Chapter 6 (MICR)

Question 1

which of the following is not a biological hazard?
a) bacteria
b) microbial toxins
c) infectious material (blood, body fluid, cell lines)
d) prions
e) they are all biological hazards

Answer 1

they are all hazards

Question 2

who is responsible for the administration and enforcement of the human pathogens and toxins act and regulations?
a) federal minister of health
b) provincial minister of health
c) municipal minister of health
d) none of the above

Answer 2

a) federal minister of health

Question 3

what does the scope of the human pathogens and toxins act and regulations include?
a) human pathogens
b) terrestrial animal pathogens
c) prescribed list of microbial pathogens
d) all of the above

Answer 3

d) all of the above

Question 4

T/F the purpose of the legislation (HPTAR) is to establish a safety and security regime to protect the health and safety of the public against the risks posed by human and animal pathogens and toxins

Answer 4

true

Question 5

Which of the following is responsible for notification, reporting, and incident investigation regarding laboratory incidents?
a) OHIP
b) CMLTO
c) PHAC
d) CSMLS

Answer 5

c) PHAC

Question 6

which of the following is not used when classifying risk groups?
a) pathogenicity
b) virulence
c) risk of spread
d) availability of effective treatment
e) infectious dose

Answer 6

e) infectious dose

Question 7

what are the risk groups and what are their risks to individuals and the community?

Answer 7

risk group 1: low individual risk, low community risk
risk group 2: moderate individual, low community risk
risk group 3: high individual risk, low community risk
risk group 4: high individual risk, high community risk

Question 8

T/F the risk group and containment level are generally the same

Answer 8

T (risk group 2 = containment level 2)

Question 9

what is the exception to the rule where risk group is generally the same as containment level?
a) HIV and MTBC are Risk Group 2 but must be handled at CL3
b) HIV and MTBC are Risk Group 3 but can be handled at CL2
c) HIV and HPV are Risk Group 3 but can be handled at CL2
d) HPV and MTBC are Risk Group 2 but must be handled at CL3

Answer 9

b) HIV and MTBC are risk group 3 but can be handled at CL2

Question 10

containment levels describe?

Answer 10

the minimum physical features and operational practices needed for the safe handling and storage of biohazards within an identified area

Question 11

which of the following would not be a physical containment requirement?
a) containment barrier (non openable windows)
b) access (doors are accesible to anyone)
c) surface and finished (cleanable and non-absorbent)
d) air handling (minimize spread of infectious aerosols)

Answer 11

b) access because the doors should be lockable to keep track of who has access and at what times

Question 12

T/F the majority of clinical and diagnostic laboratories are likely to handle and store risk group 2 material at containment level 2

Answer 12

true!

Question 13

containment level 1 achieves biosafety by:
a) use of GMLP, basic physical contamination design such as handwashing sinks
b) GMLP, administrative controls, procedures for PPE, primary containment devices like BSC
c) stringint facility design, engineering controls (HEPA filters), specialized biosafety equipment
d) none of the above

Answer 13

a) use of GMLP, basic physical contamination design such as handwashing sinks

Question 14

containment level 2 achieves biosafety by:
a) use of GMLP, basic physical contamination design such as handwashing sinks
b) GMLP, administrative controls, procedures for PPE, primary containment devices like BSC
c) stringint facility design, engineering controls (HEPA filters), specialized biosafety equipment
d) none of the above

Answer 14

b) GMLP, administrative controls, procedures for PPE, primary containment devices like BSC

Question 15

containment level 3 achieves biosafety by:
a) use of GMLP, basic physical contamination design such as handwashing sinks
b) GMLP, administrative controls, procedures for PPE, primary containment devices like BSC
c) stringint facility design, engineering controls (HEPA filters), specialized biosafety equipment
d) none of the above

Answer 15

c) stringint facility design, engineering controls (HEPA filters), specialized biosafety equipment

Question 16

which of the following is not part of the links in the chain of transmission?
a) portal of entry + exit
b) infectious dose
c) susceptible host
d) mode of transmission

Answer 16

b) infectious dose

Question 17

T/F an infectious agent is a disease-causing organism or pathogen, often a virus or a bacterium

Answer 17

true

Question 18

which of the following is not a type of reservoir?
a) person
b) animal
c) environmental component (soil, water)
d) all of the above

Answer 18

d) all of the above

Question 19

which of the following is not considered a portal of exit?
a) blood
b) saliva
c) feces
d) strand of hair

Answer 19

d) strand of hair

Question 20

T/F direct transmission requires close association with the infected host, as well as physical contact

Answer 20

F, physical contact is not required

Question 21

T/F indirect transmission requires a vector such as animal or insect

Answer 21

true

Question 22

which of the following is not portal of entry?
a) penetration
b) inhalation
c) ingestion
d) reception

Answer 22

d) reception

Question 23

which of the following would not be a susceptible host?
a) pregnant woman
b) medical status such as cancer
c) taking immunosuppresant medications
d) being in your 30’s

Answer 23

d) being in your 30’s

Question 24

what are the chains of transmission?

Answer 24

1. infectious agent
2. reservoir
3. portal of exit
4. mode of transmission
5. portal of entry
6. susceptible host

Question 25

A BSC must be used for procedures involving open vessels of biohazards that:
a) may produce infectious aerosols
b) involves high concentrations
c) involves large volumes
d) all of the above

Answer 25

d) all of the above

Question 26

which of the following route of exposure is the least understood and most underestimated?
a) skin contact
b) injection
c) inhalation
e) none, they are all equally understood

Answer 26

c) inhalation

Question 27

T/F aerosols are suspensiosn of liquid particles in air that may gain access to the respiratory system

Answer 27

F, solid and liquid particles

Question 28

respiratory exposure to airborne infectious agents is dependent on:
a) type of infectious agent
b) concentration of infectious agent
c) persistence of aerosol
d) length of exposure time
e) all of the above

Answer 28

e) all of the above

Question 29

T/F the CSMLS deems the N95 respirator as the minimum level of protection for MLTs that may be exposed to airborne infectious agents

Answer 29

True

Question 30

which of the following is false regarding decontamination?
a) process by which materials and surfaces are rendered safe to handle and reasonably free of microorganisms, toxins, or prions
b) can be accomplished only through disinfection only
c) can be done via autoclaves, filtration, boiling or incineration
d) all of the above is true

Answer 30

b) can be done via disinfection, inactivation or sterilization!

Question 31

T/F sterilization is a process that completelt eliminates all living microorganisms including bacterial spores

Answer 31

true

Question 32

the effective operating temperature for steam autoclaves is usually
a) 100C
b) 150C
c) 121C
d) 131C

Answer 32

c) 121C

Question 33

unsatisfactory decontamination by autoclaves is commonly attributed to:
a) insufficient temperature
b) inadequte cycle time
c) incomplete penetration of steam
d) all of the above

Answer 33

d) all of the above

Question 34

the recommended test microorganisms generally used as biological indicators are:
a) geobacillus stearothermophilus and staphylococcus aureus
b) geobacillus stearothermophilus and bacillus atrophaeus
c) bacillus atrophaeus and staphylococcus aureus
d) you can use any microorganism as a biological indicator

Answer 34

b) geobacillus stearothermophilus and bacillus atrophaeus

Question 35

_______ is used for sterilizers that use steam, hydroxen peroxise gas plasma or peracetic acid, and ______ is used for sterilizers that use dry heat or ethylene oxide

Answer 35

geobacillus stearothermophilus; bacillus atrophaeus

Question 36

list the advantages and disadvantages to biological indicators

Answer 36

A: very specific to temperature and time
D: test material must be incubated for 24-48hrs before result, not always easy to store until results received

Question 37

steam, temperature and time-dependent chemical integrators include:
a) sealed glass tubes containing chemical that changes colour when exposed to proper conditons
b) paper strips impregnated w/ chemical that changes colout when proper conditions met
c) tube within a foil and paper strip which contains blue wax that migrats along tube when proper materials met
d) all of the above

Answer 37

d) all of the above

Question 38

what is a chemical integrator?

Answer 38

system that responds to change in one or more predefined process variables with a chemical or physical change

Question 39

disinfection can be defined as:
a) completely eliminates all living microorganisms including bacterial spores
b) eliminates most forms of living microorganisms, but not all
c) removes living microorganisms from surfaces
d) none of the above

Answer 39

b) eliminates most forms of living microorganisms, but not all

Question 40

a 1:10 dilution can be used for _______, while a 1:100 dilution can be used for _____

Answer 40

spill control; wipe down of surfaces or equipment

Question 41

which of the following is not a susceptible bacteria?
a) fungal spores
b) gram negative bacteria
c) mycobacteria
d) enveloped viruses
e) gram positive bacteria

Answer 41

c) mycobacteria -> its resistant

Question 42

which of the following is extremely resistant?
a) protozoal oocysts
b) bacterial endospores
c) prions
d) mycoplasms
e) non-enveloped virus

Answer 42

c) prions