Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pre Reg 2021 Darush > Chapter 6: Endocrine system > Flashcards

Chapter 6: Endocrine system Flashcards

1
Q

What is the advice from the DVLA regarding insulin dependent diabetic drivers?

A
  • Should always carry a glucose meter and test strips when driving
  • Check blood glucose no more than 2 hours before driving and then every 2 hours during driving
  • Blood glucose should always be above 5 mmol/L whilst driving
  • Should always ensure a fast-acting carbohydrate is available in the vehicle
  • If get hypo, stop car, have sugary beverage and then drive after 45mins if BMs in range
  • If blood glucose is <4 mmol/L, should NOT drive
  • This may also be the case in patients taking oral antidiabetic drugs (sulfonylureas, nateglinide, repaglinide), in particular, those that cause hypoglycaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

True or false:Alcohol can cause delayed hyperglycaemia

A

False- can cause delayed HYPOglycaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Do you have to fast before a HbA1c test?

A

No
WHO: HbA1c below 42 mmol/mol (6.0%): Non-diabetic

HbA1c between 42 and 47 mmol/mol (6.0–6.4%): Impaired glucose regulation or Prediabetes

HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or over: Type 2 diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Is HbA1c used for monitoring glycaemic control in Type 1 diabetes, Type 2 diabetes, or both?

A

Both Should not be used for diagnosis of Type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How often should HbA1c be measured in diabetes?

A

Every 3-6 months If type 2 and stable, can be every 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the recommended HbA1c target in Type 1 diabetes?

A

48mmol/mol or lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How often should blood glucose be measured in Type 1 diabetes?

A

At least 4 times a day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the blood glucose aims in Type 1 diabetes for:a) Wakingb) Before meals c) 90 minutes after eatingd) Driving

A

a) 5-7mmol/L on waking
b) 4-7mmol/L before meals
c) 5-9mmol/L at least 90 mins after eating
d) at least 5mmol/L when driving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a basal bolus insulin regimen?

A

One or more separate daily injections of intermediate-acting insulin or long-acting insulin analogue as the basal insulin; (mimics background insulin)

alongside multiple bolus injections of short-acting insulin before meals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a mixed (biphasic) insulin regimen?

A

One, two, or three insulin injections per day of short-acting insulin mixed with intermediate-acting insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What insulin regimen is first choice for Type 1 diabetics?

A

Basal bolus

1) Insulin detemir (Levemir) BD (has a plataeu effect over 24hrs hence BD) should be offered as the long insulin therapy
2) Insulin glargine (Lantus) OD if dosing issues
3) Insuline detemir (Levemir) OD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In a basal bolus regimen for Type 1 diabetes, what basal insulin would be first choice?What would be the second choice?

A

Insulin determir (Levemir) BD - can also be offered as once daily

Once daily insulin glargine (Lantus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Are non-basal bolus regimens recommended in newly diagnosed Type 1 diabetics?

A

No Should only be considered after trying basal bolus regimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In basal bolus regimen in Type 1 diabetes, what type of insulin is recommended for the bolus aspect?

A

Rapid acting insulin (LAG - Lispro - Humalog, Aspart - novorapid, Glulisine - apidra) (Rather than soluble human or animal insulin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Continuous subcut insulin infusion therapy should only be offered to what group of people?

A
  • Suffer from disabling hypoglycaemia

- High HbA1c of 69 or above with multiple daily injection therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What situations can cause an INCREASE in required insulin dose?

A
  • Carb intake
  • Infection
  • Exercise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What situations can cause an DECREASE in required insulin dose?

A

NAME?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Patients’ awareness of hypoglycaemia should be assessed annually using what score tools?

A

Gold or Clarke score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What cardiac class of drug can blunt hypoglycaemia awareness?

A

Beta blockersWill reducing warning signs such as tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is an impaired awareness of hypoglcyaemia?

A

Can occur when the ability to recognise usual symptoms of hypoglycaemia is lost, or when the symptoms are blunted or no longer present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 3 types of insulin sources?

A

Human insulinHuman insulin analoguesAnimal insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which area of the body has the fastest absorption rate for insulin?

A

Abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What can occur if you repeatedly inject insulin into the same area without rotating?

A

LipohypertrophyCan cause erratic absorption of insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How much time before meals do you administer short acting soluble insulin?

A

15-30 minutes before

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the most appropriate form of insulin to use in diabetic emergencies e.g. DKA

A

Soluble insulin (short-acting) IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the 3 types of rapid acting insulin?

A

Insulin aspartInsulin glulisineInsulin lispro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How much time before meals do you administer rapid acting insulin?

A

Immediately before

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the advantages of rapid acting insulin over short acting insulin?

A

NAME?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Is injecting short acting insulins post meals recommended?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What type of insulin is isophane?

A

Intermediate - designed to mimic the effect of endogenous basal insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are biphasic insulins?

A

Pre-mixed insulin preparations containing various combinations of short-acting insulin (soluble insulin or rapid-acting analogue insulin) and an intermediate-acting insulin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the long acting insulins?

A

Insulin detemirInsulin glargineInsulin degludecRarely prescribed:Protamine zinc insulinInsulin zinc suspension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Does metformin cause hypoglycaemia?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

If standard release metformin is not tolerated e.g. GI side effects, what should be given?

A

Modified release metformin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Give examples of sulfonylureas

A

Glibenclamide GliclazideTolbutamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Give examples of meglitinides

A

NateglinideRepaglinide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Give examples of DPP-4 inhibitors

A

AlogliptinLinagliptinSitagliptinSaxagliptinVildagliptin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is an advantage of DPP-4 inhibitors over sulphonylureas in terms of side effects?

A

Not associated with weight gain and have less incidence of hypoglycaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Give examples of SGLT2 inhibitors

A

CanaglifozinDapaglifozinEmpaglifozin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Give examples of GLP-1 receptor agonists

A

DulaglutideExenatideLiraglutideLixisenatide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What should be the target HbA1c in a Type 2 diabetic that is managed by lifestyle/ a single antidiabetic agent that is NOT associated with hypoglycaemia?

A

48 mmol/mol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What should be the target HbA1c in a Type 2 diabetic that is managed with one or more antidiabetic drugs that cause hypoglycaemia?

A

53 mmol/mol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In terms of HbA1c, when should treatment in a Type 2 diabetic on ONE antidiabetic drug be intensified?

A

58 mmol/mol or higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What should be the target HbA1c in a Type 2 diabetic that is managed with 2 or more antidiabetic drugs?

A

53 mmol/mol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is first line drug treatment in Type 2 diabetes and why?

A

Metformin

  • Positive effect on weight loss
  • Reduced risk of hypoglycaemia
  • Long term cardiovascular benefits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q 
If a sulphonylurea is indicated in one of the following:-
 - Elderly patients
- Renal impairment
- Particular risk of hypoglycaemia 
What sulphonylurea should you opt for?
A

Short acting one e.g. gliclazide or tolbutamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

If a Type 2 diabetic is not been adequately controlled on metformin and requires intensification of treatment, what are the add in options?

A
  • Sulphonylurea
  • Pioglitazone
  • DPP-4 inhibitor
    SGLT-2 inhibitor
  • only when sulphonylureas are contraindicated or if patient is at significant risk of hypoglycaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Type 2 diabetes:Dapagliflozin is not recommended in a triple therapy regimen with what drug?

A

Pioglitazone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Type 2 diabetes:If dual therapy is unsuccessful, what are the triple therapy combination options?

A
  • Metformin + sulphonylurea + DPP4
    Metformin + sulphonylurea + pioglitazone
  • Metformin + sulphonylurea + SGLT-2 inhibitor
    (not dapaglifozin) May be appropriate to start insulin at this stage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When is GLP-1 receptor agonists indicated in Type 2 diabetes?

A
  • If triple therapy with metformin and 2 other oral drugs are tried
  • BMI of 35 kg/m2 or above (adjusted for ethnicity) and who also have specific psychological or medical problems associated with obesity; or for
  • BMI lower than 35 kg/m2 but for whom insulin therapy would have significant occupational implications or if the weight loss associated with glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists would benefit other significant obesity-related comorbidities.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

If started on a GLP-1 receptor agonist for Type 2 diabetes, when should this be reviewed and how do you know it is okay to continue?

A

After 6 months, the drug should be reviewed and only continued if there has been a beneficial metabolic response (a reduction of at least 11 mmol/mol [1.0%] in HbA1c and a weight loss of at least 3% of initial body-weight).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

If metformin is contraindicated or not tolerated, what should be used for initial treatment?

A

Sulphonylurea or DPP-4 inhibitor monotherapy

SGLT2 inhibitor monotherapy can be used only if the above are not appropriate

Repaglinide can be used as monotherapy however cannot be used in combination with anything else other than metformin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the problem with using repaglinide monotherapy in Type 2 diabetes?

A

If intensification of treatment is required, can only be given with metforminIt is NOT licensed in combination with any other antidiabetic drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

In patients where metformin is contraindicated/not tolerated:If a patient is on a non-metformin single therapy however requires intensification of treatment, what dual combinations can be prescribed?

A
  • DPP-4 inhibitor and pioglitazone
    DPP-4 inhibitor and sulfonylurea
  • Pioglitazone and sulfonylurea dual therapy does not provide control, consider insulin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

If a patient is on dual therapy for Type 2 diabetes, and metformin is contraindicated/not tolerated, what should be considered?

A

Insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

In Type 2 diabetes, if insulin therapy is required, what should happen to their other antidiabetic drugs?

A

NAME?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

In Type 2 diabetics, what insulin regimens can you use?

A
  • Isophane (NPH) OD/BD- Isophane + short acting (either separate or pre-mixed)
  • particularly appropriate if HbA1c is 75 or higher
  • Insulin detemir or glargine can be an alternative to isophane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

In Type 2 diabetics, at what HbA1c would the following insulin regimen be particularly appropriate:Isophane + short acting insulin (separate or pre-mixed)

A

75 or higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

In type 2 diabetics requiring insulin therapy, when would long acting insulin (glargine or detemir) be preferable?

A

NAME?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

When starting insulin therapy in Type 2 diabetes, when should the first basal insulin be given and how do you adjust the dose?

A

Bedtime basal insulin should be initiated and the dose titrated against fasting glucose in the morning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Providing there are no contraindications, what should you give for diabetic nephropathy that is causing proteinuria or established microalbuminuria?

A

Blood pressure should be reduced to the lowest achievable level to reduce the glomerular filtration rateARB or ACEi to be started even if the blood pressure is normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the potential problem with ACEis in diabetics if the patient is on insulin or oral antidiabetic drugs?

A

Can potentiate the hypoglycaemic effect More likely in the first few weeks of combined treatment and in patients with renal impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The management of DKA involves what?What should happen to their basal insulin?What should be monitored and how often?

A

Replacement of fluid and electrolytesInclude potassium chloride in the fluids unless anuria is suspected Administration of soluble insulin in sodium chloride 0.1 units/kg/hrLong acting insulin (basal) should be continued in the background If blood glucose falls below 14, give glucose 10%Monitor ketones and glucose hourlyMonitor BP Blood pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

During DKA treatment when the patient is on an insulin infusion, when should you recommence the short acting subcut insulin and stop the infusion and how is this done?

A

Continue insulin infusion until blood-ketone concentration is below 0.3 mmol/litre, blood pH is above 7.3 and the patient is able to eat and drink; ideally give subcutaneous fast-acting insulin and a meal, and stop the insulin infusion 1 hour later.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

In the management of HHS, are lower or higher rates of insulin infusion usually required compared to DKA?

A

Lower rates usually required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

During DKA management, what rate should you give the insulin infusion?

A

0.1 units/kg/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Diabetic women who are planning on becoming pregnant should aim to keep their HbA1c to what?

A

Below 48 if possible without causing any problematic hypoglycaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the folic acid supplementation recommendation in diabetic patients planning on becoming pregnant?

A

High dose - 5mg daily as classed in the high risk group of neural tube defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the treatment recommendation for diabetic patients when they become pregnant? What about during breastfeeding?

A

All antidiabetic drugs APART from metformin should be stopped and substituted with insulin therapyFor breastfeeding, the options are:- Insulin continued- Metformin continued- Glibenclamide is fine to restart if originally on it However, all other antidiabetic agents should be avoided during breastfeeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the first choice for long acting insulin therapy during pregnancy?

A

Isophane insulin However in women who have good blood-glucose control before pregnancy with the long-acting insulin analogues (insulin detemir or insulin glargine), it may be appropriate to continue using them throughout pregnancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the patient advice regarding insulin therapy during pregnancy?

A

Should be aware of the risk of hypoglycaemia and should always carry a fast-acting form of glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

It is recommended that pregnant women with Type 1 diabetes should be prescribed what just in case of hypoglycaemia?

A

Glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Women with pre-existing diabetes treated with insulin during pregnancy are at an increased risk of what?

A

Hypoglycaemia during the postnatal period Should reduce their insulin immediately after birth and blood glucose levels monitored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

If a diabetic patient is on an ACEi or ARB for diabetic complications, however wishes to become pregnant, what would be the most appropriate action?

A

ACEi or ARB should be discontinued and an alternative antihypertensive suitable in pregnancy should be used(Preferably before conception if pregnancy is planned)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

If a diabetic patient becomes pregnant but is on a statin, what would be the most appropriate action?

A

Discontinue the statin during pregnancy (Preferably before conception if pregnancy is planned)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

True or false:A patient with gestational diabetes should continue their hypoglycaemic treatment after birth

A

False - should discontinue hypoglycaemic treatment immediately after giving birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

How would you manage an insulin dependent diabetic patient with good glycaemic control due for an elective minor procedure?(Day before surgery and during the operative period)

A

On the day before surgery, give the usual insulin dose However, once daily long acting insulins should be given at 80% of normal doseThen their usual insulin regimen can be adjusted accordingly during the operative period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

On the day before a minor op in an insulin dependent diabetic with good glycaemic control, you can give their usual insulin dose as normal. With what insulin would you not give the full dose?

A

Long acting insulinYou give 80% of normal dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How would you manage an insulin dependent diabetic due for major elective surgery or in patients pre-op who have poor glycaemic control?(Day before surgery, day of surgery, during the operative period)

A

VRII - Continued until the patient is eating/drinking and stabilised on their previous diabetes medicationDay before surgery - Give normal insulin dose (Apart from once daily long acting insulin is given at 80% usual dose)Day of surgery and during the operative period:- Once daily insulin given at 80% usual dose. All of the other patient’s insulin should be stopped until the patient is eating and drinking again- Start IV infusion of potassium chloride with glucose and sodium chloride AND a variable rate insulin infusion of soluble human insulin in 0.9% sodium chloride Blood glucose monitored hourly for at least the first 12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

In patients that are on VRII during an operative period, what would you do if their blood glucose drops below 6?What about if it drops before 4?

A

<6 - Give IV glucose 20% and check blood glucose hourly<4 - Give IV glucose 20% and check blood glucose every 15 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

After surgery, if a patient is on VRII, they must not restart their subcut insulin until when?

A

They are eating/drinking without nausea or vomiting Note- their insulin dose may need adjusting due to altered food intake/post-op stress/infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

After surgery, a patient is ready to stop their VRII and go back to their BASAL-BOLUS regimen when would you stop the VRII and restart their subcut insulin?

A

Should be restarted when the first post-op meal is due Give the first short-acting insulin first and then stop VRII 30-60 mins after Note- the long acting insulin is continued in the background of VRII at 80% dose - should continue at that dose until the patient leaves hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

After surgery, a patient is ready to stop their VRII and go back to their TWICE DAILY MIXED insulin regimen when would you stop the VRII and restart their subcut insulin?

A

Should be restarted before breakfast or evening meal (not at any other time) Stop VRII 30-60 mins after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

In type 2 diabetes, when would you consider VRII for surgery?

A
  • When the fasting period requires more than one missed meal - major elective surgery - Patients with poor glycaemic control- Risk of renal injury- If on insulin as part of their treatment anyway -
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

If VRII is required for surgery in a type 2 diabetic, what antidiabetic drugs should be stopped?When should they be restarted?

A
  • Acarbose- Sulfonylureas- DPP-4 inhibitors- Pioglitazone- Meglitinides- SGLT-2 inhibitorsShould not be restarted until the patient is eating and drinking normally
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

If VRII is required for surgery in a type 2 diabetic, can GLP-1 receptor agonists be continued?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

If a type 2 diabetic requires a minor surgical period, what should you do about their antidiabetic treatment?

A

If it requires a short fasting period (one missed meal), it may be possible to adjust antidiabetic drugs to avoid a switch to VRII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

SGLT2 inhibitors are associated with an increased risk of DKA, particularly the case in what situations?

A

Dehydration, stress, surgery, trauma, acute medical illness or any other catabolic state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the maximum licensed daily dose of standard release metformin compared to MR metformin?

A

Standard release- 3g/dayMR - 2g/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the side effects of metformin?

A

NAME?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

At what eGFR should you avoid metformin?

A

<30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are the risk factors for lactic acidosis?

A

Chronic heart failureConcomitant use of drugs that acutely impair renal function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the patient advice with metformin?

A

Should be informed of the risk of lactic acidosis and told to seek immediate medical attention if symptoms such as dyspnoea, muscle cramps, abdominal pain, hypothermia, or asthenia (weakness/lack of energy) occurTake with meals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

MR gliclazide is equivalent to what standard release gliclazide dose?

A

30mg MR = 80mg standard release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the main side effects of gliclazide to warn your patient about?

A

Weight gainHypoglycaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the important safety information regarding pioglotazone?

A

NAME?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the MHRA advice surrounding SGLT2 inhibitors?

A

Risk of DKA Inform patients to be aware of signs e.g. rapid weight loss, sweet smell to breath, different odour in urine/sweatReports of Fournier’s gangrene (necrotising fasciitis of the genitalia or perineumCanagliflozin - risk of lower-limb amputation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the MHRA advice surrounding the use of canagliflozin?

A

Risk of lower-limb amputation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Which antidiabetic class can cause pancreatitis?

A

DPP-4 inhibitors (gliptins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Which antidiabetic drug class commonly causes UTIs?

A

SGLT2 inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Can you use nateglinide as monotherapy in diabetes?

A

No - only with metformin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

With what antidiabetic drug would it not be suitable in those with hernias or GI obstructions?

A

Acarbose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is the dose frequency of the 4 different GLP-1 receptor agonists?

A

Weekly for albiglutide and dulaglutide Twice daily with exenatide (modified release can be once weekly)Liraglutide is once weekly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is the important safety information regarding insulin pen devices?

A

Insulin should not be extracted from insulin pen devices.The strength of insulin in pen devices can vary by multiples of 100 units/mL. Insulin syringes have graduations only suitable for calculating doses of standard 100 units/mL. If insulin extracted from a pen or cartridge is of a higher strength, and that is not considered in determining the volume required, it can lead to a significant and potentially fatal overdose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the name of the ultrarapid acting insulin?

A

Fiasp (aspart)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What are the types of soluble insulin (short acting)?

A

Humulin SActrapidInsuman rapidHypurin neutral (povine/porcine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What insulins can be used for VRII or in DKA as in infusion?

A

Soluble insulinHumulin S Actrapid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Is Actrapid classed as a rapid acting insulin?

A

No- it is a short acting insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What insulins are classed as rapid acting?

A

Novorapid (aspart)Humalog (lispro)Apidra (glulisine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What insulins are classed as intermediate acting?

A

Insulatard Humulin I (isophane)Insuman basalHypurin isophane Isophane can be otherwise known as NPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What insulins are classed as long acting?

A

Levemir (detemir)Lantus/Absalgar (glargine)Tresiba (degludec)Toujeo (glargine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What insulins are classed as biphasic (pre-mixed)?

A

Novomix 30Humalog Mix 25 or 50 Humulin M3 Insuman Combo 15 or 25 or 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What does the 30 mean in Novomix 30?

A

The suspension contains rapid-acting and intermediate-acting insulin aspart in the ratio 30/70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is recommended for the treatment of acute hypoglycaemia and the patient is conscious?

A

Initially glucose 10–20 g is given by mouth either in liquid form or as granulated sugar or sugar lumps. If necessary this may be repeated after 10–15 minutes. After initial treatment, a snack providing sustained availability of carbohydrate (e.g. a sandwich, fruit, milk, or biscuits) or the next meal (if it is due) can prevent blood-glucose concentration from falling again.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is recommended for the treatment of acute hypoglycaemia and the patient is UNconscious?

A

Glucagon is given as an injection (subcut or IM)If this does not work within 10 minutes, IV glucose 20% needs to be given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Can glucagon be used for chronic hypoglycaemia?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is given for chronic hypoglycaemia?

A

Diazoxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is used in diabetes insipidus?

A

Desmopressin or vasopressin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Is desmopressin or vasopressin more potent?

A

Desmopressin is more potent and has a longer duration of action Desmopressin is an analogue of vasopressinHas no vasoconstrictor effect compared to vasopressin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is vasopressin used for?

A

Diabetes insipidus Initial control of oesophageal variceal bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is demeclocycline used for?

A

Treatment of hyponatraemia resulting from inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (if fluid restriction does not work)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is tolvaptan used for?

A

Treatment of hyponatraemia secondary to syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What mineralocorticoid can be used for postural hypotension?

A

Fludrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

True or false:High dose steroids should be used in the management of septic shock

A

False - they should be avoided However, there is evidence that administration of lower doses of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone acetate is of benefit in adrenocortical insufficiency resulting from septic shock.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is the MHRA advice surrounding corticosteroids?

A

Rare risk of central serous chorioretinopathy with local as well as systemic administrationPatients should report any blurred vision/visual disturbances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What are the side effects of mineralocorticoids?With which mineralocorticoid is this most present with?

A

hypertensionsodium retentionwater retentionpotassium losscalcium lossFludrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What are the side effects of glucocorticoids?

A

diabetesosteoporosis, which is a danger, particularly in the elderly, as it can result in osteoporotic fractures for example of the hip or vertebrae;in addition high doses are associated with avascular necrosis of the femoral head.muscle wasting (proximal myopathy) can also occur.corticosteroid therapy is also weakly linked with peptic ulceration and perforation.psychiatric reactions may also occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

For corticosteroid replacement therapy, what combination is usually given?

A

Hydrocortisone and fludrocortisoneHydrocortisone alone is not sufficient as it does not provide sufficient activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

In Addision’s Disease or following adrenalectomy, what is usually given?How is it given?

A

HydrocortisoneThis is given in 2 doses, the larger in the morning and the smaller in the evening, mimicking the normal diurnal rhythm of cortisol secretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

In acute adrenocorticol insufficiency, what is given?

A

IV hydrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What are the side effects of corticosteroids?

A

NAME?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

ADULTS:In what patients would you want a gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids?

A
  • Received more than 40 mg prednisolone (or equivalent) daily for more than 1 week;been given repeat doses in the evening- Received more than 3 weeks’ treatment- Recently received repeated courses (particularly if taken for longer than 3 weeks)- Taken a short course within 1 year of stopping long-term therapyOther possible causes of adrenal suppression.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What is the physiological daily dose equivalent of prednisolone?

A

7.5mg daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

True or false:During corticosteroid withdrawal the dose may be reduced rapidly down to physiological doses (equivalent to prednisolone 7.5 mg daily)

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

CHILDREN:In what patients would you want a gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids?

A
  • Received more than 40 mg prednisolone (or equivalent) daily for more than 1 week or 2 mg/kg daily for 1 week or 1 mg/kg daily for 1 month- Been given repeat doses in the evening- Received more than 3 weeks’ treatment- Recently received repeated courses (particularly if taken for longer than 3 weeks)-Taken a short course within 1 year of stopping long-term therapy- Other possible causes of adrenal suppression.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Prednisolone 5mg is equivalent to how much beclomethasone?

A

750 micrograms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Prednisolone 5mg is equivalent to how much dexamethasone?

A

750 micrograms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Prednisolone 5mg is equivalent to how much hydrocortisone?

A

20mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Prednisolone 5mg is equivalent to how much methylprednisolone?

A

4mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What is the most commonly used steroid for long-term disease suppression?

A

Prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What is the MHRA advice surrounding the methylprenisolone injectable preparation Solu-Medrone 40mg?

A

Contains lactose- not suitable for those with a cow’s milk allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

If a newly diagnosed type 1 diabetic weighing 60kg was to be started on a basal bolus regime, what would their starting daily insulin unit dose be?How would you split this between basal bolus?

A

Starting at 0.5 units/kg/daySo 30 unitsHalf basal and half bolus 15 units basal e.g. Lantus And split the other 15 into 3 for meal times, so 5 units TDS of rapid acting insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q
  1. What is first line for postmenopausal osteoporosis?2. What would be alternatives if this is not appropriate?
A
  1. Oral bisphosphonates alendronic acid or risedronate as they have a broad spectrum of anti-fracture efficacy 2. IV bisphosphonate (ibandronic or zolendronic acid) Denosumab Raloxifene
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What is teriparatide used for?

A

Reserved for postmenopausal women with severe osteoporosis at very high risk for vertebral fractures. Its duration of treatment is limited to 24 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q
  1. What would be first line for glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis?2. What would be alternatives if this was not appropriate?
A
  1. Oral bisphosphonates- alendronic acid or risedronate sodium2. IV zolendronic acid or teripartide are alternatives
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Men who are receiving androgen deprivation therapy for prostate cancer have an increased risk of what?

A

FracturesFracture risk should be assessed at the start of therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q
  1. What would be first line in men with osteoporosis?2. What would be alternatives if this was not appropriate?
A
  1. Oral bisphosphonates- alendronic acid or risedronate sodium2. IV zolendronic acid or denosumab
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Bisphosphonate treatment should be reviewed after how many years?

A

5 years of treatment of alendronic acid, risedronate sodium or ibandronic acid3 years of treatment with zolendronic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Which patient groups can continue their bisphosphonate therapy after 5 years?

A

Patients over 75 years of age, or with a history of previous hip or vertebral fracture, or patients who have had one or more fragility fractures during treatment, or who are taking long-term glucocorticoid therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What is the warnings surrounding the use of bisphosphonates?

A
  1. Risk of atypical femoral fracturesPatients should be advised to report any thigh/hip/groin pain Review treatment after 5 years 2. Risk of osteonecrosis of the jawDental check up and any necessary work is needed before therapy Any oral symptoms should be reported e.g. non-healing sores, swelling, pain If the patient wears dentures, need to ensure they fit properly before starting therapy 3. Risk of osteonecrosis of external auditory canalAny ear symptoms e.g. ear infections, ear discharge, ear pain should be reported 4. Severe oesophageal reactions (oesophagitis, oesophageal ulcers, oesophageal stricture and oesophageal erosions) have been reported; patients should be advised to stop taking the tablets and to seek medical attention if they develop symptoms of oesophageal irritation such as dysphagia, new or worsening heartburn, pain on swallowing or retrosternal pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What are the side effects of bisphosphonates?

A
  • Anaemia- Severe oesophageal reactions (ulcers, strictures, erosions) - Risk of atypical fracture- Osteonecrosis of jaw or auditory canal- Altered taste-Joint swelling- Hypophosphatemia NB- absorption is affected by other meds e.g. iron, so needs to be taken 30 mins before food and other meds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Is estradiol a natural or synthetic oestrogen?

A

Natural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Is ethinylestradiol a natural or synthetic oestrogen?

A

Synthetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

If long term oestrogen therapy is needed for women who still have a uterus, what should be added and why?

A

Progesterone to reduce the risk of hyperplasia of endometrium and cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

HRT increases the risk of what?

A

Venous thromboembolism, stroke, endometrial cancer (reduced by a progestogen), breast cancer, and ovarian cancer; there is an increased risk of coronary heart disease in women who start combined HRT more than 10 years after menopause.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What is first line in hyperthyroidism?What is second line?

A

CarbimazolePropylthiouracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What is the important safety information regarding carbimazole?

A

NAME?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What is the patient advice regarding propylthiouracil?

A

Severe hepatic reactions have been reportedPatients should be told how to recognise signs of liver disorder and advised to seek prompt medical attention if symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, fatigue, abdominal pain, jaundice, dark urine, or pruritus develop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

How should a thyroid storm be treated?

A

Emergency situationIV fluids, propranolol and hydrocortisoneas well as oral iodine, and carbimazole/propylthiouracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What is first line for hypothyroidism?What is an alternative?

A

LevothyroxineLiothyronine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What is the patient advice regarding the administration of levothyroxine?

A

Dose to be taken preferably at least 30 minutes before breakfast, caffeine-containing liquids (e.g. coffee, tea), or other medication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What is tibolone used for?

A

For womenShort term treatment of oestrogen deficiency Osteoporosis prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Is norethisterone an oestrogen or progesterone?

A

Progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What is the advice regarding missing a dose of progesterone only pill for contraception?

A

Take it as soon as you rememberHowever if it is not taken within 3 hours of the normal time of taking the pill- additional precautions should be used and for 2 days after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What is the advice regarding vomiting if taking a progesterone only pill?

A

If vomiting occurs within 2 hours of taking an oral progestogen-only contraceptive, another pill should be taken as soon as possible. If a replacement pill is not taken within 3 hours of the normal time for taking the progestogen-only pill, or in cases of persistent vomiting or very severe diarrhoea, additional precautions should be used during illness and for 2 days after recovery (but still keep taking the pill as usual)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

True or false:You should take the progesterone only pill (for contraception) at the same time every day

A

True If delayed longer than 3 hours, then the contraceptive effect may be lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

When starting a progesterone only pill for contraception, what is the advice surrounding when to start during the menstrual cycle and if additional contraceptive cover is needed?

A

Should ideally start taking on day 1 of the cycleAdditional contraceptive precautions are not required if norethisterone is started up to and including day 5 of the menstrual cycle; if started after this time, additional contraceptive precautions are required for 2 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

If you are changing from a combined oral contraceptive pill to the progesterone only, when should this happen?

A

Start on the day following completion of the combined oral contraceptive course without a break (or in the case of ED tablets omitting the inactive ones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

When starting a progesterone only pill for contraception AFTER CHILDBIRTH, what is the advice surrounding when to start and if additional contraceptive cover is needed?

A

Can be started up to and including day 21 postpartum without the need for additional contraceptive precautions. If started more than 21 days postpartum, additional contraceptive precautions are required for 2 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

If on a progesterone only pill for contraception, in what situations would you need emergency contraception?

A

If one or more progestogen-only contraceptive tablets are missed or taken more than 3 hours late and unprotected intercourse has occurred before 2 further tablets (2 days worth) have been correctly taken.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Which antidiabetic drug can cause lactic acidosis and B12 deficiency?

A

Metformin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

If a pregnant patient diagnosed with gestational diabetes presents with a fasting glucose of <7mmol/L, what should be done?If this does not work after 1-2 weeks, what should then be done?

A

First attempt a change in diet and exercise alone in order to reduce blood-glucose. If blood-glucose targets are not met within 1 to 2 weeks, metformin hydrochloride may be prescribed [unlicensed use]. Insulin may be prescribed if metformin is contraindicated or not acceptable, and may also be added to treatment if metformin is not effective alone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

If a pregnant patient diagnosed with gestational diabetes presents with a fasting glucose of >7mmol/L, what should be done?

A

Should be treated with insulin immediately, with or without metformin hydrochloride, in addition to a change in diet and exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What are the complications of gestational diabetes?

A

Hydramnios- a condition in which excess amniotic fluid accumulates during pregnancyMacrosomia- larger than normal baby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

If a pregnant lady presents with complications of gestational diabetes, how should this be managed?

A

Should be considered for immediate insulin treatment, with or without metformin hydrochloride.

176
Q

What is the advice surrounding patients on metformin who is going to have contrast media administered as part of radiologic studies?

A

Can lead to nephrotoxicityIf patient’s eGFR >60 and only missing one meal, then there is no need to stop metformin afterIf eGFR < 60:Metformin should be discontinued prior to, or at the time of the imaging procedure and not restarted until at least 48 hours after, provided that renal function has been re-evaluated and found to be stable

177
Q

What is the advice surrounding metformin during surgery?

A

If EGFR > 60 or only one meal will be missed, and low risk of AKI:It may be possible to continue metformin hydrochloride throughout the peri-operative period—just the lunchtime dose should be omitted if the usual dose is prescribed three times a day.If there is a risk of AKI or more than one meal will be missed:Metformin should be stopped when the pre-operative fast begins. A variable rate intravenous insulin infusion should be started if the metformin dose is more than once daily. Otherwise insulin should only be started if blood-glucose concentration is greater than 12 mmol/litre on two consecutive occasions - metformin should not be recommended until the patient is eating and drinking and renal function is stable

178
Q

If a patient is on 500mg OD metformin, due for surgery and the metformin needs to be stopped beforehand, would you give VRII?

A

No, only give VRII if their usual metformin dose is more than once daily OR if their blood glucose is >12 on 2 consecutive occasions

179
Q

What is the risk of continuing metformin during surgery?

A

Renal impairment may lead to accumulation and lactic acidosis

180
Q

What is the advice surrounding sulphonylureas and surgery?

A

Sulfonylureas are associated with hypoglycaemia in the fasted state and therefore should always be omitted on the day of surgery until the patient is eating and drinking again. Monitor blood glucose and give insulin if necessary

181
Q

If a patient does not require VRII, what antidiabetic drugs can be continued during surgery?

A

Pioglitazone, dipeptidylpeptidase-4 inhibitors (gliptins) and glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists can be taken as normal during the whole peri-operative period.Metformin- depends on AKI risk, eGFR, how many doses they are missing

182
Q

Do gliptins or sulphonylureas have a higher incidence of hypoglycaemia?

A

Sulphonylureas

183
Q

A HbA1c alone at what level would indicate diabetes?

A

48

184
Q

HbA1c should not be used for diagnosis in what patients groups?

A

Those with suspected type 1 diabetes, in children, during pregnancy, or in women who are up to two months postpartumAlso should not be used in the following:- Symptoms for less than 2 months- Treatment with medication that may cause hyperglycaemia- Acute pancreatic damage- HIV- End stage CKD

185
Q

Zolendronic acid is contraindicated in what patient group?

A

Women of child bearing potential

186
Q

For DKA, what strength glucose do you give?

A

10%

187
Q

For hypoglycaemia when glucose is needed, what strength do you give?

A

20%

188
Q

A high TSH level with a low FT4 and FT3 level indicates what?

A

Hypothyroidism

189
Q

A low TSH level with a high T4 level and a high T3 level indicates what?

A

Hyperthyroidism

190
Q

How do you manage hyperthyroidism during pregnancy?

A

Carbimazole is associated with congenital defects, including aplasia cutis of the neonate, therefore propylthiouracil remains the drug of choice during the first trimester of pregnancy. In the second trimester, consider switching to carbimazole because of the potential risk of hepatotoxicity with propylthiouracil

191
Q

What is the blocking replacement regime?

A

Hyperthyroidism A combination of carbimazole with levothyroxine sodium daily, may be used in a blocking-replacement regimen; therapy is usually given for 18 months. The blocking-replacement regimen is not suitable during pregnancy.

192
Q

Why should you avoid rapid correction of sodium in SIADH?

A

Can cause serious CNS effects and demyelination of neurones

193
Q

What effect can corticosteroids have on potassium levels?

A

Can cause hypokalaemia

194
Q

If chicken pox develops in a person taking corticosteroids, what is recommended?

A

Seek urgent medical attention as they are immunocompromised

195
Q

When would you issue patients with a steroid card?

A

Taking long term steroids for more than 3 weeksHigh dose ICS

196
Q

When would you consider a statin in Type 1 and Type 2 diabetics?

A

Type 1 if >40 yearsTYpe 2 if QRISK >10%

197
Q

If a woman presents with gestational diabetes with a blood glucose of <7 , what is first line?What is second line?

A

Diet and exercise If blood glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks, metformin can be prescribed (if not, insulin)

198
Q

If a woman presents with gestational diabetes with a blood glucose of >7, what should happen?

A

Should be treated with insulin immediately, with or without metformin hydrochloride, in addition to a change in diet and exercise

199
Q

If a woman presents with gestational diabetes with a blood glucose of 6-6.9 along with complications e.g. macrosomia, what should happen?

A

Should be considered for immediate insulin treatment, with or without metformin

200
Q

What is macrosomia?

A

Larger than average foetus- usually a complication for women with diabetes

201
Q

If a driver experiences hypoglycaemia, what should they do?

A

Stop vehicle in safe placeFast acting sugar and long acting carbohydrateWait for 45 minutes after blood glucose has returned back to normal before continuing journey

202
Q

What class of antidiabetic drugs can cause volume depletion?

A

SGLT2 inhibitors

203
Q

In a woman without a uterus requiring HRT, what preparation should be used?

A

Continuous oestrogen

204
Q

i) In a woman with a uterus requiring HRT, what preparation should be used?ii) What kind of HRT is unsuitable if the patient is peri-menopausal or <12 months after last period?

A

Progesterone cyclically and oestrogen Or continuous progesterone and oestrogen (avoids withdrawal bleed)ii) Continuous combined HRT is unsuitable for peri-menopausal or <12 months after last period as it can cause irregular bleeding so you would use cyclic

205
Q

What kind of cancer must you rule out if irregular bleeding continues after stopping continuous HRT?

A

Endometrial cancer

206
Q

Coronary heart disease risk is increased if combined HRT is started how many years after menopause?

A

10 years

207
Q

If combined HRT is started 10 years after menopause, the risk of what is increased?

A

Coronary heart disease

208
Q

What is a severe side effect of exenatide?

A

Severe pancreatitis

209
Q

Can you take risedronate and alendronic acid daily?

A

Yes at lower doses5mg risedronate OD (or 35mg weekly)10mg alendronic acid OD (or 70mg weekly)

210
Q

What is the advice if a patient is on levothyroxine and iron tablets?

A

Iron can decrease the absorption of levothyroxine, so separate administration by at least 4 hours

211
Q

What is used if a patient wants to delay her period, and what is the dosing regimen?

A

Norethisterone5 mg 3 times a day, to be started 3 days before expected onset (menstruation occurs 2–3 days after stopping).

212
Q

Abrupt withdrawal of steroids can lead to what?

A

Abrupt withdrawal after a prolonged period can lead to acute adrenal insufficiency, hypotension or death. Withdrawal can also be associated with fever, myalgia, arthralgia, rhinitis, conjunctivitis, painful itchy skin nodules and weight loss.

213
Q

The most commonly prescribed treatments for cholesterol are

A

statins (HMGCoA Reductase inhibitors) which inhibit endogenous production of LDL Cholesterol and up-regulate its uptake by the liver. The only other therapy in routine use and suggested by NICE is Ezetimibe. Other medication includes; Fibrates (especially if triglycerides are >10mmol/l), Omacor and Bile acid sequestrants but are not for routine use.

214
Q

Name the 3 <strong>rapid acting</strong> insulins<p></p><p>Can you think of their brand names?</p>

A

<p>Insulin <strong>Glulisine<em>Apidra</em></strong>®</p>

<p>Insulin <strong>Aspart<em>Novorapid</em></strong>®</p>

<p>Insulin <strong>Lispro<em> Humalog</em></strong>®</p>

<p><em>That GAL is RAPID!</em></p>

215
Q

What type of insulin is Novorapid?

A

<p><strong>Insulin Aspart</strong></p>

<p><em>Rapid-acting</em></p>

216
Q

When should the rapid acting insulins be injected?

A

<p><strong>Immediately before eating</strong></p>

<p>(0- 15 mins before food)</p>

217
Q

How long does it generally take rapid acting insulins to start working?

A

<p>~10 - 20 minutes</p>

218
Q

How long is the duration of action of rapid acting insulins?

A

<p>around <strong>2 - 5 hours</strong></p>

219
Q

How many units of insulin do the Flexpen, Flextouch,Kwikpen and Solostar (<strong>all pre-filled disposable pens</strong>) tend to contain?

A

<p><strong>300 units</strong></p>

<p>3ml pens containing 100 units/ ml</p>

220
Q

Are patients more or less at risk of hypglyceamia when using rapid-acting insulins compared to other insulins?

A

<p>Less at risk of hypoglyceamia as it is only in body for a few hours and is used with meals</p>

221
Q

Whattype of insulin are<strong>short acting </strong>insulins?

A

<p><strong>Short </strong>acting insulin= <strong>Soluble </strong>insulin (S S)</p>

<p>Can get different types of soluble insulins:</p>

<p>Soluble human</p>

<p>Soluble bovine ('neutral') Beef</p>

<p>Soluble porcine ('neutral') Pig</p>

222
Q

What kind of insulin is Actrapid?

A

<p>Insulin soluble (human)</p>

<p><strong>Short- acting</strong></p>

223
Q

When should short acting insulins be injected?

A

<p><strong>15 - 30 mins before food</strong></p>

<p><em>Must eat food within 30 mins of injecting to avoid hypoglyceamia</em></p>

<p><em>They start working after 30 mins</em></p>

224
Q

How long do short acting insulins work for and when is their peak activity?

A

<p><strong>Duration of action:</strong> 4 - 8 hours</p>

<p><strong>Peak activity:</strong> 2 - 4 hours</p>

225
Q

What type of insulin is intermediate acting?

A

<p><strong>I</strong>ntermediate acting = <strong>I</strong>sophane insulin (i,i)</p>

<p>Human isophane insulin usually used</p>

<p>Isophane insulin is a suspension of Insulin with protamine: bovine porcine or human insulin in the form of a complex obtained by the addition of protamine</p>

<p>Usually found in biphasic preparations</p>

226
Q

Can you think of any brands of Intermediate acting insulins?

A

<p>Isophane insulins:</p>

<p>Insulatard®</p>

<p>Humulin I®</p>

<p>(all of the i's!)</p>

227
Q

When should intermediate acting (isophane) insulins be injected?

A

<p>They usually need to be injected twice daily, sometime once daily in eldery</p>

<p>No need to inject with meals</p>

<p>They have a peak action at 4 - 12 hour and last for around 21 hours</p>

228
Q

What are the three types of long- acting insulins? Do you know their brand names?

A

<p>Insulin <strong>Detemir </strong>Levemir®</p>

<p>Insulin <strong>Glargine </strong>Lantus <strong>®</strong></p>

<p>Insulin <strong>Degludec </strong>Tresiba<strong>®</strong></p>

229
Q

How long do the long-acting insulins usually work for?Which one works for up to 42 hours?

A

<p>around 18 - 24 hours</p>

<p></p>

<p>42 hours: <strong>Degludec </strong>(tresiba)</p>

230
Q

Which type of insulin is used in medical emergencies such as diabetic ketoacidosis and before surgery?

A

<p><strong>Soluble </strong>insulin</p>

231
Q

What is the rational behind biphasic insulin preparations?

A

<p>These are basically pre-mixed preparations of a <strong>rapid orshort acting </strong>insulin plus a <strong>intermediate acting </strong>insulin (either the protamine [longer chain version of the short/ rapid acting one] or isophane insulin).</p>

<p>They are to be injected twice daily, and are good for patients who don't like multiple injecting regimens ( also called basal bolus- where people have to inject short acting with meals plus a long acting insulin)</p>

<p>Disadvantages of these are that there may be less control as proportions are fixed- if unwell and need to boost their insulin they cannot use these and would need a rapidor short acting insulin for this.</p>

232
Q

NovoMix is a Biphasic insulin (intermediate acting). It contains a mixture of which insulins?

A

<p>Insulin <strong>aspart </strong>(rapid acting)<br></br>Insulin <strong>aspart protamine </strong>(long acting)</p>

<p>Together it becomes intermediate acting- injected twice daily</p>

233
Q

What do Biphasic insulins look like in appearance?

A

<p><strong>Cloudy</strong></p>

<p>Needto be resuspended before use- tell patient this- by rolling in their hands (not shaking)</p>

<p></p>

234
Q

Can you name 4 brands of Biphasic insulins, and their ingredients?

A

<p><strong>Novomix 30</strong> (insulin aspart+ aspart protamine)</p>

<p><strong>Humalog Mix 25 / </strong>Humalog Mix 50 (Insulin Lispro + lispro protamine)</p>

<p><strong>Humulin M3 </strong>(soluble insulin + isophane insulin)</p>

<p><strong>Insuman Comb 50 </strong>(soluble insulin + isophane insulin)</p>

235
Q

What electrolyte disturbance can insulins cause?

A

<p>HypoKaleamia</p>

236
Q

When should Biphasic insulins be injected?

A

<p>Think about what each one contains: short or rapid acting?</p>

<p>The ones containing rapid acting (NovoMix 30, Humalog Mix) should be injected 0-15 mins before a meal</p>

<p>Containing short acting (Humulin M3, Insuman Comb) inject 15 - 30 mins before a meal</p>

237
Q

What substance in some insulins can cause injection site reactions and therefore is important to make patients aware the importance of rotating the site of action?

A

<p><strong>Protamine</strong></p>

238
Q

The fridge on one of your wards is broken, therefore the not-in-use pens are having to be stored at room temperature. What should inform staff/ label these with?

A

<p>These will now have a 28 day expiry, as not-in-use pens need to be in the fridge to be used by their original expiry date (i.e. now follow the same rules that In-use pens have)</p>

239
Q

To diagnose diabetes, a random venous plasma glucose concentration would need to read > __ mmol/L

A

<p><strong>Over 11 mmol/L</strong></p>

240
Q

To diagnose diabetes, a <strong>fasting </strong>plasma glucose concentration would need to read over __ mmol/L

A

<p>Fasting= <strong>over 7 mmol/L</strong></p>

241
Q

To diagnose diabetes, a two hour plasma glucose concentration (two hours after eating/ two hours after 75g glucose in a glucose tolerance test) would need to read over __ mmol/L

A

<p>Two hour post food/ glucose: <strong>Over 11 mmol/L</strong></p>

242
Q

a HbA1c of __ mmol/mol or __% is needed to diagnose diabetes

A

<p>HbA1c of over <strong>48 mmol/mol</strong></p>

<p>or <strong>6.5%</strong></p>

243
Q

What situations would a HbA1c test be inappropriate to diagnose diabetes? (try and think of around 5)

A

<ul> <li>Children/ young adults</li> <li>Suspected Type 1 diabetes</li> <li>Symptoms less than 2 months</li> <li>Medication related glucose effects e.g. steroids, antipsychotics</li> <li>Pancreas damage</li> <li>Pregnancy</li> <li>Acutely unwell/ in hospital</li></ul>

244
Q

Which insulins are cloudy in appearance?

A

<p><strong>Intermediate acting (Isophane)</strong></p>

<p><strong>Biphasic preparations- Novomix, Humulin M3, Humalog Mix, Insuman Comb</strong></p>

245
Q

For a driver of a car/ motorbike, who has been deemed fit to drive due to the presence of only 1 episode of severe hypoglyceamia in the last year, how often should you advise them to check their BG levels?

A

<p><strong>Within 2 hours </strong>of starting their journey</p>

<p><strong>Every 2 hours</strong> whilst driving</p>

<p>If a hypo occurs: stop, pull over, get out of drivers seat, eat sugar,<strong> wait 45 mins</strong> after BG has returned to normal to continue driving</p>

246
Q

How many months worth of BGreadings must Lorry drivers provide to the DVLA if they are to drive?

A

<p><strong>3 months</strong></p>

247
Q

How often should Lorry/ Bus drivers test their blood glucose whilst driving, and on days when theyre not driving?

A

<p>Within 2 hours of starting to drive</p>

<p>every 2 hours whilst driving</p>

<p>at least twice daily when not</p>

248
Q

What are the side effects of insulin?

A

<p>Fat hypertrophy at injection site</p>

<p>Local reactions at injection site</p>

<p>Transient oedema</p>

249
Q

What are the insulin sick day rules?

A

<p>Just because the patient is ill and not eating does not mean they should stop injecting their insulin</p>

<p>ill/ infection= stress hormones/ steroids released<br></br><strong>steroids increase blood glucose</strong><br></br>stay well hydrated to avoid DKA<br></br>patient should monitor their BG and urine ketones more frequently and be prepared to inject accordingly</p>

250
Q

When should insulin be resuspended before use?

A

<p>For all insulin preparations, except rapid- and short-acting insulin and insulin glargine (Lantus), the vial or pen should be gently rolled in the palms of the hands (or shaken gently) to resuspend the insulin.</p>

251
Q

First line insulin used in Type 2 diabetes?NB: Insulin chosen if persons BG inadequately controlled by metformin + sulfonylurea or <strong>triple therapy</strong>: 3 oral antidiabetic drugs together has failed

A

<p>Intermediate acting: Human isophane insulin</p>

252
Q

Novomix is a biphasic insulin with an onset of action of _____ mins and peak activity of ______ hours.

A

<p>Onset of action of 10-20 mins<br></br><br></br>Peak acivity of 1-4 hours</p>

253
Q

What is it that makes Insulin Degludec (tresiba) different from all the other insulins licensed in the UK?

A

<p>It is the first insulin to be available in<strong> two different strengths:</strong></p>

<p></p>

<p>100 units/ml<br></br>200 units/ml</p>

254
Q

How do Sulfonylureas work?

A

<p>Increase insulin secretion from the pancreas</p>

255
Q

Which are short acting and which are long acting sulfonylureas? (5)

A

<p><strong>Short acting:</strong></p>

<p>Gliclazide<br></br>Glipizide<br></br>Tolbutamide</p>

<p><strong>Longer acting:</strong><br></br>Glimepramide<br></br>Glibenclamide (longest acting)</p>

256
Q

Which sulfonyurea is most prone to causing Hypoglyceamia, and therefore should be avoided in which population group?

A

<p>Glibencamide (longest acting)</p>

<p>Avoid use in the elderly</p>

257
Q

How should sulfonylurea induce Hypoglyceamia be treated?

A

<p>Hypoglyceamia can persist for many hours.<br></br>It must always be treated in hospital</p>

<p></p>

<p>NB: Hypoglyceamia with sulfonylureas is <strong>uncommon </strong>and usually indicates <strong>excessive dosage</strong></p>

258
Q

When in the T2diabetes treatment guidelines is a sulfonylurea indicated?

A

<p>After diet/ lifestyle, then metformin alone have been tried:</p>

<p>Can use a sulfonylurea instead if metformin Contra-indicated, patient is NOT overweight <strong>or rapid response is needed as glucose levels very high.</strong></p>

<p><em>If metformin alone does not work, can then add in a sulfonylurea</em></p>

259
Q

What side effects can sulphonylureas cause? (4)

A

<p>Weight gain</p>

<p>GI disturbance: Diarrhoea, constipation, nausea, vomitting</p>

<p>Fever (usually in first 6- 8 weeks)</p>

<p>Jaundice (avoid in severe liver impairment)</p>

260
Q

What is Metformins Mechanism of Action?

A

<p>It is a Biguanide:</p>

<p>Decreases gluconeogenesis (production of new glucose) and increases peripheral utilisation of glucose</p>

<p>Remember: metformin produce <strong>normoglyceamia </strong>rather than hypoglyceamia</p>

<p><em>NB: It does <strong>not </strong>increase insulin secretion like other oral antidiabetics, therefore it does not cause weight gain!</em></p>

261
Q

Main side effects of Metformin? (3)

A

<p>GI upset- take with food, use MR if intolerable</p>

<p>Weight loss</p>

<p>Taste disturbance</p>

262
Q

Metformin can cause <strong>Lactic Acidosis</strong>. What would be potential risk factors for this?

A

<p>risk factors such as</p>

<p>renal dysfunction (as metformin accumulates),</p>

<p>liver disease,</p>

<p>heavy alcohol ingestion</p>

<p>IV contrast media- reduces renal function therefore lactic acidosis risk</p>

<p><strong>Poor tissue perfusion/ poor renal function= risk of lactic acidosis</strong></p>

263
Q

What vitamin can Metformin cause deficiency in?

A

<p>Vitamin B12</p>

<p>Can lead to vitamin B12 deficient aneamia: symptoms= increased tirednes, weakness, mouth ulcers, pins and needles</p>

264
Q

When does metformin become contra-indicated in renal impairment?

A

<p>In severe renal impairment</p>

<p>eGFR falls below 30 ml/min/ 1.73m2</p>

<p></p>

<p>In moderate impairment (eGFR under 45) a dose reduction is needed</p>

265
Q

Max dose of metformin?

A

<p>2g a day</p>

266
Q

What is Acarbose and what is its mechanism?

A

<p><strong>Alpha glucosidase inhibitor- (remember A</strong>lpha<strong>= A</strong>carb<strong>) </strong>this enzyme<strong> breaks down starch and disaccharides </strong>to glucose, so Acarbose stops this, thereby delaying the digestion and absorption of starch and sucrose- small but significant effect in loweing blood glucose.</p>

<p>A<em><strong>carb</strong></em>ose= Starchy effects (potatoes!)</p>

267
Q

What are the common Side effects of acarbose?

A

<p>FLATULENCE- advise this will decrease with time</p>

<p>Diarrhoea/ Soft stools(as poo becomes sugary due to limited glucose absorption)</p>

<p>Other GI effects</p>

<p></p>

268
Q

How should patients be advised to take Acarbose?

A

<p>Chew with first moutful of food or swallow with a little liquid immediately before food.</p>

269
Q

What happens if a patient on <strong>metformin </strong>is injected with <strong>Iodine X-ray contrast media?</strong>

A

<p>Interaction:</p>

<p><strong>Renal function deteriorates rapidly</strong></p>

<p><span>can then increase risk of Lactic acidosis</span></p>

270
Q

What enzyme do the Gliptins inhibit?How does this help lower glucose?<strong>Linagliptin<br></br>Sitagliptin<br></br>Vildagliptin<br></br>Saxagliptin</strong>

A

<p>Inhibit an enzyme called <strong>Dipeptidylpeptidase-4 </strong></p>

<p>This enzyme breaks down incretins, incretins trigger insulin secretion and lower glucagon secretion, therefore they are good at helping control glucose, so by inhibiting the enzyme that breaks them down, gliptins increase incretin levels.</p>

<p>Gliptins.. incretins... gliptins.... incretins!</p>

271
Q

What are the side effects of the gliptins (dipeptidylpeptidase 4 inhibitors)? (5)

A

<p>Upper <strong>respiratory tract</strong> infections</p>

<p>Gatro-intestinal upset</p>

<p>Peripheral oedema</p>

<p>Pancreatitis</p>

<p><em>Trigger insulin release so some weight gain?</em></p>

<p></p>

<p><strong><em>There is less risk of Hypoglyceamia with the gliptins!</em></strong></p>

272
Q

Which of the gliptins (Dipeptidylpeptidase-4 inhibitors) should patients have their liver function monitored if taking?

A

<p><strong>Vildagliptin</strong></p>

<p></p>

<p>Report symptoms of liver disease:<strong> nausea, vomitting, abdominal pain, fatigue, dark urine</strong></p>

273
Q

Which oral antidiabetics can cause acute pancreatitis?<br></br>What are the symptoms of this?

A

<p>Dipeptidylpeptidase-4 inhibitors (gliptins- sitagliptin, Linagliptin etc)</p>

<p>Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists (Exenatide, Liraglutide, Lixisenatide)</p>

<p>Exanatide especially can cause SEVERE PANCREATITIS</p>

<p>Symtpoms: <strong>Persistent and severe abdominal pain<br></br>Nausea and vomitting</strong></p>

274
Q

What is the mechanism of action of the Thiazolidinediones?(Only one licensed in UK is pioglitazone)

A

<p>Reduces peripheral insulin resistance</p>

275
Q

Which oral antidiabetics must care be taken with in<strong><em> Heart Failure? And what cancer can it possibly increase risk of?</em></strong>

A

<p>Pioglitazone</p>

<p>Incidence of HF increased when pioglitazone is combined with insulin</p>

<p>Also small risk of BLADDER cancer</p>

<p>Signs of bladder cancer: blood in urine, pain on urination, urinaryurgency</p>

276
Q

can oral anti-diabetic drugs cause headaches?

A

<p>Yes- alot of them cause a headache, particularly pioglitazone and the gliptins</p>

277
Q

How do the Meglitinides work?<br></br>Can you name them?When should they be taken?

A

<p><strong>Nateglinide<br></br>Repaglinide</strong></p>

<p><em>Stimulate insulin secretion</em></p>

<p><strong><em>Take 30 minutes before meals</em></strong></p>

278
Q

Can you name any oral anti-diabetic drugs that can cause liver toxicity?

A

<p><strong>Pioglitazone</strong></p>

<p>The Gliptins- linagliptin, sitagliptin, vildagliptin</p>

279
Q

What are GLP-1 agonists? How do they work?

A

<p><strong>Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists</strong></p>

<p><strong>Examples:<br></br>Exenatide<br></br>Liraglutide<br></br>Lixisenatide</strong></p>

<p><strong>These are given by SUBCUTANEOUS INJECTION- not oral</strong></p>

<p>These work by binding to the GLP-1 receptor causing:</p>

<p>-> Increase in insulin secretion</p>

<p>-> suppression of glucagon secretion (glucagon gets converted in glucose usually)</p>

<p>-> Slow gastric emptying</p>

<p><strong>If given with sulfonylureas or insulin, their dose may need to be reduced as increased risk of hypoglyceamia!</strong></p>

280
Q

What drug do we have to be particularly vigelant for symptoms such as persistent and severe abdominal pain, nausea and vomitting?

A

<p><strong>Exenatide (GLP-1 agonist)</strong></p>

<p>These are symptoms of pancreatitis- exanatide can cause severe pancreatitis- discontinue permanently</p>

281
Q

What should patients be advised to do if they <strong>miss a dose of Exenatide? How should it usually be administered?</strong>

A

<p>Miss that dose out and just <strong>continue with the next scheduled dose.</strong></p>

<p>Usual dose is to be injected <strong>1 hour before </strong>2 main meals a day that are at least 6 hours apart</p>

<p><strong>Do not administer the dose after a meal</strong></p>

<p><em><strong>Some oral med's need to be given 1 hour before or 4 hours after this drug</strong></em></p>

282
Q

What are the SGLT2 inhibitors?3 examples?How do they work?

A

<p>Sodium Glucose Co-transporter 2 inhibitors</p>

<p><strong>Gliflozins</strong></p>

<p>Examples:<br></br><strong>Canagliflozin<br></br>Dapagliflozin<br></br>Empagliflozin</strong></p>

<p><strong>(DECeeeee!)</strong></p>

<p><strong>The sodium glucose transporter is found in the kidneys: by inhibiting this they stop glucose be re-absorbed in the renal tubule and therefore more glucose is excreted</strong></p>

<p></p>

283
Q

What important Side effect can the SGLT2 inhibitors (Canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, empagliflozin) cause?<br></br>What concomitant drugs/ conditionscould increase the risk of this?

A

<p><span><strong>Volume depletion !</strong></span></p>

<p><strong>Think floz= flow</strong></p>

<p><strong>Think: these are inhibiting glucose rer-absorption into the renal tubules. Water usually follows the glucose- less reabsorbed= less water follows= more weeing etc</strong></p>

<p>Patients need to report signs of this:<br></br>Dizzy, postural hypotension<br></br><strong>Side effects: </strong><br></br>Thirst<br></br>Constipation (less water in stools)<br></br>UTI's</p>

<p><strong><u>Increased risk: things that also decrease fluid volume</u></strong></p>

<p>Antihypertensives<br></br>Elderly<br></br>diarrhoea</p>

284
Q

Sitagliptin and Vildagliptin, dipeptidyl peptidase enzyme inhibtior enhancing incretin hormone, should only be continued if HbA1c has been reduced by at least ___ percentage points within 6 months of starting treatment

A

<p>0.5 percentage points</p>

285
Q

Which class of oral anti-diabetics can increase the risk of <strong>Genital infections- Thrush and UTI’</strong>s? Name me some of them

A

<p>The SGLT2 inhibitors:</p>

<p><strong>Dapagliflozin</strong></p>

<p><strong>Canagliflozin</strong></p>

<p><strong>Empagliflozin</strong></p>

286
Q

What condition, other than diabetes, can metformin be used in Unlicensed?

A

<p>Poylcystic ovary syndrome</p>

<p>It helps to normalise the menstrual cycle an ovulation</p>

287
Q

What are patients on pioglitazone urged to report?

A

<p>Symptoms of bladder cancer:</p>

<p>heamatruria</p>

<p>dysuria</p>

<p>urinary urgency</p>

<p>Also signs of liver toxicity: blood in urine, severe stomach pain/ nausea and vomiting</p>

288
Q

When should sulfonylureas be taken?

A

<p>WITH MEALS</p>

289
Q

Patient with hepatic impairment prescribed a sulfonylurea?

A

<p>Reduce the dose- sulfonylureas metabolised hepatically- they will accumulate and cause hypoglyceamia</p>

290
Q

How should Acarbose be taken?

A

<p>Chewed with first mouthful of food/ with a bit of water immediately before food</p>

291
Q

What is the name of the thiazide diuretic that can be chronic intractable hypoglyceamia in Neonates/ children?

A

<p>Diazoxide</p>

<p></p>

<p>(remember diuretics can cause hyperglyceamia)</p>

292
Q

You have a patient suffering from newly diagnosed T2 diabetes with poor renal function, What would be your first line choice of antidiabetic?

A

<p>A sulfonylurea- Gliclazide</p>

293
Q

If a patient is of European Descent and they have a BMI of over 35, and metformin and gliclazide have failed to control their BG, what agent would you consider next?

A

<p>Exenatide</p>

<p><br></br>This is a NICE recommendation</p>

294
Q

Which bisphosphonate needs to be discontinued if a skin rash develops?

A

Strontium ranelateSevere allergic reaction:Symptoms known as DRESS ‘Drug rash with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms’ Starts with: fever, rash, swollen glands, high WCC

295
Q

What is the side effect we need to be vigilant about with Bisphosphonate treatment?

A

Osteonecrosis of the JawThe risk is higher with IV therapy for cancer treatment than it is with oral. Patients have a dental check up before starting and need to maintain good oral hygiene and attend regular check ups. They should report any oral symptoms: Pain, inflammation, difficulty swallowing

296
Q

If patients taking Alendronic acid experience dysphagia, heartburn, pain on swallowing or retrosternal pain what should they do?

A

Stop taking and Report it- may be an oesophageal reaction: can be serious

297
Q

Desmopressin, used for diabetes insipidous and first line for nocturnal enuresis, can cause electrolyte disturbance: hyponatreamia. What can this lead to, and what can be done to stop this?

A

Hyponatreamic convulsions mentioned in the BNF. This can be minimised by sticking to the recommended start dose and avoiding drugs that increase secretion of vasopressin such as TCA’s.

298
Q

Clomifene is a drug used to treat female infertility as it is anti-oestrogen. The CSM have advised that it should not be used for more than __ cycles, due to increased risk of _____ cancer.

A

Not for more than 6 cyclesIncreased risk of ovarian cancer with clomifene use.

299
Q

Which drug used in thyroid therapy can cause agranulocytosis and neutropenia? what is this drug used for?

A

CarbimazoleUsed for HyperthyroidismUsed in the 18 month blocking-replacement regimen together with levothyroxine.

300
Q

What test is indicated prior to therapy with levothyroxine and Liothyronine?

A

Baseline ECG- this is because we want to check we haven’t mistaken hypothyroidism with ischaemia/ cardiovascular disease.

301
Q

Which antithyroid drug is used if carbimazole is contraindicated?What do we need to monitor with this drug?

A

Propylthiouracil Liver function- severe hepatic reactions have taken place.

302
Q

What drugs are used for management of thyrotoxic symptoms (when too much thyroid hormone has been given)?

A

Beta blockers- propranolol IV fluidshydrocortisone

303
Q

What side effect of carbimazole is common and can be treated with antihistamines without the need to discontinue?

A

Rashes and pruritis- don’t say ‘discontinue’ in exam cause you’ve mistaken it for neutropenia/agran

304
Q

Sick day rule for patients on a systemic steroid and fall mildly ill?

A

Double dose for 2 days

305
Q

Sick day rule for patients on a systemic steroid and severely ill?

A

Double dose until symptoms improve

306
Q

If a patients has severe diarrhoea or vomiting and can’t keep their steroid down?

A

Hydrocortisone emergency injection may be needed from GP

307
Q

Difference between Addisons and Cushings (hint: they are opposites)?

A

Addisons is a deficiency of ACTH- (adrenocorticotropic hormone) because the immune system has turned against the adrenal glands. Symptoms: anorexia, Nausea and vomiting, weightloss- treat with glucocorticoids Cushings- too much ACTH, caused by long term glucocorticoid therapy or tumour. Moon face, buffalo hump, mood swings, weight gain. Treatment- withdraw the steroid

308
Q

Symptoms of DKA?(8)

A

Rapid weight lossAbdominal painNausea and vomitingRapid and deep breathing?Sweet smelling breathSweet/metallic tasting breathAltered odour of urine/sweatSleepiness

309
Q

In adults:Gradual withdrawal of systematic corticosteroids is considered in those where the disease is unlikely to relapse and have….? (6)

A

Received more than 40mg of prednisolone (or equiv) daily in the last weekGiven repeated doses in the evening Received more than 3 weeks treatmentRecently received repeated courses (particularly for longer than 3 weeks)Taken short-course within a 1 year of stopping long-term treatmentOther possible causes of adrenal suppression

310
Q

How to withdraw corticosteroids from adults and children?

A

Adult:Dose may be reduced rapidly down to physiological dose (equivalent to 7.5mg prednisolone daily) and then reduced more slowlyChild:Dose may be reduced rapidly down to physiological dose (equivalent to 2-2.5 mg/m2 prednisolone daily) and then reduced more slowly

311
Q

When can systemic steroids be stopped abruptly?

A

When disease is unlikely to relapse and those who have received less than 3-weeks treatment (and those not included in the patient groups described on page 659)

312
Q

How long can corticosteroid-induced adrenal suppression last for after stopping drug

A

1 year or more

313
Q

What is the duration of dexamethasone and betamethasone?

A

Long duration of actionMakes it good for suppression of corticotrophin secretion (e.g. congenital adrenal hyperplasia)

314
Q

Steroid with high mineralocorticoid activity

A

Fludrocortisone acetateCan be used to treat postural hypotension

315
Q

Steroid with very high glucocorticoid activity and insignificant mineralocorticoid activity?

A

Betamethasoneand Dexamethasone

316
Q

Corticosteroid with moderate glucocorticoid activity and high mineralocorticoid activity - good for topical use because side-effects are less marked?

A

HYDROCORTISONE

317
Q

What are prednisolone and prednisones predominant activity on?

A

Glucocorticoids

318
Q

Side effects of glucocorticoids? (6)

A

DiabetesOsteoporosis (particularly in elderly)At high doses - avascular necrosis of femoral headMuscle wastingWeekly linked with peptic ulcer/perforationsPsychiatric reactions

319
Q

Side effects of mineralocorticoids (5)Think minerals2 increase, 2 decrease

A

Hypertension (hence why it can tx postural hypo)Sodium retentionWater retentionPotassium lossCalcium loss

320
Q

What is Deflazacort?

A

Derived from prednisoloneHas high glucocorticoid activity

321
Q

What happens to prednisolone when it crosses the placenta in pregnancy?

A

88% is inactivated

322
Q

What is the advise with ketoconazole and hepatic inpairment?In treating Cushing syndrome

A

Avoid in acute or chronic impairment Do not initiate the drug if liver enzymes are greater than 2X the normal upper limit

323
Q

Symptoms suggestive of adrenal Insufficiency?

A

FatigueAnorexiaNausea and vomitingHypotensionHyponatraemia HypoglycaemiaHyperkalaemia

324
Q

Characterised by persistent hyperglycaemia, what are the two ways in which diabetes can manifest?

A
  1. Deficient insulin secretion2. Resistance to actions of insulin
325
Q

What are the 4 types of diabetes?

A
  1. Type 1 2. Type 23. Gestational4. Secondary
326
Q

To which 3 conditions can diabetes be secondary?

A
  1. Pancreatic damage2. Hepatitis3. Endocrine disease
327
Q

Which agency must be notified if someone has diabetes and is being treated with insulin?

A

DVLA

328
Q

Which adverse event should drivers be particularly careful of?

A

Hypoglycaemia

329
Q

What must diabetics always carry to ensure they are informed about their plasma glucose?

A
  1. Glucose meter2. Test strips
330
Q

Diabetics using insulin should check their plasma glucose how long before driving?

A

Two hours

331
Q

While driving how often should diabetics using insulin test their plasma glucose?

A

Every two hours - more frequent if recent activity that may increase risk of hypo

332
Q

While driving, plasma glucose of diabetic drivers should always be above what threshold?

A

5mmol/L

333
Q

If plasma glucose falls slightly below 5mmol/L, what should diabetic drivers using insulin do?

A

Have a fast-acting carbohydrated

334
Q

What are the 3 steps that diabetic drivers using insulin should take if their plasma glucose falls below 4mmol/L

A
  1. Stop driving2. Switch off the engine, remove keys and move from driver’s seat3. Consume source of sugar
335
Q

How long should diabetic drivers using insulin wait before driving after stopping due to it falling below 4mmol/L?

A

45 minutes after it has returned to normal

336
Q

Under which circumstances should diabetic drivers using insulin not drive?

A

If hypoglycaemia awareness has been lost

337
Q

As well as insulin, which other diabetic medicines may it be necessary to inform the DVLA about? (3)

A
  1. Sulphonylureas2. Nateglinide3. Repaglinide
338
Q

Which lifestyle activity can mask the signs of hypoglycaemia?

A

Alcohol

339
Q

Is it advised for all diabetics to avoid drinking alcohol?

A

No, they must drink in moderation and with food

340
Q

Which test is mainly used to diagnose impaired glucose control? It is useful for when patients do not have severe symptoms but glucose tolerance is impaired

A

Oral Glucose Tolerance Test

341
Q

If symptoms are already present, should the OGTT be used to diagnose diabetes?

A

No

342
Q

In which type of diabetes is OGTT especially useful in diagnosing?

A

Gestational diabetes

343
Q

How is the OGTT conducted?

A

Plasma glucose is measured after fasting.Patient drinks glucose drink.Plasma glucose is measured 2 hours after

344
Q

Which test is a good indicator for glycaemic control?

A

HbA1c

345
Q

What does HbA1c measure?

A

The amount of glycated haemoglobin

346
Q

HbA1c shows average glucose control over how long?

A

The last 2-3 months

347
Q

Should a patient fast before their HbA1c test?

A

No

348
Q

HbA1c is used in Type 1 and Type 2 monitoring and diagnosis of Type 2, in which situations should it not be used? (10)

A
  1. Type 1 diagnosis2. Children3. Pregnancy4. Up to 2 months post-partum5. Symptoms of diabetes less than 2 months6. High risk diabetes or critically ill7. Treatment with medication that causes hyperglyacemia8. Acute pancreatic damage9. End stage CKD10. HIV
349
Q

In Type 1 Diabetes, how often should HbA1c be measured?

A

every 2-3months

350
Q

In Type 2 Diabetes, how often should HbA1c be measured?

A

every 2-3months

351
Q

In which patients is HbA1c monitoring invalid?

A
  1. Disturbed erythrocyte turnover2. Lack of/abnormal haemoglobin
352
Q

In patients which HbA1c monitoring is invalid, what can be used instead?

A
  1. Quality controlled blood glucose profiles2. Total glycated haemoglobin estimation3. Fructosamine estimation
353
Q

What does fructosamine estimation measure?

A

Glycated concentration of ALL plasma proteins over 14-21 days

354
Q

Can type 1 diabetes produce endogenous insulin?

A

No (little to none)

355
Q

Why is there no insulin secretion in type 1 diabetes?

A

Destruction of insulin-producing pancreatic beta cells

356
Q

What causes the destruction of pancreatic beta cells in type 1 diabetes?

A

Auto-immune basis

357
Q

At what age does type 1 diabetes most commonly occur?

A

Before adulthood

358
Q

What are the microvascular complications of diabetes? (3)

A
  1. Nephropathy2. Neuropathy3. Retinopathy
359
Q

What are the macrovascular complications of diabetes? (3)

A
  1. Stroke2. Cardiovascular disease (MI)3. Peripheral arterial disease
360
Q

What blood glucose reading would you expect an adult presenting with Type 1 Diabetes to have?

A

Over 11mmol/L

361
Q

What BMI would you expect an adult presenting with Type 1 Diabetes to have?

A

Less than 25kg/m2

362
Q

How old would you expect an adult presenting with Type 1 Diabetes to be?

A

Less than 50

363
Q

As well as hyperglycaemia, low BMI, and younger than 50, what other characteristics do adults presenting with T1DM have? (3)

A
  1. Rapid weight loss2. Ketosis3. (Family) history of autoimmune disease
364
Q

Increasingly used in T2DM, what is the mainstay of treatment for T1DM?

A

Insulin

365
Q

Using insulin regimens, what are the 3 aims of treating T1DM?

A
  1. Achieve blood glucose control2. Reduce frequency of hypoglycaemic episodes3. Minimise the risk of microvascular and macrovascular complications
366
Q

What is the target HbA1c for T1DM?

A

Less than 48mmol/mol

367
Q

How often must T1DM patients monitor their blood glucose daily?

A

at least 4 times daily - before each meal and before bed

368
Q

What is the target fasting blood glucose for T1DM patients?

A

5-7mmol/L

369
Q

What is the target random blood glucose for T1DM patients?

A

4-7mmol/L

370
Q

What is the target blood glucose for T1DM patients after eating?

A

5-9mmol/L

371
Q

As well as controlling blood glucose with insulin, which other cardiovascular risk factors must be actively managed in patients with diabetes?

A
  1. Hypertension2. Blood lipids
372
Q

Unlicensed, which oral antidiabetic can be used alongside insulin in the management of T1DM?

A

Metformin

373
Q

Unlicensed, in which patients can Metformin be used alongside insulin in the management of T1DM?

A

BMI over 25 (over 23 S. Asian)

374
Q

What are the advantages of usince Metformin alongside insulin (unlicensed) in T1DM?

A
  1. Improve blood glucose2. Minimise insulin dose
375
Q

Which other healthcare professional should be involved in manageing patients with diabetes to ensure they control their weight, lower cardiovascular risk and understand the hyperglycaemia effects of food?

A

Dietician

376
Q

What type of training must T1DM patients receive in order to tailor their insulin dose throughout the day?

A

Carbohydrate-counting training

377
Q

Can insulin be initiated by the GP?

A

No, specilist initiation and management

378
Q

What are the 3 main insulin REGIMENS?

A
  1. Multiple daily BASAL-BOLUS regimens2. Mixed (BIPHASIC) regimens3. Continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion
379
Q

A basal insulin injection is…

A

Long acting

380
Q

A bolus insulin injection is…

A

Short acting

381
Q

What does a mixed (biphasic) regimen injection contain?

A

Short acting + intermediate acting

382
Q

What is the first line recommended insulin regimen for patients with T1DM?

A

Basal-bolus

383
Q

Give 2 examples of long acting insulin injections

A
  1. Insulin detemir2. Insulin glargine
384
Q

Are non basal-bolus insulin regimens recommended for patients newly diagnosed with T1DM? Examples: biphasic, basal-only, bolus-only

A

NO

385
Q

When should rapid acting insulin be administered?

A

Before meals

386
Q

What is the second line insulin regimen for patients with T1DM?

A

Biphasic

387
Q

Which insulin regimen should patients with disabling hyperglyceamia or high HbA1c above 69 mmol/mol be given? Specialist initiation only

A

Continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion

388
Q

What can persistent poor glucose control be due to?

A
  1. Adherence issues2. Poor injection technique3. Injection site issues4. Poor blood-glucose monitoring skills5. Lifestyle (diet/exercise/alcohol)6. Psychological issues7. Organic disease
389
Q

Give 5 examples of organic disease that may cause poor glucose control

A
  1. Renal disease2. Thyroid disorder3. Coeliac disease4. Addison’s disease5. Gastroparesis
390
Q

Under which circumstances might a patient require increased insulin? (3)

A
  1. Infection2. Stress3. Accidental/Surgical trauma
391
Q

Under which circumstances might a patient require decreased insulin? (3)

A
  1. Physical activity2. Intercurrent illness3. Reduced food intake4. Impaired renal function5. Endocrine disorders
392
Q

What are the early symptoms of hypoglycaemia? (8)

A
  1. Palour2. Tingling lips3. Sweating4.Palpitations5. Fatigue6. Hunger7. Shaking/Trembling8.Irritable
393
Q

What are the symptoms of more advanced hypoglycaemia? (8)

A
  1. Weakness2. Blurred vision3. Difficulty concentrating4. Slurred speech5. Confusion6. Sleepiness7. Seizures8. Coma
394
Q

What is an invetiable adverse effect of insulin?

A

Hypoglycaemia

395
Q

When can impaired hypoglycaemia awareness occur? (2)

A
  1. Ability to recognise symptoms is lost2. Symptoms are blunted / no longer present
396
Q

Which questionnaire can be used to assess hypoglycaemia awareness?

A

Gold/Clarke score

397
Q

What may reduce warning signs of hypoglyacemia?

A

Increased frequency of hypoglycaemia episodes

398
Q

Impaired awareness of symptoms at which plasma glucose reading is considered significant?

A

less than 3mmol/L

399
Q

Which class of drug can blunt awareness of hypoglycaemia by reducing the warning sign: tremor?

A

Beta blockers

400
Q

Provided by the GP or community pharmacy, which container is used when disposing of insulin pens and needles?

A

Yellow sharps bin

401
Q

How is the yellow sharps bin full of insulin pens and needles disposed of?

A

Taken from the patient by the local authority

402
Q

What are the two functions of insulin?

A
  1. Increase glucose uptake by adipose tissue and muscles2. Suppress hepatic glucose release
403
Q

Which insulin regimen best mimics the normal profile of the body releasing endogenous insulin?

A

Basal-bolus

404
Q

Insulins from which source are no longer initiated in patients with diabetes?

A

Animals

405
Q

How common is insulin allergy?

A

Rare

406
Q

Through which route is insulin usually administered?

A

Subcutaneous

407
Q

With plenty of subcutaneous fat, to which areas of the body is insulin injected? (3)

A
  1. Abdomen2. Outer thighs3. Buttocks
408
Q

Which factors can change rate of absorption? (6)

A
  1. Local tissue reactions2. Injection site3. Depth of injection4. Changes in insulin sensitivity5. Blood flow6. Amount injected
409
Q

What can increase the amount of blood flow at the injection site?

A

Exercise

410
Q

Causing erratic absorption of insulin, what can occur if injections are repeatedly administered to the same site?

A

Lipohypertrophy

411
Q

What does short-acting insulin replicate?

A

The insulin released by the body in response to a meal

412
Q

What are the 3 short-acting insulins?

A
  1. Insulin glulisine2. Insulin aspart3. Insulin lispro
413
Q

How long does short-acting insulin take to act?

A

15mins

414
Q

How long before meals should short-acting insulin be administered

A

Immediately

415
Q

Why should post-meal injections be avoided? (2)

A
  1. Poorer glucose control2. Hypoglycemia
416
Q

What is the intermediate-acting insulin called?

A

Isophane insulin

417
Q

What does intermediate-acting insulin mimic?

A

Endogenous basal insulin continuously secreted in response to glucose production by liver

418
Q

How long does intermediate-acting insulin take to work?

A

1-2hours

419
Q

How long does intermediate-acting insulin last?

A

11-24hours

420
Q

What are the 2 regimen options for intermediate-acting insulins?

A
  1. One or more daily injections of intermediate insulin + short-acting insulins at meal times2. Mixed (biphasic) insulin injections
421
Q

What are the 3 long-acting insulins?

A
  1. Insulin detemir2. Insulin glargine3. Insulin degludec
422
Q

Which long-acting insulin can be administered either once or twice daily? The other two can only be administered once daily

A

Insulin detemir

423
Q

Mimimicing endogenous insulin, what is the duration of action of long-acting insulin?

A

36 hours

424
Q

How long does it take for long-acting insulin to reach steady state?

A

2-4 days

425
Q

What is the NHS improvement important safety alert regarding insulin devices?

A

Risk of severe harm and death due to withdrawing insulin from pen devices - Insulin should not be extracted from pen devices

426
Q

What is the recommended plasma glucose level in children with T1DM most of the time?

A

Between 4 and 10mmol/L

427
Q

When prescribing and dispensing insulin, which word should NOT be abbreviated?

A

“unit”

428
Q

When handing out insulin to a patient, what must you do?

A

Show them the contained to confirm the expected version is dispensed

429
Q

What is the initial treatment of hypoglycaemia?

A

10-20g glucose by mouth

430
Q

After the initial treatment of hypoglycaemia, what can be given to prevent levels falling again?

A

A carbohydrate snack

431
Q

When is hypoglycaemia an emergency?

A

If it cause unconsciousness

432
Q

In hypoglycaemia, if sugar cannot be given by mouth, what can be administered by injection?

A

Glucagon - increases the plasma-glucose concentration by mobilising glucagon stored in the liver

433
Q

True of false: Glucagon can be issued to close relatives of patients taking insulin to treat hypoglyacemia

A

TRUE

434
Q

In hypoglycaemia, what is the alternative treatment to glucagon?

A

Glucose 20% IV Infusion into a large vein

435
Q

In hyperglycaemia, glucose 20% can be administered as an alternative to glucagon. Why can’t glucose 50% be given? (2)

A
  1. High risk of extravasation2. Difficult to administer
436
Q

Glucagon is not appropriate for use in chronic hypoglycaemia. Which drug can be administered by mouth to treat hypoglycaemia due to excess endogenous insulin secretion ?

A

Diazoxide

Pre Reg 2021 Darush (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions