Chapter 6: Endocrine system Flashcards

1
Q

What is the advice from the DVLA regarding insulin dependent diabetic drivers?

A
  • Should always carry a glucose meter and test strips when driving
  • check your glucose less than 2 hours before the start of the first journey and every 2 hours after driving has started.
  • Blood glucose should always be above 5 mmol/L whilst driving

-Always keep an emergency supply of fast-acting carbohydrate such as glucose tablets or sweets

  • If get hypo, stop car, have sugary beverage and then drive after 45mins if BMs in range
  • If blood glucose is <4 mmol/L, should NOT drive
  • This may also be the case in patients taking oral antidiabetic drugs (sulfonylureas, nateglinide, repaglinide), in particular, those that cause hypoglycaemia
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2
Q

True or false:Alcohol can cause delayed hyperglycaemia

A

False- can cause delayed HYPOglycaemia

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3
Q

What is a non diabetic HbA1c?
Prediabetic HbA1C
Type 2 diabetes HbA1C

A

WHO: HbA1c below 42 mmol/mol (6.0%): Non-diabetic

HbA1c between 42 and 47 mmol/mol (6.0–6.4%): Impaired glucose regulation or Prediabetes

HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or over: Type 2 diabetes

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4
Q

Is HbA1c used for monitoring glycaemic control in Type 1 diabetes, Type 2 diabetes, or both?

A

HbA1c is used to Monitor glycaemic control in both type 1 and type 2. Diagnose type 2.
Should not be used for diagnosis of Type 1, during pregnancy, women up to 2 months postpartum and children

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5
Q

How often should HbA1c be measured in diabetes?

A

Monitor type 1 patients every 3-6 months
If type 2 then also 3-6 months however when stable, can be every 6 months

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6
Q

What is the recommended HbA1c target in Type 1 diabetes?

A

48mmol/mol or lower

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7
Q

How many times a day should blood glucose be measured in Type 1 diabetes?

A

At least 4 times a day (including before each meal and before bed)

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8
Q

What are the blood glucose aims in Type 1 diabetes for:
a) Waking up / fasting
b) Before meals / random
c) 90 minutes after eating
d) Driving

A

a) 5-7mmol/L on waking
b) 4-7mmol/L before meals
c) 5-9mmol/L at least 90 mins after eating
d) at least 5mmol/L when driving

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9
Q

What is a basal BOLUS insulin regimen?

A

Regimen type 1-
rapid acting insulin before meal times Insulin Lispro or Aspart

Basal =long acting (insulin detemir BD or Insulin Glargine OD ) at bedtime

Regimen type 2- soluble insulin +(humulin M3) intermediate acting
Or

Regiment type 3- Rapid insulin + intermediate acting- humalog/ Mix 25/ Novomix 30

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10
Q

What is a mixed (biphasic) insulin regimen?

A

One, two, or three insulin injections a day before meals, of short-acting insulin (soluble or rapid) mixed with intermediate-acting insulin

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11
Q

What insulin regimen is first choice for Type 1 diabetics?

A

Basal bolus

1) Insulin detemir (Levemir) BD (has a plataeu effect over 24hrs hence BD) should be offered as the long insulin therapy
2) Insulin glargine (Lantus) OD if dosing issues
3) Insulin detemir (Levemir) OD

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12
Q

In a basal bolus regimen for Type 1 diabetes, what BASAL insulin would be first choice?What would be the second choice?

A

Insulin determir (Levemir) BD - can also be offered as once daily

Once daily insulin glargine (Lantus)

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13
Q

Are non-basal bolus regimens recommended in newly diagnosed Type 1 diabetics?

A

No Should only be considered after trying basal bolus regimen

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14
Q

In basal bolus regimen in Type 1 diabetes, what type of insulin is recommended for the bolus aspect?

A

Rapid acting insulin (LAG - Lispro - Humalog, Aspart - novorapid, Glulisine - apidra) (Rather than soluble human or animal insulin)

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15
Q

Continuous subcut insulin infusion therapy (insulin pump) should only be offered to what group of people?

A
  • adults suffering from disabling hypoglycaemia or high HbA1c of 69 or above with multiple daily injection therapy
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16
Q

What situations can cause an INCREASE in required insulin dose?

A

Infection- high blood sugar levels
Stress - liver releases more glucose
Accidental or surgical trauma
Pregnancy (2nd /3rd trimester)

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17
Q

What situations can cause an DECREASE in required insulin dose?

A

Physical activity
Vomiting
Reduced food intake
Impaired renal function
(The kidney is responsible for about 30 to 80 % of insulin removal)
Certain endocrine disorders (Addison’s disease -The adrenal gland is damaged in Addison’s disease, so it does not produce enough cortisol or aldosterone. Steroids cause hyperglycaemia so Addison’s disease does the opposite, hypoglycaemia)

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18
Q

Patients’ awareness of hypoglycaemia should be assessed annually using what score tools?

A

Gold or Clarke score

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19
Q

What cardiac class of drug can blunt hypoglycaemia awareness?

A

Beta blockers reduce warning signs such as tremor

Alcohol masks signs of hypo (confusion, hunger, rapid heart beat)

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20
Q

What is an impaired awareness of hypoglcyaemia?

A

Can occur when the ability to recognise usual symptoms of hypoglycaemia is lost, or when the symptoms are blunted or no longer present

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21
Q

What are the 3 types of insulin sources?

A

Human insulin- lab made
Human insulin analogues- produced same way as human insulin but modified to be absorbed faster or longer duration
Animal insulin -bovine /porcine

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22
Q

Which area of the body has the fastest absorption rate for insulin?

A

Abdomen

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23
Q

What can occur if you repeatedly inject insulin into the same area without rotating?

A

Lipohypertrophy
Can cause erratic absorption of insulin

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24
Q

How much time before meals do you administer short acting soluble insulin?

A

30 minutes before

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25
Q

What is the most appropriate form of insulin to use in diabetic emergencies e.g. DKA

A

Soluble insulin IV
Give Na/K 0.9% iv infusion if Bp low
Monitor blood glucose and ketones ever hour

Continue long acting insulin analogues (detemir and glargine) during treatment of DKA

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26
Q

What are the 3 types of rapid acting insulin?

A

Insulin Glulisine
Insulin Aspart
Insulin Lispro

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27
Q

How much time before meals do you administer rapid acting insulin?

A

5-15 mins before food

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28
Q

What are the advantages of rapid acting insulin over soluble acting insulin?

A

Rapid acting insulins (aspart and lispro) are better than soluble acting because there are fewer episodes of Hypo

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29
Q

Is injecting short acting insulins post meals recommended?

A

No

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30
Q

What type of insulin is isophane?

A

Intermediate - designed to mimic the effect of endogenous basal insulin

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31
Q

What are biphasic insulins?

A

Pre-mixed insulin preparations containing various combinations of short-acting insulin (soluble insulin or rapid-acting analogue insulin) and an intermediate-acting insulin.

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32
Q

What are the long acting insulins?

A

Insulin detemir (levemir) OD/BD
Insulin glargine (Lantas/toujeo/abasaglar) OD
Insulin degludec (Tresiba) OD

Rarely prescribed:
Protamine zinc insulin
Insulin zinc suspension

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33
Q

Does metformin cause hypoglycaemia?

A

Low risk

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34
Q

If standard release metformin is not tolerated e.g. GI side effects, what should be given?

A

Modified release metformin

By mouth using modified-release medicines

Initially 500 mg OD, then increased if necessary up to 2 g OD, dose increased gradually, every 10–15 days, dose to be taken with evening meal, alternatively increased to 1 g BD, dose to be taken with meals, alternative dose only to be used if control not achieved with once daily dose regimen.

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35
Q

Give examples of sulfonylureas

A

Glibenclamide
Gliclazide
Glimeprimide
Glipizide
Tolbutamide

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36
Q

Give examples of meglitinides

A

Nateglinide
Repaglinide

Drivers need to be particularly careful to avoid hypoglycaemia and should be warned of the problems.

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37
Q

Give examples of DPP-4 inhibitors

A

Alogliptin
Linagliptin
Sitagliptin
Saxagliptin
Vildagliptin

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38
Q

What is an advantage of DPP-4 inhibitors over sulphonylureas in terms of side effects?

A

Not associated with weight gain and have less incidence of hypoglycaemia

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39
Q

Give examples of SGLT2 inhibitors

A

Canaglifozin
Dapaglifozin
Empaglifozin

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40
Q

Give examples of GL P -1 receptor agonists- slow gastric emptying

A

Dulaglutide
Exenatide
Liraglutide
Lixisenatide

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41
Q

What should be the target HbA1c in a Type 2 diabetic that is managed by lifestyle/ a single antidiabetic agent that is NOT associated with hypoglycaemia?

A

48 mmol/mol

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42
Q

What should be the target HbA1c in a Type 2 diabetic that is managed with one or more antidiabetic drugs that cause hypoglycaemia?

A

53 mmol/mol

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43
Q

In terms of HbA1c, when should treatment in a Type 2 diabetic on ONE antidiabetic drug be intensified?

A

58 mmol/mol or higher

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44
Q

What should be the target HbA1c in a Type 2 diabetic that is managed with 2 or more antidiabetic drugs?

A

53 mmol/mol

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45
Q

What is first line drug treatment in Type 2 diabetes and why?

A

Metformin-
No effect on weight
-Reduced risk of hypoglycaemia
-Long term cardiovascular benefits

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46
Q

Which sulphonylurea would you recommend in Elderly patients /Renal impairment

A

Elderly and Renally impaired are at particular risk of hypoglycaemia

Use Short acting e.g. gliclazide or tolbutamide

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47
Q

If a Type 2 diabetic with no CVD disease, is not adequately controlled on metformin and requires intensification of treatment, what are the add in options?

A

Option 1) Metformin + dpp 4i /pioglitazone/ sulfonylurea / SGLT2

Option 2) or switch to another drug

Use SGLT2 if patient has CVD risk or disease

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48
Q

Type 2 diabetes:
Dapagliflozin is not recommended in a triple therapy regimen with what drug?

A

Dapagliflozin + Pioglitazone

Both Dapagliflozin and Pioglitazone can increase the risk of hypoglycaemia.

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49
Q

Type 2 diabetes: If first line therapy is unsuccessful, what are second line options?

A

Switch or add
Dpp4 inhibitor (gliptin) / pioglitazone / sulfonylurea (gliclazide)

SGLT2 I (dapagliflozin) may also be an option in dual therapy if CVD

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50
Q

When is GLP-1 receptor agonists (exenatide, litaglutide, dulaglutide) preferred in Type 2 diabetes?

A

If triple therapy with metformin hydrochloride and two other oral drugs is tried and is not effective, or is not tolerated or contra-indicated, a glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptor agonist may be considered as part of a triple therapy regimen by switching one of the other drugs for a GLP-1 receptor agonist.

These should only be considered for patients who have a BMI of 35 kg/m2 or above (adjusted for ethnicity) and who also have specific psychological or medical problems associated with obesity; or for those who have a BMI lower than 35 kg/m2 and for whom insulin therapy would have significant occupational implications or if the weight loss associated with GLP-1 receptor agonists would benefit other significant obesity-related comorbidities.

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51
Q

If started on a GLP-1 receptor agonist for Type 2 diabetes, when should this be reviewed and how do you know it is okay to continue?

A

After 6 months, the GLP-1 receptor agonist should be reviewed and only continued if there has been a beneficial metabolic response (a reduction of at least 11 mmol/mol [1.0%] in HbA1c and a weight loss of at least 3% of initial body-weight).

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52
Q

If metformin is contraindicated or not tolerated, what should be used for initial treatment?

A

If metformin is contra-indicated or not tolerated, SGLT2 inhibitor (canaglifozin) with proven cardiovascular benefit should be offered as first-line treatment for patients who have chronic heart failure or established atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease. An SGLT2 inhibitor should also be considered for patients who are at high risk of developing cardiovascular disease.

For all other patients, consider a dipeptidylpeptidase-4 (DDP-4) inhibitor (gliptin), or pioglitazone, or a sulfonylurea (glipizide) as first-line drug treatment if metformin is contra-indicated or not tolerated. An SGLT2 inhibitor may be considered as an alternative option to a DDP-4 inhibitor, if neither a sulfonylurea or pioglitazone are appropriate.

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53
Q

What is the problem with using repaglinide monotherapy in Type 2 diabetes?

A

Repaglinide is also an effective alternative option for single therapy, but it has a limited role in treatment because, should an intensification of treatment be required, it is not licensed to be used in any combination other than with metformin hydrochloride; it would therefore require a complete change of treatment in those patients who have started it due to intolerance or contra-indication to metformin.

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54
Q

Which GLP-1 receptor agonist has proven CVD benefit?

A

liraglutide should be considered in patients with established cardiovascular disease.

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55
Q

🧹🧹🧹If a patient is on dual therapy for Type 2 diabetes, and metformin is contraindicated/not tolerated, what should be considered?

A

Insulin

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56
Q

In Type 2 diabetes, if insulin therapy is required, what should happen to their other antidiabetic drugs?

A

Continue

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57
Q

In Type 2 diabetics, what insulin regimens can you use?

A
  • Isophane OD/BD
    -Isophane + short acting (either separate or pre-mixed)
  • particularly appropriate if HbA1c is 75 or higher -Insulin detemir or glargine can be an alternative to isophane
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58
Q

In Type 2 diabetics, at what HbA1c would the following insulin regimen be particularly appropriate:Isophane + short acting insulin (separate or pre-mixed)

A

75 or higher

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59
Q

In type 2 diabetics requiring insulin therapy, when would long acting insulin (glargine or detemir) be preferable?

A

If require OD dosing, if recurrent hypo restricting lifestyle, if require BD isophane plus oral antidiabetics

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60
Q

When starting insulin therapy in Type 2 diabetes, when should the first BASAL insulin be given and how do you adjust the dose?

A

Bedtime basal insulin should be initiated and the dose titrated against fasting glucose in the morning

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61
Q

Providing there are no contraindications, what should you give for diabetic nephropathy that is causing proteinuria or established microalbuminuria?

A

Blood pressure should be reduced to the lowest achievable level to reduce the glomerular filtration rate. ARB or ACEi to be started even if the blood pressure is normal

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62
Q

What is the potential problem with ACEis in diabetics if the patient is on insulin or oral antidiabetic drugs?

A

Can potentiate the hypoglycaemic effect
More likely in the first few weeks of combined treatment and in patients with renal impairment

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63
Q

The management of DKA involves what? What should happen to their basal insulin?
What should be monitored and how often?

A

Replacement of fluid and electrolytes, potassium chloride in the fluids unless anuria (lack of urine production) is suspected
Administration of SOLUBLE Insulin in sodium chloride 0.1 units/kg/hr

Long acting insulin (basal) should be continued in the background
If blood glucose falls below 14, give glucose 10%

Monitor ketones and glucose hourly Monitor BP Blood pH

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64
Q

During DKA treatment when the patient is on an insulin infusion, when should you recommence the short acting subcut insulin and stop the infusion and how is this done?

A

Continue insulin infusion until patient is able to eat and drink; ideally give s/c fast-acting insulin and a meal, and stop the insulin infusion 1 hour after meal

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65
Q

In the management of HHS, are lower or higher rates of insulin infusion usually required compared to DKA?

A

Lower rates usually required

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66
Q

During DKA management, what rate should you give the insulin infusion?

A

0.1 units/kg/hr

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67
Q

Diabetic women who are planning on becoming pregnant should aim to keep their HbA1c to what?

A

Below 48 if possible without causing any problematic hypoglycaemia

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68
Q

What is the folic acid supplementation recommendation in diabetic patients planning on becoming pregnant?

A

High dose - 5mg daily as classed in the high risk group of neural tube defects

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69
Q

“”””””What is the treatment recommendation for diabetic patients when they become pregnant? What about during breastfeeding?

A

All antidiabetic drugs APART from metformin should be stopped and substituted with insulin therapy

For breastfeeding, the options are:- Insulin continued- Metformin continued- Glibenclamide is fine to restart if originally on it
However, all other antidiabetic agents should be avoided during breastfeeding

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70
Q

What is the first choice for long acting insulin therapy during pregnancy?

A

Isophane insulin
However in women who have good blood-glucose control before pregnancy with the long-acting insulin analogues (insulin detemir or insulin glargine), it may be appropriate to continue using them throughout pregnancy.

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71
Q

What is the patient advice regarding insulin therapy during pregnancy?

A

Should be aware of the risk of hypoglycaemia and should always carry a fast-acting form of glucose

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72
Q

It is recommended that pregnant women with Type 1 diabetes should be prescribed what just in case of hypoglycaemia?

A

Glucagon

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73
Q

Women with pre-existing diabetes treated with insulin during pregnancy are at an increased risk of what?

A

Hypoglycaemia during the postnatal period
Should reduce their insulin immediately after birth and blood glucose levels monitored

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74
Q

If a diabetic patient is on an ACEi or ARB for diabetic complications, however wishes to become pregnant, what would be the most appropriate action?

A

ACEi or ARB should be discontinued and an alternative antihypertensive suitable in pregnancy should be used(Preferably before conception if pregnancy is planned)

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75
Q

If a diabetic patient becomes pregnant but is on a statin, what would be the most appropriate action?

A

Discontinue the statin during pregnancy (Preferably before conception if pregnancy is planned)

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76
Q

True or false:A patient with gestational diabetes should continue their hypoglycaemic treatment after birth

A

False - should discontinue hypoglycaemic treatment immediately after giving birth

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77
Q

How would you manage an insulin dependent diabetic patient with good glycaemic control due for an elective minor procedure?(Day before surgery and during the operative period)

A

On the day before surgery, give the usual insulin dose
However, once daily long acting insulins should be given at 80% of normal dose
Then their usual insulin regimen can be adjusted accordingly during the operative period

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78
Q

On the day before a minor op in an insulin dependent diabetic with good glycaemic control, you can give their usual insulin dose as normal. With what insulin would you not give the full dose?

A

Long acting insulin
You give 80% of normal dose

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79
Q

How would you manage an insulin dependent diabetic due for major elective surgery or in patients pre-op who have poor glycaemic control?
(Day before surgery, day of surgery, during the operative period)

A

VRII - Continued until the patient is eating/drinking and stabilised on their previous diabetes medication
Day before surgery - Give normal insulin dose (Apart from once daily long acting insulin is given at 80% usual dose)
Day of surgery and during the operative period:- Once daily insulin given at 80% usual dose. All of the other patient’s insulin should be stopped until the patient is eating and drinking again- Start IV infusion of potassium chloride with glucose and sodium chloride AND a variable rate insulin infusion of soluble human insulin in 0.9% sodium chloride
Blood glucose monitored hourly for at least the first 12 hours

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80
Q

In patients that are on VRII during an operative period, what would you do if their blood glucose drops below 6?What about if it drops before 4?

A

<6 - Give IV glucose 20% and check blood glucose hourly
<4 - Give IV glucose 20% and check blood glucose every 15 mins

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81
Q

After surgery, if a patient is on VRII, they must not restart their subcut insulin until when?

A

They are eating/drinking without nausea or vomiting Note- their insulin dose may need adjusting due to altered food intake/post-op stress/infection

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82
Q

After surgery, a patient is ready to stop their VRII and go back to their BASAL-BOLUS regimen when would you stop the VRII and restart their subcut insulin?

A

Should be restarted when the first post-op meal is due
Give the first short-acting insulin first and then stop VRII 30-60 mins after Note- the long acting insulin is continued in the background of VRII at 80% dose - should continue at that dose until the patient leaves hospital

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83
Q

After surgery, a patient is ready to stop their VRII and go back to their TWICE DAILY MIXED insulin regimen when would you stop the VRII and restart their subcut insulin?

A

Should be restarted before breakfast or evening meal (not at any other time) Stop VRII 30-60 mins after

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84
Q

In type 2 diabetes, when would you consider VRII for surgery?

A
  • When the fasting period requires more than one missed meal - major elective surgery - Patients with poor glycaemic control- Risk of renal injury- If on insulin as part of their treatment anyway -
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85
Q

If VRII is required for surgery in a type 2 diabetic, what antidiabetic drugs should be stopped?
When should they be restarted?

A
  • Acarbose- Sulfonylureas- DPP-4 inhibitors- Pioglitazone- Meglitinides- SGLT-2 inhibitors

Should not be restarted until the patient is eating and drinking normally

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86
Q

If VRII is required for surgery in a type 2 diabetic, can GLP-1 receptor agonists be continued?

A

Yes

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87
Q

If a type 2 diabetic requires a minor surgical period, what should you do about their antidiabetic treatment?

A

If it requires a short fasting period (one missed meal), it may be possible to adjust antidiabetic drugs to avoid a switch to VRII

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88
Q

SGLT2 (fozins) inhibitors are associated with an increased risk of DKA, particularly the case in what situations?

A

Dehydration, stress, surgery, trauma, acute medical illness or any other catabolic state

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89
Q

What is the maximum licensed daily dose of standard release metformin?

A

Standard release- 2g/day

Initially 500 mg once daily for at least 1 week, dose to be taken with breakfast, then 500 mg twice daily for at least 1 week, dose to be taken with breakfast and evening meal, then 500 mg 3 times a day, dose to be taken with breakfast, lunch and evening meal; maximum 2 g per day.

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90
Q

What are the side effects of metformin?

A

Gastrointestinal side-effects are most frequent during treatment initiation and usually resolve spontaneously. A slow increase in dose may improve tolerability.

lactic acidosis (discontinue) symptoms include dyspnoea, muscle cramps, abdominal pain, hypothermia, or asthenia occur.

skin reactions, taste altered

vitamin B12 deficiency especially in those receiving a higher dose or longer treatment duration and in those with risk factors for vitamin B12 deficiency. Patients should continue taking metformin unless they are advised to stop.

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91
Q

At what eGFR should you avoid metformin?

A

<30

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92
Q

What are the risk factors for lactic acidosis?

A

Chronic heart failure
Concomitant use of drugs that acutely impair renal function

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93
Q

What is the patient advice with metformin?

A

Should be informed of the risk of lactic acidosis and told to seek immediate medical attention if symptoms such as dyspnoea, muscle cramps, abdominal pain, hypothermia, or asthenia (weakness/lack of energy) occur
Take with meals

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94
Q

MR gliclazide is equivalent to what standard release gliclazide dose?

A

30mg MR = 80mg standard release

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95
Q

What are the main side effects of sulphonylurea gliclazide to warn your patient about?

A

Sulphonylurea: IDE
Weight gain
Hypoglycaemia

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96
Q

What is the important safety information regarding Pioglitazone?

A

heart failure

bladder cancer
Patients should be advised to report promptly any haematuria, dysuria, or urinary urgency during treatment.

Bone fracture

weight increased

discontinue if jaundice occurs

DKA

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97
Q

What is the MHRA advice surrounding SGLT2 (fozins) inhibitors?

A

Risk of DKA Inform patients to be aware of signs e.g. rapid weight loss, sweet smell to breath, different odour in urine/sweat

Reports of Fournier’s gangrene (necrotising fasciitis of the genitalia or perineum

Canagliflozin - risk of lower-limb amputation

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98
Q

What is the MHRA advice surrounding the use of canagliflozin?

A

Risk of lower-limb amputation

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99
Q

Which antidiabetic class can cause pancreatitis?

A

DPP-4 inhibitors (gliptins)
GLP1 receptor agonists (Exenatide)

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100
Q

Which antidiabetic drug class commonly causes UTIs?

A

SGLT2 inhibitors, flozins

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101
Q

Can you use nateglinide as monotherapy in diabetes?

A

No - only with metformin

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102
Q

With what antidiabetic drug would it not be suitable in those with hernias or GI obstructions?

A

Acarbose Contra-indications
Disorders of digestion or absorption; hernia (condition may deteriorate); inflammatory bowel disease; predisposition to intestinal obstruction

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103
Q

What is the dose frequency of the different GLP-1 receptor agonists?

A

Once Weekly= semaglutide, duaglatide + MR exenatide

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104
Q

What is the important safety information regarding insulin pen devices?

A

Insulin should not be extracted from insulin pen devices.The strength of insulin in pen devices can vary by multiples of 100 units/mL. Insulin syringes have graduations only suitable for calculating doses of standard 100 units/mL. If insulin extracted from a pen or cartridge is of a higher strength, and that is not considered in determining the volume required, it can lead to a significant and potentially fatal overdose.

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105
Q

What is the name of the ultrarapid acting insulin?

A

Fiasp (aspart)

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106
Q

What are the types of soluble insulin (short acting)?

A

Humulin S
Actrapid
Insuman rapid
Hypurin neutral (povine/porcine)

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107
Q

What insulins can be used for VRII or in DKA as in infusion?

A

Soluble insulin
Humulin S
Actrapid

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108
Q

Is Actrapid classed as a rapid acting insulin?

A

No- it is a short acting insulin

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109
Q

What insulins are classed as rapid acting?

A

Apidra (glulisine)
Novorapid (aspart)
Humalog (lispro)

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110
Q

What insulins are classed as intermediate acting?

A

Insulatard
Humulin I (isophane)
Insuman basal
Hypurin isophane
Isophane can be otherwise known as NPH

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111
Q

What insulins are classed as long acting?

A

Levemir (detemir)
Lantus/Absalgar (glargine)
Tresiba (degludec)
Toujeo (glargine)

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112
Q

What insulins are classed as biphasic (pre-mixed)?

A

Novomix 30 Humalog Mix 25 or 50 Humulin M3 Insuman Combo 15 or 25 or 30

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113
Q

What does the 30 mean in Novomix 30?

A

The suspension contains rapid-acting and intermediate-acting insulin aspart in the ratio 30/70

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114
Q

What is recommended for the treatment of acute hypoglycaemia and the patient is conscious?

A

Treat with fast acting carbohydrate by Fast-acting carbohydrates include Lift® glucose liquid (previously Glucojuice®), glucose tablets, glucose 40% gels (e.g. Glucogel®, Dextrogel®, or Rapilose®), pure fruit juice, and sugar (sucrose) dissolved in an appropriate volume of water. Oral glucose formulations are preferred as absorption occurs more quickly. Orange juice should not be given to patients following a low-potassium diet due to chronic kidney disease, and sugar dissolved in water is not effective for patients taking acarbose which prevents the breakdown of sucrose to glucose. Chocolates and biscuits should be avoided if possible, as they have a lower sugar content and their high fat content may delay stomach emptying.

If necessary, repeat treatment after 15 minutes, up to a maximum of 3 treatments in total. Once blood-glucose concentration is above 4 mmol/litre and the patient has recovered, a snack providing a long-acting carbohydrate should be given to prevent blood glucose from falling again (e.g. two biscuits, one slice of bread, 200–300 mL of milk (not soya or other forms of ‘alternative’ milk, e.g. almond or coconut), or a normal carbohydrate-containing meal if due). Insulin should not be omitted if due, but the dose regimen may need review.

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115
Q

What is recommended for the treatment of acute hypoglycaemia and the patient is UNconscious?

A

IM Glucagon is given by family if unsuitable or no response after 10 mins then give IV glucose 20% or glucose 10% intravenous infusion needs to be given

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116
Q

Can glucagon be used for chronic hypoglycaemia?

A

No

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117
Q

What is given for chronic hypoglycaemia?

A

Diazoxide

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118
Q

What is used in diabetes insipidus?

A

Desmopressin or vasopressin

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119
Q

Is desmopressin or vasopressin more potent?

A

Desmopressin is more potent and has a longer duration of action Desmopressin is an analogue of vasopressin
Has no vasoconstrictor effect compared to vasopressin

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120
Q

What is vasopressin used for?

A

Diabetes insipidus
Initial control of oesophageal variceal bleeding

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121
Q

What is demeclocycline used for?

A

Treatment of hyponatraemia resulting from inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (if fluid restriction does not work)

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122
Q

What is tolvaptan used for?

A

Treatment of hyponatraemia secondary to syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion

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123
Q

What mineralocorticoid can be used for postural hypotension in autonomic neuropathy?

A

Fludrocortisone

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124
Q

True or false:
High dose steroids should be used in the management of septic shock

A

High-dose corticosteroids should be avoided for the management of septic shock. However, there is evidence that administration of lower doses of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone acetate is of benefit in adrenal insufficiency resulting from septic shock.

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125
Q

What is the MHRA advice surrounding corticosteroids?

A

MHRA/CHM advice:
Corticosteroids: rare risk of central serous chorioretinopathy with local as well as systemic administration

Patients should report any blurred vision/visual disturbances

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126
Q

What are the side effects of mineralocorticoids?
With which mineralocorticoid is this most present with?

hydrocortisone, corticotropin,
fludrocortisone, tetracosactide

A

Fludrocortisone

HYPERtension
Na retention + H2O retention
K loss +Ca loss

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127
Q

What are the side effects of GLUCOcorticoids apart from avascular necrosis of the femoral head in high doses?

A

psychiatric reactions may occur

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128
Q

For corticosteroid replacement therapy, what combination is usually given?

A

Hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone
Hydrocortisone alone is not sufficient as it does not provide sufficient activity

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129
Q

In Addision’s Disease or following adrenalectomy, what is usually given?How is it given?

A

Hydrocortisone
This is given in 2 doses, the larger in the morning and the smaller in the evening, mimicking the normal diurnal rhythm of cortisol secretion.

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130
Q

In acute adrenocorticol insufficiency, what is given?

A

IV hydrocortisone

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131
Q

What are the side effects of corticosteroids?

A
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132
Q

ADULTS:In what patients would you want a gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids?

A
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133
Q

What is the physiological daily dose equivalent of prednisolone?

A

7.5mg daily

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134
Q

True or false:During corticosteroid withdrawal the dose may be reduced rapidly down to physiological doses (equivalent to prednisolone 7.5 mg daily)

A

TRUE

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135
Q

CHILDREN:In what patients would you want a gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids?

A
  • Received more than 40 mg prednisolone (or equivalent) daily for more than 1 week or 2 mg/kg daily for 1 week or 1 mg/kg daily for 1 month- Been given repeat doses in the evening- Received more than 3 weeks’ treatment- Recently received repeated courses (particularly if taken for longer than 3 weeks)-Taken a short course within 1 year of stopping long-term therapy- Other possible causes of adrenal suppression.
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136
Q

Prednisolone 5mg is equivalent to how much beclomethasone?

A

750 micrograms

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137
Q

Prednisolone 5mg is equivalent to how much dexamethasone?

A

750 micrograms

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138
Q

Prednisolone 5mg is equivalent to how much hydrocortisone?

A

20mg

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139
Q

Prednisolone 5mg is equivalent to how much methylprednisolone?

A

4mg

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140
Q

What is the most commonly used steroid for long-term disease suppression?

A

Prednisolone

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141
Q

What is the MHRA advice surrounding the methylprenisolone injectable preparation Solu-Medrone 40mg?

A

Contains lactose- not suitable for those with a cow’s milk allergy

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142
Q

If a newly diagnosed type 1 diabetic weighing 60kg was to be started on a basal bolus regime, what would their starting daily insulin unit dose be?How would you split this between basal bolus?

A

Starting at 0.5 units/kg/day
So 30 units Half basal and half bolus 15 units basal e.g. Lantus And split the other 15 into 3 for meal times, so 5 units TDS of rapid acting insulin

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143
Q
  1. What is first line for postmenopausal osteoporosis?2. What would be alternatives if this is not appropriate?
A

First line = Oral bisphosphonates: alendronic acid or risedronate as they have a broad spectrum of anti-fracture efficacy

  1. IV bisphosphonate (Ibandronic acid, zolendronic acid)
    Denosumab, Raloxifene
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144
Q

What is teriparatide used for?

A

Reserved for postmenopausal women with severe osteoporosis at very high risk for vertebral fractures. Its duration of treatment is limited to 24 months.

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145
Q
  1. What would be first line for glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis?
A
  1. First line Oral bisphosphonates- alendronic acid or risedronate sodium

Alternatives- IV zolendronic acid or denosumab, teripartide

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146
Q

Men who are receiving androgen deprivation therapy for prostate cancer have an increased risk of what?

A

Fractures
Fracture risk should be assessed at the start of therapy

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147
Q
  1. What would be first line in men with osteoporosis?
A
  1. Oral bisphosphonates- alendronic acid or risedronate sodium

Alendronic acid 10mg daily

Swallow whole and oral solution swallowed as single 100mg dose
Take with plenty of water sitting or standing
Take on empty stomach at least 30mins before breakfast / other oral meds
Stand/ sit upright for at least 30 minutes after administration

Or

By mouth Adult (male) 35 mg once weekly risedronate

Alt: IV zolendronic acid or denosumab

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148
Q

Bisphosphonate treatment should be reviewed after how many years?

A

5 years of treatment of alendronic acid, risedronate sodium or ibandronic acid

3 years of treatment with zolendronic acid

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149
Q

Which patient groups can continue their bisphosphonate therapy after 5 years?

A

Patients over 75 years of age, or with a history of previous hip or vertebral fracture, or patients who have had one or more fragility fractures during treatment, or who are taking long-term glucocorticoid therapy

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150
Q

What is the warnings surrounding the use of bisphosphonates?

A
  1. Risk of atypical femoral fractures
    report any thigh/hip/groin pain Review treatment after 5 years
  2. Risk of osteonecrosis of the jaw Dental check up and any necessary work is needed before therapy report non-healing sores, swelling, pain
    If the patient wears dentures, need to ensure they fit properly before starting therapy
  3. Risk of osteonecrosis of external auditory canal, report ear infections, ear discharge, ear pain
  4. Severe oesophageal reactions (oesophagitis, oesophageal ulcers, oesophageal stricture and oesophageal erosions) have been reported; patients should be advised to stop taking the tablets and to seek medical attention if they develop symptoms of oesophageal irritation such as dysphagia, new or worsening heartburn, pain on swallowing or retrosternal pain
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151
Q

What are the side effects of bisphosphonates?

A
  • Anaemia
  • Severe oesophageal reactions (ulcers, strictures, erosions)
  • Risk of atypical fracture- Osteonecrosis of jaw or auditory canal
  • Altered taste
    -Joint swelling
  • Hypophosphatemia
    NB- absorption is affected by other meds e.g. iron, so needs to be taken 30 mins before food and other meds
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152
Q

Is estradiol a natural or synthetic oestrogen?

A

Natural

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153
Q

Is ethinylestradiol a natural or synthetic oestrogen?

A

Synthetic

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154
Q

If long term oestrogen therapy is needed for women who still have a uterus, what should be added and why?

A

Progesterone to reduce the risk of hyperplasia of endometrium and cancer

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155
Q

HRT increases the risk of what?

A

Venous thromboembolism,
stroke,
endometrial cancer (reduced by a progestogen),
breast cancer,
ovarian cancer;
there is an increased risk of coronary heart disease in women who start combined HRT more than 10 years after menopause.

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156
Q

What is the treatment for hyperthyroidism? Low TSH + high T4

A

HYPERthyroidism skinny needs Carbs
Carbimazole
Propylthiouracil

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157
Q

What is the important safety information regarding carbimazole?

A

The MHRA/CHM advice: Carbimazole: increased risk of congenital malformations; females of childbearing potential should use effective contraception during treatment.

Neutropenia and agranulocytosis
recognise bone marrow suppression induced by carbimazole and the need to stop treatment promptly.

Report symptoms and signs suggestive of infection, especially sore throat. A white blood cell count should be performed if there is any clinical evidence of infection.
Carbimazole should be stopped promptly if there is clinical or laboratory evidence of neutropenia.

Carbimazole is associated with an increased risk of congenital malformations when used during pregnancy, especially in the first trimester and at high doses (daily dose of 15 mg or more).

MHRA/CHM advice: Carbimazole: risk of acute pancreatitis (February 2019)

acute pancreatitis reported during treatment with carbimazole. It should be stopped immediately and permanently if acute pancreatitis occurs.

Carbimazole should not be used in patients with a history of acute pancreatitis associated with previous treatment—re-exposure may result in life-threatening acute pancreatitis with a decreased time to onset.

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158
Q

What is the patient advice regarding Propylthiouracil?

A

Severe hepatic reactions have been reported

Recognise signs of liver disorder

seek prompt medical attention if symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, fatigue, abdominal pain, jaundice, dark urine, or pruritus develop.

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159
Q

How should a thyroid storm be treated? Rapid heartbeat/ high temp/ diarrhoea and vomiting/ jaundice/ loss of consciousness

A

Emergency situation:
IV fluids
propranolol
hydrocortisone
oral iodine /carbimazole/propylthiouracil

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160
Q

What is first line for hypothyroidism?What is an alternative?

A

Levothyroxine
Liothyronine

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161
Q

What is the patient advice regarding the administration of levothyroxine?

A

Dose to be taken preferably at least 30 minutes before breakfast, caffeine-containing liquids (e.g. coffee, tea), or other medication

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162
Q

What is tibolone used for?

A

For women
Short term treatment of oestrogen deficiency
Osteoporosis prophylaxis

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163
Q

Is norethisterone an oestrogen or progesterone?

A

Progesterone

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164
Q

What is the advice regarding missing a dose of progesterone only pill for contraception?

A

Take it as soon as you rememberHowever if it is not taken within 3 hours of the normal time of taking the pill- additional precautions should be used and for 2 days after

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165
Q

What is the advice regarding vomiting if taking a progesterone only pill?

A

If vomiting occurs within 2 hours of taking an oral progestogen-only contraceptive, another pill should be taken as soon as possible. If a replacement pill is not taken within 3 hours of the normal time for taking the progestogen-only pill, or in cases of persistent vomiting or very severe diarrhoea, additional precautions should be used during illness and for 2 days after recovery (but still keep taking the pill as usual)

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166
Q

True or false:You should take the progesterone only pill (for contraception) at the same time every day

A

True If delayed longer than 3 hours, then the contraceptive effect may be lost

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167
Q

When starting a progesterone only pill for contraception, what is the advice surrounding when to start during the menstrual cycle and if additional contraceptive cover is needed?

A

Should ideally start taking on day 1 of the cycle
Additional contraceptive precautions are not required if norethisterone is started up to and including day 5 of the menstrual cycle; if started after this time, additional contraceptive precautions are required for 2 days.

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168
Q

If you are changing from a combined oral contraceptive pill to the progesterone only, when should this happen?

A

Start on the day following completion of the combined oral contraceptive course without a break (or in the case of ED tablets omitting the inactive ones)

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169
Q

When starting a progesterone only pill for contraception AFTER CHILDBIRTH, what is the advice surrounding when to start and if additional contraceptive cover is needed?

A

Can be started up to and including day 21 postpartum without the need for additional contraceptive precautions. If started more than 21 days postpartum, additional contraceptive precautions are required for 2 days.

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170
Q

If on a progesterone only pill for contraception, in what situations would you need emergency contraception?

A

If one or more progestogen-only contraceptive tablets are missed or taken more than 3 hours late and unprotected intercourse has occurred before 2 further tablets (2 days worth) have been correctly taken.

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171
Q

Which antidiabetic drug can cause lactic acidosis and B12 deficiency?

A

Metformin

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172
Q

If a pregnant patient diagnosed with gestational diabetes what can be done?

A

1) diet and exercise
2) metformin
3) add insulin if metformin ineffective

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173
Q

If a pregnant patient diagnosed with gestational diabetes presents with a fasting glucose of >7mmol/L, what should be done?

A

Should be treated with insulin immediately, with or without metformin hydrochloride, in addition to a change in diet and exercise

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174
Q

What are the complications of gestational diabetes?

A

Hydramnios- a condition in which excess amniotic fluid accumulates during pregnancy
Macrosomia- larger than normal baby

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175
Q

If a pregnant lady presents with complications of gestational diabetes, how should this be managed?

A

Discontinue Ace/ARB and replace with methyldopa or labetalol in pregnancy

Discontinue statin

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176
Q

What is the advice surrounding patients on metformin who is going to have contrast media administered as part of radiologic studies?

A

Can lead to nephrotoxicity
If patient’s eGFR >60 and only missing one meal, then there is no need to stop metformin
If eGFR < 60:Metformin should be discontinued prior to, or at the time of the imaging procedure and not restarted until at least 48 hours after, provided that renal function has been re-evaluated and found to be stable

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177
Q

What is the advice surrounding metformin during surgery?

A

Stop all anti diabetic drugs once insulin infusion is commenced (Acarbose/sulfonylureas/ pioglitazone/ meglintinide/ SGLT2/ Gliptins)

Continue metformin and GLP-1 agonists once infusion insulin is commenced

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178
Q

If a patient is on 500mg OD metformin, due for surgery and the metformin needs to be stopped beforehand, would you give VRII?

A

No, only give VRII if their usual metformin dose is more than once daily OR if their blood glucose is >12 on 2 consecutive occasions

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179
Q

What is the risk of continuing metformin during surgery?

A

Renal impairment may lead to accumulation and lactic acidosis

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180
Q

What is the advice surrounding sulphonylureas and surgery?

A

Sulfonylureas are associated with hypoglycaemia in the fasted state and therefore should always be omitted on the day of surgery until the patient is eating and drinking again. Monitor blood glucose and give insulin if necessary

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181
Q

If a patient does not require VRII, what antidiabetic drugs can be continued during surgery?

A

Pioglitazone, dipeptidylpeptidase-4 inhibitors (gliptins) and glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists can be taken as normal during the whole peri-operative period.Metformin- depends on AKI risk, eGFR, how many doses they are missing

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182
Q

Do gliptins or sulphonylureas have a higher incidence of hypoglycaemia?

A

Sulphonylureas

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183
Q

A HbA1c alone at what level would indicate diabetes?

A

48

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184
Q

HbA1c should not be used for diagnosis in what patients groups?

A

Those with suspected type 1 diabetes, in children, during pregnancy, or in women who are up to two months postpartum
Also should not be used in the following:-
Symptoms for less than 2 months
- Treatment with medication that may cause hyperglycaemia
- Acute pancreatic damage
- HIV
- End stage CKD

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185
Q

Zoledronic acid is contraindicated in what patient group?

A

Women of child bearing potential

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186
Q

For DKA, what strength glucose do you give?

A

10%

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187
Q

For hypoglycaemia when glucose is needed, what strength do you give?

A

20%

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188
Q

A high TSH level with a low FT4 and FT3 level indicates what?

A

Hypothyroidism

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189
Q

A LOW TSH level with a high T4 level and a high T3 level indicates what?

A

HYPERthyroidism

190
Q

How do you manage hyperthyroidism during pregnancy?

A

Carbimazole is associated with congenital defects, including aplasia cutis of the neonate, therefore
propylthiouracil = first trimester of pregnancy.
Second trimester= carbimazole
because of the potential risk of hepatotoxicity with propylthiouracil

191
Q

What is the blocking replacement regime?

A

Over treatment with anti thyroid drugs may cause hyperthyroidism

combination of carbimazole + levothyroxine sodium daily, may be used in a blocking-replacement regimen; therapy is usually given for 18 months.

The blocking-replacement regimen is not suitable during pregnancy

192
Q

Why should you avoid rapid correction of sodium in SIADH?

A

Can cause serious CNS effects and demyelination of neurones

193
Q

What effect can corticosteroids have on potassium levels?

A

Can cause hypokalaemia

194
Q

If chicken pox develops in a person taking corticosteroids, what is recommended?

A

Seek urgent medical attention as they are immunocompromised

Passive immunisation with varicella zoster immunoglobulin is important

195
Q

When would you issue patients with a steroid card?

A

Taking long term steroids > 3 weeks
High dose ICS

196
Q

When would you consider a statin in Type 1 and Type 2 diabetics?

A

Type 1 if >40 years

TYpe 2 if QRISK >10%

197
Q

If a woman presents with gestational diabetes with a blood glucose of <7 , what is first line?What is second line?

A

Diet and exercise If blood glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks, metformin can be prescribed (if not, insulin)

198
Q

If a woman presents with gestational diabetes with a blood glucose of >7, what should happen?

A

Should be treated with insulin immediately, with or without metformin hydrochloride, in addition to a change in diet and exercise

199
Q

If a woman presents with gestational diabetes with a blood glucose of 6-6.9 along with complications e.g. macrosomia, what should happen?

A

Should be considered for immediate insulin treatment, with or without metformin

200
Q

What is macrosomia?

A

Larger than average foetus- usually a complication for pregnant women with diabetes

201
Q

If a driver experiences hypoglycaemia, what should they do?

A

Stop vehicle in safe place
Switch off engine, remove keys, move from drivers seat

> 4 then eat/drink suitable source of sugar (bread/normal meal if due)

<4 glucose tablets, glucose 40% gel (glucogel, dextrogel, rapilose) pure fruit and sugar dissolved in water

Wait 45 mins
Once blood glucose returned normal after 45 mins= continue journey

202
Q

What class of antidiabetic drugs can cause volume depletion, DKA, weight loss, constipation?

A

SGLT2 inhibitors

203
Q

In a woman with No uterus requiring HRT, what preparation should be used?

A

Continuous oestrogen

204
Q

i) In a woman with a uterus requiring HRT, what preparation should be used?

ii) What kind of HRT is unsuitable if the patient is peri-menopausal or <12 months after last period?

A

Progesterone cyclically and oestrogen Or continuous progesterone and oestrogen (avoids withdrawal bleed)
ii) Continuous combined HRT is unsuitable for peri-menopausal or <12 months after last period as it can cause irregular bleeding so you would use cyclic

205
Q

What kind of cancer must you rule out if irregular bleeding continues after stopping continuous HRT?

A

Endometrial cancer

206
Q

Coronary heart disease risk is increased if combined HRT is started how many years after menopause?

A

10 years

207
Q

If combined HRT is started 10 years after menopause, the risk of what is increased?

A

Coronary heart disease

208
Q

What is a severe side effect of Exenatide (GLP1)?

Which other group of drugs also causes this side effect?

A

Severe pancreatitis

DPPi - gliptins (linagliptin… Alogliptin)

209
Q

Can you take risedronate and alendronic acid daily?

A

Prevention of osteoporosis in female 5 mg risedronate daily

Treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis to reduce risk of vertebral or hip fractures
By mouth

Adult (female)

5 mg daily, alternatively 35 mg once weekly.

Treatment of osteoporosis in men =35 mg risedronate once weekly

Treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis female 10 mg daily, or 70 mg once weekly alendronic acid

Treatment of osteoporosis in men
10 mg alendronic acid daily

210
Q

What is the advice if a patient is on levothyroxine and iron tablets?

A

Iron can decrease the absorption of levothyroxine, so separate administration by at least 4 hours

211
Q

What is used if a patient wants to delay her period, and what is the dosing regimen?

A

Norethisteron
5 mg 3 times a day, to be started 3 days before expected onset (menstruation occurs 2–3 days after stopping).

212
Q

Abrupt withdrawal of steroids can lead to what?

A

Abrupt withdrawal after a prolonged period can lead to

acute adrenal insufficiency, hypotension
or death

Withdrawal can also be associated with fever, myalgia, arthralgia, rhinitis, conjunctivitis, painful itchy skin nodules and weight loss.

213
Q

The most commonly prescribed treatments for high cholesterol are

A

statins (HMGCoA Reductase inhibitors) which inhibit endogenous production of LDL Cholesterol and up-regulate its uptake by the liver. The only other therapy in routine use and suggested by NICE is Ezetimibe. Other medication includes; Fibrates (especially if triglycerides are >10mmol/l), Omacor and Bile acid sequestrants but are not for routine use.

214
Q

Name the 3 rapid acting strong insulins
Can you think of their brand names?

A

Insulin GlulisineApidra®
Insulin AspartNovorapid®
Insulin LisproHumalog®

That GAL is RAPID!

215
Q

What type of insulin is Novorapid?

A

Insulin Aspart
Rapid-acting

216
Q

When should the rapid acting insulins be injected?

A

0- 15 mins before food

217
Q

How long does it generally take rapid acting insulins to start working?

A

15 mins

218
Q

How long is the duration of action of rapid acting insulins?

A

2 - 5 hours

219
Q

How many units of insulin do the Flexpen, Flextouch,Kwikpen and Solostar, all pre-filled disposable pens tend to contain?

A

300 units/3ml pens containing 100 units/ ml

220
Q

Are patients more or less at risk of hypglyceamia when using rapid-acting insulins compared to other insulins?

A

Less at risk of hypoglyceamia as it is only in body for a few hours and is used with meals

221
Q

Whattype of insulins aresoluble insulins?

A
222
Q

What kind of insulin is Actrapid?

A

soluble Insulin

223
Q

When should soluble acting insulins be injected?

A

15 - 30 mins before food
Must eat food within 30 mins of injecting to avoid hypoglycaemia
They start working after 30 mins

224
Q

Can you think of any brands of Intermediate acting insulins?

A
225
Q

When should intermediate acting (isophane) insulins be injected?

A

They usually need to be injected twice daily, sometime once daily in eldery
No need to inject with meals
They have a peak action at 4 - 12 hour and last for around 21 hours

226
Q

What are the three types of long- acting insulins? Do you know their brand names?

A

Insulin DetemirLevemir ®
Insulin GlargineLantus ®
Insulin DegludecTresiba®

227
Q

How long do the long-acting insulins usually work for?Which one works for up to 42 hours?

A

Degludec tresiba

228
Q

Which type of insulin is used in medical emergencies such as diabetic ketoacidosis and before surgery?

A

Soluble insulin

229
Q

What is the rational behind biphasic insulin preparations?

A

These are basically pre-mixed preparations of a rapid orshort acting insulin plus a intermediate acting insulin (either the protamine or isophane insulin
They are to be injected twice daily, and are good for patients who don’t like multiple injecting regimens ( also called basal bolus- where people have to inject short acting with meals plus a long acting insulin
Disadvantages of these are that there may be less control as proportions are fixed- if unwell and need to boost their insulin they cannot use these and would need a rapidor short acting insulin for this

230
Q

NovoMix is a Biphasic insulin (intermediate acting). It contains a mixture of which insulins?

A

Insulin aspart rapid acting
Insulin aspart protamine (long acting) Together it becomes intermediate acting- injected twice daily

231
Q

What do Biphasic insulins look like in appearance?

A

Cloudy
Needto be resuspended before use- tell patient this- by rolling in their hands (not shaking)

232
Q

Can you name 4 brands of Biphasic insulins, and their ingredients?

A

Novomix 30 (insulin aspart+ aspart protamine)
Humalog Mix 25 Humalog Mix 50 (Insulin Lispro + lispro protamine) Humulin M3 (soluble insulin + isophane insulin)
Insuman Comb 50 (soluble insulin + isophane insulin)

233
Q

What electrolyte disturbance can insulins cause?

A

HypoKaleamia

234
Q

When should Biphasic insulins be injected?

A

Think about what each one contains: short or rapid acting!
The ones containing rapid acting (NovoMix 30, Humalog Mix) should be injected 0-15 mins before a meal
Containing soluble (Humulin M3, Insuman Comb) inject 15 - 30 mins before a meal

235
Q

What substance in some insulins can cause injection site reactions and therefore is important to make patients aware the importance of rotating the site of action?

A

Protamine

236
Q

The fridge on one of your wards is broken, therefore the not-in-use pens are having to be stored at room temperature. What should inform staff/ label these with?

A

These will now have a 28 day expiry, as not-in-use pens need to be in the fridge to be used by their original expiry date (i.e. now follow the same rules that In-use pens have)

237
Q

To diagnose diabetes, a random venous plasma glucose concentration would need to read > __ mmol/L

A

Over 11 mmol/L

238
Q

To diagnose diabetes, a fasting plasma glucose concentration would need to read over __ mmol/L

A

Fasting= over 7 mmol/L

239
Q

To diagnose diabetes, a two hour plasma glucose concentration (two hours after eating/ two hours after 75g glucose in a glucose tolerance test) would need to read over __ mmol/L

A

Two hour post food/ glucose: Over 11 mmol/L

240
Q

a HbA1c of __ mmol/mol or __% is needed to diagnose diabetes 2

A

HbA1c of over 48 mmol/mol 6.5%

241
Q

What situations would a HbA1c test be inappropriate to diagnose diabetes? (try and think of around 5)

A

Children/ young adults
Suspected Type 1 diabetes
Symptoms less than 2 months
Medication related glucose effects e.g. steroids, antipsychotics
Pancreas damage
Pregnancy
Acutely unwell in hospital

242
Q

Which insulins are cloudy in appearance?

A

Intermediate acting (Isophane)
Biphasic preparations- Novomix, Humulin M3, Humalog Mix, Insuman Comb

243
Q

For a driver of a car/ motorbike, who has been deemed fit to drive due to the presence of only 1 episode of severe hypoglyceamia in the last year, how often should you advise them to check their BG levels?

A

Within 2 hours of starting their journey
Every 2 hours whilst driving
If a hypo occurs: stop, pull over, get out of drivers seat, eat sugar, wait 45 mins after BG have returned to normal to continue driving

244
Q

How many months worth of BGreadings must Lorry drivers provide to the DVLA if they are to drive?

A

3 months

245
Q

How often should Lorry/ Bus drivers test their blood glucose whilst driving, and on days when they’re not driving?

A

Within 2 hours of starting to drive, every 2 hours whilst driving at least twice daily when not driving

246
Q

What are the side effects of insulin?

A

Fat hypertrophy at injection site
Local reactions at injection, the injection site should be rotated to prevent lipodystrophy and cutaneous amyloidosis
oedema
Hypoglycaemia

247
Q

What are the insulin sick day rules?

A

Just because the patient is ill and not eating does not mean they should stop injecting their insulin
infection= stress hormones/ steroids released
steroids increase blood glucose stay well hydrated to avoid DKA
patient should monitor their BG and urine ketones more frequently and be prepared to inject accordingly

248
Q

When should insulin be resuspended before use?

A

For all insulin preparations, except rapid and soluble insulin and insulin glargine (Lantus), the vial or pen should be gently rolled in the palms of the hands (or shaken gently) to resuspend the insulin.

249
Q

First line insulin used in Type 2 diabetes

A

Intermediate acting: Human isophane insulin

250
Q

Novomix is a biphasic insulin with an onset of action of _____ mins and peak activity of ______ hours.

A

Onset of action of 10-20 mins
Peak acivity of 1-4 hours

251
Q

What is it that makes Insulin Degludec (tresiba) different from all the other insulins licensed in the UK?

A

It is the first insulin to be available in two different strengths: 100 units/ml, 200 units/ml

252
Q

How do Sulfonylureas work?

A

Increase insulin secretion from the pancreas

253
Q

Which are short acting and which are long acting sulfonylureas?

A

Short acting Gliclazide, Glipizide, Tolbutamide
Longer acting: Glimepramide
Glibenclamide (longest acting)

254
Q

Which sulfonyurea is most prone to causing Hypoglyceamia, and therefore should be avoided in which population group?

A

Glibencamide (longest acting)
Avoid use in the elderly

255
Q

Do sulfonylureas cause weight loss / weight gain?

A

Weight gain

256
Q

If a patient is overweight should they use sulfonylurea if metformin is contraindicated?

A

No, causes weight gain

257
Q

What side effects can sulphonylureas cause?

A

Weight gain
GI disturbance: Diarrhoea, dyspepsia, nausea, vomitting
Allergic dermatitis (usually in first 6- 8 weeks)
Jaundice (avoid in severe liver impairment)

258
Q

What is Metformins Mechanism of Action?

A

It is a Biguanide: Decreases gluconeogenesis (production of new glucose) and increases peripheral utilisation of glucose
Remember: metformin produce normoglycemia rather than hypoglycaemia It does not increase insulin secretion like other oral antidiabetics, therefore it does not cause weight gain!

259
Q

Main side effects of Metformin?

A

GI upset- take with food, use MR if intolerable
Taste disturbance
Lactic acidosis

260
Q

Metformin can cause Lactic Acidosis What would be potential risk factors for this?

A

risk factors such as renal dysfunction (as metformin accumulates), liver disease, heavy alcohol, IV contrast media- reduces renal function therefore lactic acidosis risk
Poor tissue perfusion/ poor renal function= risk of lactic acidosis

261
Q

What vitamin can Metformin cause deficiency in?

A

Cobalamin Vitamin B12, Can lead to vitamin B12 deficient aneamia: symptoms= increased tirednes, weakness, mouth ulcers, pins and needles, disturbed vision, sore red tongue, depression/ confusion

262
Q

When does metformin become contra-indicated in renal impairment?

A

eGFR falls below 30 ml/min/ 1.73m2
In moderate impairment (eGFR under 45) a dose reduction is needed

263
Q

Max dose of metformin?

A

2g a day

264
Q

What is Acarbose and what is its mechanism?

A

Alpha glucosidase inhibitor- (Acarbose stops the break down of starch and disaccharides to glucose, thereby delaying the digestion and absorption of starch and sucrose- small but significant effect in lowering blood glucose.

265
Q

What are the common Side effects of acarbose?

A

FLATULENCE- advise this will decrease with time
Diarrhoea/ Soft stools(as poo becomes sugary due to limited glucose absorption). Other GI effects

To counteract possible hypoglycaemia, patients receiving insulin or a sulfonylurea as well as acarbose need to carry GLUCOSE (not sucrose—acarbose interferes with sucrose absorption).

266
Q

How should patients be advised to take Acarbose?

A

Manufacturer advises tablets should be chewed with first mouthful of food or swallowed whole with a little liquid immediately before food.

Antacids containing magnesium and aluminium salts unlikely to be beneficial for treating side effects.

267
Q

What happens if a patient on metformin is injected with Iodine X-ray contrast media?

A

Interaction:Renal function deteriorates rapidly can then increase risk of Lactic acidosis

268
Q

What enzyme do the Dipeptidylpeptidase-4 inhibitors inhibit?How does this help lower glucose?
Linagliptin
Sitagliptin
Vildagliptin
Saxagliptin

A

Inhibit an enzyme called Dipeptidylpeptidase-4. This enzyme breaks down incretins, incretins trigger insulin secretion and lower glucagon secretion, therefore they are good at helping control glucose, so by inhibiting the enzyme that breaks them down, gliptins increase incretin levels.Gliptins.. incretins… gliptins…. incretins!

269
Q

What are the side effects of the gliptins (dipeptidylpeptidase 4 inhibitors)?

A

Discontinue if symptoms of acute pancreatitis occur such as persistent, severe abdominal pain

Abdominal pain; gastrooesophageal reflux disease; headache; increased risk of infection; skin reactions

270
Q

Which of the gliptins (Dipeptidylpeptidase-4 inhibitors) should patients have their liver function monitored if taking?

A

Vildagliptin
Report symptoms of liver disease: nausea, vomitting, abdominal pain, fatigue, dark urine discontinue if jaundice or other signs of liver dysfunction occur

Pancreatitis

Discontinue if symptoms of acute pancreatitis occur, such as persistent severe abdominal pain.

271
Q

Which oral antidiabetics can cause acute pancreatitis? What are the symptoms of this?

A

Dipeptidylpeptidase-4 inhibitors (gliptins- sitagliptin, Linagliptin etc)
Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists (Exenatide, Liraglutide, Lixisenatide)
Exenatide especially can cause SEVERE PANCREATITIS
Symptoms: Persistent and severe abdominal pain, Nausea and vomitting

272
Q

What is the mechanism of action of the Thiazolidinediones?(Only one licensed in UK is pioglitazone)

A

Reduces peripheral insulin resistance

273
Q

Which oral antidiabetics must care be taken with in Heart Failure? And what cancer can it possibly increase risk of?

A

Pioglitazone:Incidence of HF increased when pioglitazone is combined with insulin
Also small risk of BLADDER cancer
Signs of bladder cancer: blood in urine, pain on urination, urinaryurgency

274
Q

Can oral anti-diabetic drugs cause headaches?

A

Yes- alot of them cause a headache, particularly pioglitazone and the DDPi gliptins

275
Q

How do the Meglitinides work? Can you name them? When should they be taken?

A

Nateglinide
Repaglinide
Stimulate insulin secretion
Take 30 minutes before meal

276
Q

Can you name any oral anti-diabetic drugs that can cause liver toxicity?

A

Pioglitazone
DDP4i - Vidagliptin

277
Q

What are GLP-1 agonists? How do they work?

A

Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists Examples: Exenatide Liraglutide Lixisenatide
These are given by SUBCUTANEOUS INJECTION- not oral (apart from semaglutide). These work by binding to the GLP-1 receptor causing: Increase in insulin secretion suppression of glucagon secretion (glucagon gets converted in glucose usually) Slow gastric emptying
If given with sulfonylureas or insulin, their dose may need to be reduced as increased risk of hypoglyceamia!

278
Q

Which anti diabetics do we have to be particularly vigelant for symptoms such as persistent and severe abdominal pain, nausea and vomitting?

A

(GLP-1 agonist)
These are symptoms of pancreatitis- exanatide can cause severe pancreatitis- discontinue permanently

Also DDP4i gliptins can cause pancreatitis

279
Q

What should patients be advised to do if they miss a dose of Exenatide? How should it usually be administered?

A

If a dose of the immediate-release injection is missed, treatment should be continued with the next scheduled dose—do not administer after a meal.

If a dose of the modified-release injection is missed, it should be administered as soon as practical, provided the next regularly scheduled dose is due in 3 days or more; thereafter, patients can resume their usual once weekly dosing schedule.

Some oral med’s need to be given 1 hour before or 4 hours after this drug

280
Q

What are the SGLT2 inhibitors?
3 examples? How do they work?

A

Sodium Glucose Co-transporter 2 inhibitors, Gliflozins Examples:Canagliflozin, Dapagliflozin, Empagliflozin
The sodium glucose transporter is found in the kidneys: by inhibiting this they stop glucose being re-absorbed in the renal tubule and therefore more glucose is excreted

281
Q

What important Side effect can the SGLT2 inhibitors (Canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, empagliflozin) cause?
What concomitant drugs/ conditionscould increase the risk of this?

A

Volume depletion
Think floz= flow
Think: these are inhibiting glucose reabsorption into the renal tubules. Water usually follows the glucose- less reabsorbed= less water follows= more weeing etc
Patients need to report signs of this: Dizzy, postural hypotension
Side effects: Thirst
Constipation (less water in stools)
Increased risk: things that also decrease fluid volume
Antihypertensives Elderly diarrhoea

282
Q

When should treatment with pioglitazone be continued if HbA1c has been reduced by at least ___ percentage points within 6 months of starting treatment

A

0.5 percentage

283
Q

Which class of oral anti-diabetics can increase the risk of Genital infections- Thrush and UTIs?

A

SGLT2 inhibitors: Dapagliflozin

284
Q

What condition, other than diabetes, can metformin be used in Unlicensed?

A

Poylcystic ovary syndrome
It helps to normalise the menstrual cycle on ovulation

285
Q

What are patients on pioglitazone urged to report?

A

Symptoms of bladder cancer: heamatruria, dysuria, urinary urgency.

signs of liver toxicity: nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, fatigue and dark urine develop.

discontinue if jaundice occurs

HF

286
Q

What are the contraindications of sulfonylureas?

Especially gliclazide

A

For all SULFONYLUREAS:
Presence of ketoacidosis

For GLICLAZIDE:
Avoid where possible in Acute porphyrias

Metformin in pic incorrect- weight neutral

287
Q

Patient with hepatic impairment prescribed a sulfonylurea?

A

In general, manufacturers advise avoid in severe impairment (increased risk of hypoglycaemia).

Reduce the dose- sulfonylureas metabolised hepatically- they will accumulate and cause hypoglyceamia

288
Q

How should Acarbose be taken?

A

Chewed with first mouthful of food/ with a bit of water immediately before food

289
Q

What is the name of the thiazide diuretic that is used in chronic intractable hypoglyceamia in Neonates/ children?

A

Diazoxide
(remember diuretics can cause hyperglyceamia)

290
Q

You have a patient suffering from newly diagnosed T2 diabetes with poor renal function, What would be your first line choice of antidiabetic?

A

A sulfonylurea- Gliclazide

291
Q

If a patient is of European Descent and they have a BMI of over 35, and metformin and gliclazide have failed to control their BG, what agent would you consider next?

A

Exenatide
This is a NICE recommendation

292
Q

Which bisphosphonate needs to be discontinued if a skin rash develops?

A

Strontium ranelate
Severe allergic reaction:
Symptoms known as DRESS ‘Drug rash with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms’
Starts with: fever, rash, swollen glands, high WCC

293
Q

What is the side effect we need to be vigilant about with Bisphosphonate treatment?

A

Osteonecrosis of the Jaw
The risk is higher with IV therapy for cancer treatment than it is with oral. Patients have a dental check up before starting and need to maintain good oral hygiene and attend regular check ups. They should report any oral symptoms: Pain, inflammation, difficulty swallowing

294
Q

If patients taking Alendronic acid experience dysphagia, heartburn, pain on swallowing or retrosternal pain what should they do?

A

Stop taking and Report it- may be an oesophageal reaction: can be serious

295
Q

Desmopressin, used for diabetes insipidous and first line for nocturnal enuresis, can cause electrolyte disturbance: hyponatreamia. What can this lead to, and what can be done to stop this?

A

Hyponatreamic convulsions mentioned in the BNF. This can be minimised by sticking to the recommended start dose and avoiding drugs that increase secretion of vasopressin such as TCA’s.

296
Q

Clomifene is a drug used to treat female infertility as it is anti-oestrogen. The CSM have advised that it should not be used for more than __ cycles, due to increased risk of _____ cancer.

A

Not for more than 6 cyclesIncreased risk of ovarian cancer with clomifene use.

297
Q

Which drug used in thyroid therapy can cause agranulocytosis and neutropenia? what is this drug used for?

A

Carbimazole
Used for Hyperthyroidism
Used in the 18 month blocking-replacement regimen together with levothyroxine.

298
Q

What test is indicated prior to therapy with levothyroxine and Liothyronine?

A

Baseline ECG- this is because we want to check we haven’t mistaken hypothyroidism with ischaemia/ cardiovascular disease.

299
Q

Which antithyroid drug is used if carbimazole is contraindicated?
What do we need to monitor with this drug?

A

Propylthiouracil
Liver function- severe hepatic reactions have taken place.

300
Q

What drugs are used for management of thyrotoxic symptoms (when too much thyroid hormone has been given)?

A

Beta blockers- propranolol
IV fluids
hydrocortisone

301
Q

What side effect of carbimazole (hyperthyroidism) is common and can be treated with antihistamines without the need to discontinue?

A

Rashes and pruritis- don’t say ‘discontinue’ in exam cause you’ve mistaken it for neutropenia/agranulocytosis

302
Q

Sick day rule for patients on a systemic steroid and fall mildly ill?

A

Double dose for 2 days

303
Q

Sick day rule for patients on a systemic steroid and severely ill?

A

Double dose until symptoms improve

304
Q

If a patients has severe diarrhoea or vomiting and can’t keep their steroid down?

A

Hydrocortisone emergency injection may be needed from GP

305
Q

Difference between Addisons and Cushings (hint: they are opposites)?

A

Addisons is a deficiency of ACTH- (adrenocorticotropic hormone) because the immune system has turned against the adrenal glands.
Symptoms: anorexia, Nausea and vomiting, weightloss- treat with glucocorticoids
Cushings- too much ACTH, caused by long term glucocorticoid therapy or tumour. Moon face, buffalo hump, mood swings, weight gain. Treatment- withdraw the steroid

306
Q

Elevated ketones are a sign of DKA

What are the Symptoms of DKA?

A

Rapid weight loss
Abdominal pain
Nausea and vomiting
Rapid and deep breathing?
Sweet smelling breath
Altered odour of urine/sweat
Sleepiness

307
Q

Who requires gradual withdrawal of systematic corticosteroids?

A
308
Q

How to withdraw corticosteroids from adults and children?

A

Adult:Dose may be reduced rapidly down to physiological dose (equivalent to 7.5mg prednisolone daily) and then reduced more slowlyChild:Dose may be reduced rapidly down to physiological dose (equivalent to 2-2.5 mg/m2 prednisolone daily) and then reduced more slowly

309
Q

When can systemic steroids be stopped abruptly?

A

When disease is unlikely to relapse and those who have received less than 3-weeks treatment

310
Q

How long can corticosteroid-induced adrenal suppression last for after stopping drug

A

1 year or more

311
Q

What is the duration of action of dexamethasone and betamethasone?

A

Long duration of action
Makes it good for suppression of corticotrophin secretion (e.g. congenital adrenal hyperplasia)

312
Q

Steroid with high mineralocorticoid activity and it’s use

A

Fludrocortisone acetate
Can be used to treat postural hypotension

313
Q

Steroid with very high glucocorticoid activity and insignificant mineralocorticoid activity?

A

Betamethasone and Dexamethasone

314
Q

Corticosteroid with moderate glucocorticoid activity and high mineralocorticoid activity - good for topical use because side-effects are less marked?

A

HYDROCORTISONE

315
Q

What are prednisolone and prednisones predominant activity on?

A

Glucocorticoids

316
Q

Side effects of glucocorticoids?

A
317
Q

Side effects of mineralocorticoids

A
318
Q

What is Deflazacort?

A

Derived from prednisolone
Has high glucocorticoid activity

319
Q

What happens to prednisolone when it crosses the placenta in pregnancy?

A

88% is inactivated

320
Q

What is the advise with ketoconazole and hepatic inpairment?
In treating Cushing syndrome

A

Avoid in acute or chronic impairment
Do not initiate the drug if liver enzymes are greater than 2X the normal upper limit

321
Q

Symptoms suggestive of adrenal Insufficiency?

A

Fatigue
Anorexia
Nausea and vomiting
Hypotension
Hyponatraemia
Hypoglycaemia
Hyperkalaemia

322
Q

Characterised by persistent hyperglycaemia, what are the two ways in which diabetes can manifest?

A
  1. Deficient insulin secretion
  2. Resistance to actions of insulin
323
Q

To which 3 conditions can diabetes be secondary?

A
  1. Pancreatic damage2. Hepatitis3. Endocrine disease
324
Q

Which agency must be notified if someone has diabetes and is being treated with insulin?

A

DVLA

325
Q

Which adverse event should drivers be particularly careful of?

A

Hypoglycaemia

326
Q

What must diabetics always carry to ensure they are informed about their plasma glucose?

A
  1. Glucose meter
  2. Test strips
327
Q

Diabetics using insulin should check their plasma glucose how long before driving?

A

Two hours

328
Q

While driving how often should diabetics using insulin test their plasma glucose?

A

Every two hours - more frequent if recent activity that may increase risk of hypo

329
Q

While driving, plasma glucose of diabetic drivers should always be above what threshold?

A

5mmol/L

330
Q

If plasma glucose falls slightly below 5mmol/L, what should diabetic drivers using insulin do?

A

Have a fast-acting carbohydrate

Glucose tablets, glucose drinks, full-sugar soft drinks or squashes, jellies (not diet), sweets.

331
Q

What are the 3 steps that diabetic drivers using insulin should take if their plasma glucose falls below 4mmol/L

A
  1. Stop driving
  2. Switch off the engine, remove keys and move from driver’s seat
  3. Consume source of sugar
332
Q

How long should diabetic drivers using insulin wait before driving after stopping due to it falling below 4mmol/L?

A

45 minutes after it has returned to normal

333
Q

Under which circumstances should diabetic drivers using insulin not drive?

A

If hypoglycaemia awareness has been lost

334
Q

As well as insulin, which other diabetic medicines may it be necessary to inform the DVLA about?

A
  1. Sulphonylureas
  2. Nateglinide
  3. Repaglinide
335
Q

Which lifestyle activity can mask the signs of hypoglycaemia?

A

Alcohol

336
Q

Is it advised for all diabetics to avoid drinking alcohol?

A

No, they must drink in moderation and with food

337
Q

Which test is mainly used to diagnose impaired glucose control? It is useful for when patients do not have severe symptoms but glucose tolerance is impaired

A

Oral Glucose Tolerance Test

338
Q

If symptoms are already present, should the OGTT be used to diagnose diabetes?

A

No

339
Q

In which type of diabetes is OGTT especially useful in diagnosing?

A

Gestational diabetes

340
Q

How is the OGTT conducted?

A

Plasma glucose is measured after fasting for 8 hours.Patient drinks glucose drink. Plasma glucose is measured 2 hours after

341
Q

Which test is a good indicator for glycaemic control?

A

HbA1c

342
Q

What does HbA1c measure?

A

The amount of glycated haemoglobin

343
Q

HbA1c shows average glucose control over how long?

A

The last 3 months

344
Q

Should a patient fast before their HbA1c test?

A

No

345
Q

HbA1c is used in Type 1 and Type 2 monitoring and diagnosis of Type 2, in which situations should it not be used? (10)

A
  1. Type 1 diagnosis
  2. Children
  3. Pregnancy
  4. Up to 2 months post-partum
  5. Symptoms of diabetes less than 2 months
  6. High risk diabetes or critically ill
  7. Treatment with medication that causes hyperglycaemia
  8. Acute pancreatic damage
  9. End stage CKD
  10. HIV
346
Q

In Type 1 Diabetes, how often should HbA1c be measured?

A

every 3-6months

347
Q

In Type 2 Diabetes, how often should HbA1c be measured?

A

every 3-6 months and once stable every 6 months

348
Q

In which patients is HbA1c monitoring invalid?

A
  1. Disturbed erythrocyte turnover
  2. Lack of/abnormal haemoglobin
349
Q

In patients which HbA1c monitoring is invalid, what can be used instead?

A
  1. Quality controlled blood glucose profiles2. Total glycated haemoglobin estimation3. Fructosamine estimation
350
Q

What does fructosamine estimation measure?

A

Glycated concentration of ALL plasma proteins over 14-21 days

351
Q

Can type 1 diabetes produce endogenous insulin?

A

No (little to none)

352
Q

Why is there no insulin secretion in type 1 diabetes?

A

Destruction of insulin-producing pancreatic beta cells

353
Q

What causes the destruction of pancreatic beta cells in type 1 diabetes?

A

Auto-immune basis

354
Q

At what age does type 1 diabetes most commonly occur?

A

Before adulthood

355
Q

What are the microvascular complications of diabetes? (3)

A
  1. Nephropathy
  2. Neuropathy
  3. Retinopathy
356
Q

What are the macrovascular complications of diabetes? (3)

A
  1. Stroke
  2. Cardiovascular disease (MI)
  3. Peripheral arterial disease
357
Q

What blood glucose reading would you expect an adult presenting with Type 1 Diabetes to have?

A

Over 11mmol/L

358
Q

What BMI would you expect an adult presenting with Type 1 Diabetes to have?

A

Less than 25kg/m2

359
Q

How old would you expect an adult presenting with Type 1 Diabetes to be?

A

Less than 50

360
Q

As well as hyperglycaemia, low BMI, and younger than 50, what other characteristics do adults presenting with T1DM have?

A
  1. Rapid weight loss
  2. Ketosis
  3. (Family) history of autoimmune disease
361
Q

Increasingly used in T2DM, what is the mainstay of treatment for T1DM?

A

Insulin

362
Q

Using insulin regimens, what are the 3 aims of treating T1DM?

A
  1. Achieve blood glucose control
  2. Reduce frequency of hypoglycaemic episodes
  3. Minimise the risk of microvascular and macrovascular complications
363
Q

What is the target HbA1c for T1DM?

A

Less than 48mmol/mol

364
Q

How often must T1DM patients monitor their blood glucose daily?

A

at least 4 times daily - before each meal and before bed

365
Q

What is the target fasting blood glucose for T1DM patients?

A

5-7mmol/L

366
Q

What is the target random blood glucose for T1DM patients?

A

4-7mmol/L

367
Q

What is the target blood glucose for T1DM patients after eating?

A

5-9mmol/L

368
Q

As well as controlling blood glucose with insulin, which other cardiovascular risk factors must be actively managed in patients with diabetes?

A
  1. Hypertension
  2. Blood lipids
369
Q

Unlicensed, which oral antidiabetic can be used alongside insulin in the management of T1DM?

A

Metformin

370
Q

Unlicensed, in which patients can Metformin be used alongside insulin in the management of T1DM?

A

BMI over 25 (over 23 S. Asian)

371
Q

What are the advantages of using Metformin alongside insulin (unlicensed) in T1DM?

A
  1. Improve blood glucose
  2. Minimise insulin dose
372
Q

Which other healthcare professional should be involved in manageing patients with diabetes to ensure they control their weight, lower cardiovascular risk and understand the hyperglycaemia effects of food?

A

Dietician

373
Q

What type of training must T1DM patients receive in order to tailor their insulin dose throughout the day?

A

Carbohydrate-counting training

374
Q

Can insulin be initiated by the GP?

A

No, specilist initiation and management

375
Q

What are the 3 main insulin REGIMENS?

A
  1. Multiple daily BASAL-BOLUS regimens2. Mixed (BIPHASIC) regimens3. Continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion
376
Q

A basal insulin injection is…

A

Long acting

377
Q

A bolus insulin injection is…

A

Short acting

378
Q

What does a mixed (biphasic) regimen injection contain?

A

Short acting + intermediate acting

379
Q

What is the first line recommended insulin regimen for patients with T1DM?

A

Basal-bolus

380
Q

Give 2 examples of long acting insulin injections

A
  1. Insulin detemir2. Insulin glargine
381
Q

Are non basal-bolus insulin regimens recommended for patients newly diagnosed with T1DM? Examples: biphasic, basal-only, bolus-only

A

NO

382
Q

When should rapid acting insulin be administered?

A

Before meals

383
Q

What is the second line insulin regimen for patients with T1DM?

A

Biphasic

384
Q

Which insulin regimen should patients with disabling hyperglyceamia or high HbA1c above 69 mmol/mol be given? Specialist initiation only

A

Continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion

385
Q

What can persistent poor glucose control be due to?

A
  1. Adherence issues
  2. Poor injection technique
  3. Injection site issues
  4. Poor blood-glucose monitoring skills
  5. Lifestyle (diet/exercise/alcohol)
  6. Psychological issues
  7. Organic disease
386
Q

Give 5 examples of organic disease that may cause poor glucose control

A
  1. Renal disease2. Thyroid disorder3. Coeliac disease4. Addison’s disease5. Gastroparesis
387
Q

Under which circumstances might a patient require increased insulin? (3)

A
  1. Infection2. Stress3. Accidental/Surgical trauma
388
Q

Under which circumstances might a patient require decreased insulin? (3)

A
  1. Physical activity2. Intercurrent illness3. Reduced food intake4. Impaired renal function5. Endocrine disorders
389
Q

What are the early symptoms of hypoglycaemia? (8)

A
  1. Palour2. Tingling lips3. Sweating4.Palpitations5. Fatigue6. Hunger7. Shaking/Trembling8.Irritable
390
Q

What are the symptoms of more advanced hypoglycaemia? (8)

A
  1. Weakness2. Blurred vision3. Difficulty concentrating4. Slurred speech5. Confusion6. Sleepiness7. Seizures8. Coma
391
Q

What is an invetiable adverse effect of insulin?

A

Hypoglycaemia

392
Q

When can impaired hypoglycaemia awareness occur? (2)

A
  1. Ability to recognise symptoms is lost2. Symptoms are blunted / no longer present
393
Q

Which questionnaire can be used to assess hypoglycaemia awareness?

A

Gold/Clarke score

394
Q

What may reduce warning signs of hypoglyacemia?

A

Increased frequency of hypoglycaemia episodes

395
Q

Impaired awareness of symptoms at which plasma glucose reading is considered significant?

A

less than 3mmol/L

396
Q

Which class of drug can blunt awareness of hypoglycaemia by reducing the warning sign: tremor?

A

Beta blockers

397
Q

Provided by the GP or community pharmacy, which container is used when disposing of insulin pens and needles?

A

Yellow sharps bin

398
Q

How is the yellow sharps bin full of insulin pens and needles disposed of?

A

Taken from the patient by the local authority

399
Q

What are the two functions of insulin?

A
  1. Increase glucose uptake by adipose tissue and muscles2. Suppress hepatic glucose release
400
Q

Which insulin regimen best mimics the normal profile of the body releasing endogenous insulin?

A

Basal-bolus

401
Q

Insulins from which source are no longer initiated in patients with diabetes?

A

Animals

402
Q

How common is insulin allergy?

A

Rare

403
Q

Through which route is insulin usually administered?

A

Subcutaneous

404
Q

With plenty of subcutaneous fat, to which areas of the body is insulin injected? (3)

A
  1. Abdomen2. Outer thighs3. Buttocks
405
Q

Which factors can change rate of absorption? (6)

A
  1. Local tissue reactions2. Injection site3. Depth of injection4. Changes in insulin sensitivity5. Blood flow6. Amount injected
406
Q

What can increase the amount of blood flow at the injection site?

A

Exercise

407
Q

Causing erratic absorption of insulin, what can occur if injections are repeatedly administered to the same site?

A

Lipohypertrophy

408
Q

What does short-acting insulin replicate?

A

The insulin released by the body in response to a meal

409
Q

What are the 3 short-acting insulins?

A
  1. Insulin glulisine
  2. Insulin aspart
  3. Insulin lispro
410
Q

How long does short-acting insulin take to act?

A

15mins

411
Q

How long before meals should short-acting insulin be administered

A

Immediately

412
Q

Why should post-meal injections be avoided? (2)

A
  1. Poorer glucose control2. Hypoglycemia
413
Q

What is the intermediate-acting insulin called?

A

Isophane insulin

414
Q

What does intermediate-acting insulin mimic?

A

Endogenous basal insulin continuously secreted in response to glucose production by liver

415
Q

How long does intermediate-acting insulin take to work?

A

1-2hours

416
Q

How long does intermediate-acting insulin last?

A

11-24hours

417
Q

What are the 2 regimen options for intermediate-acting insulins?

A
  1. One or more daily injections of intermediate insulin + short-acting insulins at meal times2. Mixed (biphasic) insulin injections
418
Q

What are the 3 long-acting insulins?

A
  1. Insulin detemir2. Insulin glargine3. Insulin degludec
419
Q

Which long-acting insulin can be administered either once or twice daily? The other two can only be administered once daily

A

Insulin detemir

420
Q

Mimimicing endogenous insulin, what is the duration of action of long-acting insulin?

A

36 hours

421
Q

How long does it take for long-acting insulin to reach steady state?

A

2-4 days

422
Q

What is the NHS improvement important safety alert regarding insulin devices?

A

Risk of severe harm and death due to withdrawing insulin from pen devices - Insulin should not be extracted from pen devices

423
Q

What is the recommended plasma glucose level in children with T1DM most of the time?

A

Between 4 and 10mmol/L

424
Q

When prescribing and dispensing insulin, which word should NOT be abbreviated?

A

“unit”

425
Q

When handing out insulin to a patient, what must you do?

A

Show them the container to confirm the expected version is dispensed

426
Q

What is the initial treatment of hypoglycaemia?

A

10-20g glucose by mouth

427
Q

After the initial treatment of hypoglycaemia, what can be given to prevent levels falling again?

A

A carbohydrate snack

428
Q

When is hypoglycaemia an emergency?

A

If it cause unconsciousness

429
Q

In hypoglycaemia, if sugar cannot be given by mouth, what can be administered by injection?

A

Glucagon - increases the plasma-glucose concentration by mobilising glucagon stored in the liver

430
Q

True of false: Glucagon can be issued to close relatives of patients taking insulin to treat hypoglyacemia

A

TRUE

431
Q

In hypoglycaemia, what is the alternative treatment to glucagon?

A

Glucose 20% IV Infusion into a large vein

432
Q

In hyperglycaemia, glucose 20% can be administered as an alternative to glucagon. Why can’t glucose 50% be given? (2)

A
  1. High risk of extravasation2. Difficult to administer
433
Q

Glucagon is not appropriate for use in chronic hypoglycaemia. Which drug can be administered by mouth to treat hypoglycaemia due to excess endogenous insulin secretion ?

A

Diazoxide

434
Q

What is the dose of metformin?

A

Initially 500 mg OD for at least 1 week, dose to be taken with breakfast, then 500 mg twice daily for at least 1 week, dose to be taken with breakfast and evening meal, then 500 mg 3 times a day, dose to be taken with breakfast, lunch and evening meal; maximum 2 g per day.

435
Q

Metformin causes vitamin b12 deficiency, what are the signs and symptoms?

A
436
Q

Which insulins can you prescribe during pregnancy or breast feeding ?

A

Aspart
Lispro

437
Q

Which long acting insulin can be prescribed for pregnancy/breastfeeding

A

Isophane insulin

High risk of hypo with insulin especially in 1st trimester
Patient should carry glucose/dextrose/glucose drink

Prescribe glucagon for use when needed for type 1 diabetic patients

438
Q

True or false?
Insulin treats hyperkalaemia

A

True insulin causes HYPOkalaemia

439
Q

True or false
prednisone 5mg may cause patients periods to be irregular

A

True

440
Q

Which of the following will increase insulin requirements?
Inter current illness
Infection
Physical activity
Impaired renal function
Reduced food intake

A

Infection stress accidental or surgical trauma can all increase insulin requirement.

Physical activity, inter current illness, reduced food intake, impaired renal function = decreased insulin requirement

441
Q

What should be the target clinic BP in type 1 diabetic with HTN

Type 2 diabetic with HTN

A

135/85

130/80

442
Q

What affect does ACEi have in diabetes

A

HYPOglycaemia
(may lower blood glucose; increased risk of hyperkalaemia)

443
Q

Microvascular vs macrovascular

A

Micro- affects eyes kidneys and nerves

Macro- affects heart brain blood vessels

444
Q

Does the dose of insulin need to be increased or decreased during pregnancy?

A

The dose of insulin generally needs to be increased in the second and third trimesters of pregnancy

445
Q

What does isophane contain?

A

Intermediate insulin- containing insulin and protamine

446
Q

Do corticosteroids cause hyper/hypoglycaemia ?

A
447
Q

What is the topical strength of Synalar fluocinolone 0.025% ?

Potent? Moderate?

A
448
Q

Hypothyroidism vs hyperthyroidism

A
449
Q

Metformin interaction with cimetidine

A
450
Q

How do you apply topical corticosteroids with other topical preparations?

A
451
Q

Side effects of topical corticosteroids

A
452
Q

How do you counsel on applying topical corticosteroids

A
453
Q

Corticosteroid counselling

A
454
Q

Mometasone -potent / moderate?
Hydrocortisone butyrate- potent/moderate potency?

A
455
Q

Do corticosteroids cause hyper /HYPOkalaemia?

A
456
Q

Which corticosteroids mineral/ gluco have high anti inflammatory effects?

A
457
Q

Which antidiabetic drugs are contraindicated in ketoacidosis?

A
458
Q

Diabetes numbers

A
459
Q

Which drugs exacerbate Aki?

A
460
Q

Which antidiabetic drugs cause weight gain?

A
461
Q

Hormone replacement therapy for osteoporosis, is restricted to what age group?

A

HRT is restricted to younger postmenopausal women due to CVD and cancer in older postmenopausal women on long term HRT

462
Q

Finasteride inhibits enzyme 5 alpha reductase metabolises testosterone
What is finasteride used for ?

A

BPH -5mg daily
Alopecia 1mg daily

463
Q

MHRA advice for finasteride

A

The MHRA has received reports of depression and, in rare cases, suicidal thoughts in men taking finasteride (Propecia®) for male pattern hair loss; depression is also associated with Proscar® for benign prostatic hyperplasia. Patients should be advised to stop finasteride immediately and inform a healthcare professional if they develop depression.

Cases of male breast cancer have been reported. Patients or their carers should be told to promptly report to their doctor any changes in breast tissue such as lumps, pain, or nipple discharge.

464
Q

What is finasteride licensed for use in management with doxazosin

A

BPH

465
Q

Should contraception be used with finasteride?

A

Finasteride is excreted in semen and use of a condom is recommended if sexual partner is pregnant or likely to become pregnant.

466
Q

Can women touch finasteride?

A

Avoid handling crushed/broken tablets and capsules

467
Q

What are the side effects of finasteride

A

Impotence
Decreased libido
Ejaculation disorders
Breast tenderness and enlargement

468
Q

Tibolone side effects

A

Vaginal bleeding

Investigate for endometrial cancer if bleeding continues beyond 6 months or after stopping treatment.

Reasons to withdraw treatment

Withdraw treatment if signs of thromboembolic disease, abnormal liver function tests, or signs of cholestatic jaundice.

469
Q

????? In which 3 anti diabetics is DKA contraindicated in?

A

Sulphonylureas
SGLT2
DPP4i ????

470
Q

Very high blood sugar and low insulin levels lead to DKA.
What are the two most common causes?

A

Illness. When you get sick, you may not be able to eat or drink as much as usual, which can make blood sugar levels hard to manage.

Missing insulin shots, a clogged insulin pump, or the wrong insulin dose.

471
Q

What is DKA and why is it more common in type 1 diabetes?

A

DKA develops when your body doesn’t have enough insulin to allow blood sugar into your cells for use as energy. Instead, your liver breaks down fat for fuel, a process that produces acids called ketones. When too many ketones are produced too fast, they can build up to dangerous levels in your body.

472
Q

In type 2 diabetes which drug is most likely to cause DKA?

A

SGLT2 - Flozins