’t need to be rotated during removal.

45
Q

After falling 20’, a 36-year-old man sustains a C6 fracture with spinal cord transaction. Which other findings should the nurse expect?
A
Quadriplegia with gross arm movement and diaphragmatic breathing
B
Quadriplegia and loss of respiratory function
C
Paraplegia with intercostal muscle loss
D
Loss of bowel and bladder control

A

A

A client with a spinal cord injury at levels C5 to C6 has quadriplegia with gross arm movement and diaphragmatic breathing. Injury levels C1 to C4 leads to quadriplegia with total loss of respiratory function. Paraplegia with intercostal muscle loss occurs with injuries at T1 to L2. Injuries below L2 cause paraplegia and loss of bowel and bladder control.

46
Q

A 20-year-old client who fell approximately 30’ is unresponsive and breathless. A cervical spine injury is suspected. How should the first-responder open the client’s airway for rescue breathing?

A By inserting a nasopharyngeal airway
B By inserting a oropharyngeal airway
C By performing a jaw-thrust maneuver
D By performing the head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver

A

C

If the client has a suspected cervical spine injury, a jaw-thrust maneuver should be used to open the airway. If the tongue or relaxed throat muscles are obstructing the airway, a nasopharyngeal or oropharyngeal airway can be inserted; however, the client must have spontaneous respirations when the airway is open. The head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver requires neck hyperextension, which can worsen the cervical spine injury.

47
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with a T5 complete spinal cord injury. Upon assessment, the nurse notes flushed skin, diaphoresis above the T5, and a blood pressure of 162/96. The client reports a severe, pounding headache. Which of the following nursing interventions would be appropriate for this client? Select all that apply.

A Elevate the HOB to 90 degrees
B Loosen constrictive clothing
C Use a fan to reduce diaphoresis
D Assess for bladder distention and bowel impaction
E Administer antihypertensive medication
A

A B D E

The client has signs and symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. The potentially life-threatening condition is caused by an uninhibited response from the sympathetic nervous system resulting from a lack of control over the autonomic nervous system. The nurse should immediately elevate the HOB to 90 degrees and place extremities dependently to decrease venous return to the heart and increase venous return from the brain. Because tactile stimuli can trigger autonomic dysreflexia, any constrictive clothing should be loosened. The nurse should also assess for distended bladder and bowel impaction, which may trigger autonomic dysreflexia, and correct any problems. Elevated blood pressure is the most life-threatening complication of autonomic dysreflexia because it can cause stroke, MI, or seizures. If removing the triggering event doesn’t reduce the client’s blood pressure, IV antihypertensives should be administered. A fan shouldn’t be used because cold drafts may trigger autonomic dysreflexia

48
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who suffered a spinal cord injury 48 hours ago. The nurse monitors for GI complications by assessing for:

A A flattened abdomen
B Hematest positive nasogastric tube drainage
C Hyperactive bowel sounds
D A history of diarrhea

A

B

After spinal cord injury, the client can develop paralytic ileus, which is characterized by the absence of bowel sounds and abdominal distention. Development of a stress ulcer can be detected by hematest positive NG tube aspirate or stool. A history of diarrhea is irrelevant.

49
Q

A client with a spinal cord injury is prone to experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. The nurse would avoid which of the following measures to minimize the risk of recurrence?

A Strict adherence to a bowel retraining program
B Limiting bladder catheterization to once every 12 hours
C Keeping the linen wrinkle-free under the client
D Preventing unnecessary pressure on the lower limbs

A

B

The most frequent cause of autonomic dysreflexia is a distended bladder. Straight catherization should be done every 4 to 6 hours, and Foley catheters should be checked frequently to prevent kinks in the tubing. Constipation and fecal impaction are other causes, so maintaining bowel regularity is important. Other causes include stimulation of the skin from tactile, thermal, or painful stimuli. The nurse administers care to minimize risk in these areas.

50
Q

The nurse is planning care for the client in spinal shock. Which of the following actions would be least helpful in minimizing the effects of vasodilation below the level of the injury?

A Monitoring vital signs before and during position changes
B Using vasopressor medications as prescribed
C Moving the client quickly as one unit
D Applying Teds or compression stockings.

A

C

Reflex vasodilation below the level of the spinal cord injury places the client at risk for orthostatic hypotension, which may be profound. Measures to minimize this include measuring vital signs before and during position changes, use of a tilt-table with early mobilization, and changing the client’s position slowly. Venous pooling can be reduced by using Teds (compression stockings) or pneumatic boots. Vasopressor medications are administered per protocol.

51
Q

Following a cauda equina spinal cord injury, which action will the nurse include in the plan of care?

a.

Catheterize patient every 3 to 4 hours.

b.

Assist patient to ambulate several times daily.

c.

Administer medications to reduce bladder spasm.

d.

Stabilize the neck when repositioning the patient.

A

ANS: A

Patients with cauda equina syndrome have areflexic bladder, and intermittent catheterization will be used for emptying the bladder. Because the bladder is flaccid, antispasmodic medications will not be used. The legs are flaccid with cauda equina syndrome and the patient will be unable to ambulate. The head and neck will not need to be stabilized following a cauda equina injury, which affects the lumbar and sacral nerve roots.

52
Q

Which finding in a patient with a spinal cord tumor is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?

a.

Back pain that increases with coughing

b.

Depression about the diagnosis of a tumor

c.

Decreasing sensation and ability to move the legs

d.

Anxiety about scheduled surgery to remove the tumor

A

ANS: C

Decreasing sensation and leg movement indicates spinal cord compression, an emergency that will require rapid action (such as surgery) to prevent paralysis. The other findings will also require nursing action but are not emergencies.

53
Q

When caring for a patient who experienced a T2 spinal cord transection 24 hours ago, which collaborative and nursing actions will the nurse include in the plan of care (select all that apply)?

a.

Urinary catheter care

b.

Nasogastric (NG) tube feeding

c.

Continuous cardiac monitoring

d.

Maintain a warm room temperature

e.

Administration of H2 receptor blockers

A

ANS: A, C, D, E

The patient is at risk for bradycardia and poikilothermia caused by sympathetic nervous system dysfunction and should have continuous cardiac monitoring and maintenance of a relatively warm room temperature. Gastrointestinal (GI) motility is decreased initially and NG suctioning is indicated. To avoid bladder distention, a urinary retention catheter is used during this acute phase. Stress ulcers are a common complication, but can be avoided through the use of the H2 receptor blockers such as famotidine.

54
Q

The nurse is caring for a client admitted with spinal cord injury. The nurse minimizes the risk of compounding the injury most effectively by:

A Keeping the client on a stretcher
B Logrolling the client on a firm mattress
C Logrolling the client on a soft mattress
D Placing the client on a Stryker frame

A

D

Spinal immobilization is necessary after spinal cord injury to prevent further damage and insult to the spinal cord. Whenever possible, the client is placed on a Stryker frame, which allows the nurse to turn the client to prevent complications of immobility, while maintaining alignment of the spine. If a Stryker frame is not available, a firm mattress with a bed board should be used.

55
Q

The nurse arrives at the site of a one-car motor-vehicle accident and stops to render aid. The driver of the car is unconscious. After stabilizing the client’s cervical spine,which action should the nurse take next?

  1. Carefully remove the driver from the car.
  2. Assess the client’s pupils for reaction.
  3. Assess the client’s airway.
  4. Attempt to wake the client up by shaking him.
A

3

The nurse must maintain a patent air-way. Airway is the first step in resuscitation.

56
Q

In assessing a client with a T12 SCI, which clinical manifestations would the nurseexpect to find to support the diagnosis of spinal shock?

  1. No reflex activity below the waist.
  2. Inability to move upper extremities.
  3. Complaints of a pounding headache.
  4. Hypotension and bradycardia.
A

1.
Spinal shock associated with SCI represents a sudden depression of reflex activity below the level of the injury. T12 is just above the waist;therefore, no reflex activity below the waist would be expected

57
Q

The rehabilitation nurse caring for the client with an L1 SCI is developing the nursing care plan. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

  1. Keep oxygen via nasal cannula on at all times.
  2. Administer low-dose subcutaneous anticoagulants.
  3. Perform active lower extremity ROM exercises.
  4. Refer to a speech therapist for ventilator-assisted speech.
A

2

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a potential complication of immobility,which can occur because the clientcannot move the lower extremities as a result of the L1 SCI. Low-dose anticoagulation therapy (Lovenox)helps prevent blood from coagulating,thereby preventing DVTs.

58
Q

The nurse in the neurointensive care unit is caring for a client with a new C6 SCI who is breathing independently. Which nursing interventions should be implemented? Select all that apply.

  1. Monitor the pulse oximetry reading.
  2. Provide pureed foods six (6) times a day.
  3. Encourage coughing and deep breathing.
  4. Assess for autonomic dysreflexia.
  5. Administer intravenous corticosteroids.
A

1 3 5

Oxygen is administered initially to prevent hypoxemia, which can worsen the spinal cord injury; therefore, thenurse should determine how muchoxygen is reaching the periphery.
Breathing exercises are supervised by the nurse to increase the strengthand endurance of inspiratory muscles, especially those of the diaphragm
Corticosteroids are administered to decrease inflammation, which will decrease edema, and help preventedema from ascending up the spinalcord, causing breathing difficulties

59
Q

The client with a C6 SCI is admitted to the emergency department complaining of asevere pounding headache and has a BP of 180/110. Which intervention should theemergency department nurse implement?

  1. Keep the client flat in bed.
  2. Dim the lights in the room
    .3. Assess for bladder distention.
  3. Administer a narcotic analgesic.
A

3

This is an acute emergency caused by exaggerated autonomic responses to stimuli and only occurs after spinal shock has resolved in the client with a spinal cord injury above T6. The most common cause is a full bladder.

60
Q

The client with a cervical fracture is being discharged in a halo device. Which teaching instruction should the nurse discuss with the client?

  1. Discuss how to correctly remove the insertion pins.
  2. Instruct the client to report reddened or irritated skin areas.
  3. Inform the client that the vest liner cannot be changed.
  4. Encourage the client to remain in the recliner as much as possible.
A

2

Reddened areas, especially under thebrace, must be reported to the HCPbecause pressure ulcers can occurwhen wearing this appliance for an extended period.

61
Q

The intensive care nurse is caring for a client with a T1 SCI. When the nurse elevates the head of the bed 30 degrees, the client complains of light headedness and dizziness. The client’s vital signs are T 99.2 ̊F, P 98, R 24, and BP 84/40. Which action should the nurse implement?

  1. Notify the health-care provider ASAP.
  2. Calm the client down by talking therapeutically.
  3. Increase the IV rate by 50 mL/hour.
  4. Lower the head of the bed immediately.
A

4

For the first two (2) weeks after an SCI above T7, the blood pressure tends to be unstable and low; slight elevations of the head of the bed can cause profound hypotension; therefore, the nurse should lower the head of the bed immediately.

62
Q

The nurse on the rehabilitation unit is caring for the following clients. Which client should the nurse assess first after receiving the change-of-shift report?

  1. The client with a C6 SCI who is complaining of dyspnea and has crackles in the lungs.
  2. The client with an L4 SCI who is crying and very upset about being discharged home.
  3. The client with an L2 SCI who is complaining of a headache and feeling very hot.
  4. The client with a T4 SCI who is unable to move the lower extremities.
A

1

This client has signs/symptoms of a respiratory complication and should be assessed first.

63
Q

The 34-year-old male client with an SCI is sharing with the nurse that he is worried about finding employment after being discharged from the rehabilitation unit.Which intervention should the nurse implement?

  1. Refer the client to the American Spinal Cord Injury Association (ASIA).
  2. Refer the client to the state rehabilitation commission.
  3. Ask the social worker about applying for disability.
  4. Suggest that the client talk with his significant other about this concern.
A

2

The rehabilitation commission of each state will help evaluate and determine if the client can receive training or education for another occupation after injury.

64
Q

Which nursing task would be most appropriate for the nurse to delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel?

  1. Teach Credé’s maneuver to the client needing to void.
  2. Administer the tube feeding to the client who is quadriplegic.
  3. Assist with bowel training by placing the client on the bedside commode.
  4. Observe the client demonstrating self-catheterization technique.
A

3

The assistant can place the client on the bedside commode as part of bowel training; the nurse is responsible for the training but can delegate this task