chapter 6 departure

Question 1

When is an IFR flight plan required?
A- When less than VFR conditions exist in either Class E or Class G airspace and in Class A airspace.
B- In all Class E when conditions are below VFR, in Class A airspace, and in defense zone airspace.
C- In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace.

Answer 1

C- In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace

Question 2

Prior to which operation must and IFR flight plan be filed and an appropriate ATC clearance received?
A- Flying by reference to instruments in controlled airspace.
B- Entering controlled airspace when IMC exists.
C- Takeoff when IFR weather conditions exist.

Answer 2

B- Entering controlled airspace when IMC exists.

Question 3

To operate under IFR below 18,000 feet, a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate ATC clearance prior to
A- entering controlled airspace.
B- entering weather conditions below VFR
C- takeoff.

Answer 3

A- entering controlled airspace.

Question 4

To operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received prior to
A- controlling the aircraft solely by use of instruments
B- entering weather conditions in any airspace
C- entering controlled airspace

Answer 4

C- entering controlled airspace

Question 5

When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?
A- When operating in the Class E airspace.
B- When operating in a Class A airspace.
C- When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet.

Answer 5

B- When operating in a Class A airspace.

Question 6

Operation in which response requires filing an IFR flight plan?
A- Any airspace when the visibility is less than 1 mile.
B- Class E airspace when IMC and class A airspace.
C- Positive control area, Continental Control Area, and all other airspace, if the visibility is less than 1 mile.

Answer 6

B- Class E airspace when IMC and class A airspace.

Question 7

When departing from an airport located outside controller airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR flight plan and receive a clearance before
A- takeoff
B- entering IFR conditions
C- entering Class E airspace

Answer 7

C- entering Class E airspace

Question 8

No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless he/she files a flight plan
A- and receives a clearance by telephone prior to takeoff.
B- Prior to takeoff and requests the clearance upon arrival on an airway.
C- and receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace.

Answer 8

C- and receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace.

Question 9

When may VFR waypoints be used on an IFR flight plan?
A- Never
B- Always
C- When filing a composite flight plan

Answer 9

A- Never

Question 10

During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, you determine that the first airport of intended landing has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3000’ scattered with 5 miles visibility. To meet the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly the first airport of intended landing,
A- then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed
B- then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
C- and then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

Answer 10

B- then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

Question 11

What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planning ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing,
A- and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
B- fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
C- fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed

Answer 11

B- fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

Question 12

What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing,
A- and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
B- fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
C- fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed

Answer 12

C- fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed

Question 13

When may a pilot file a composite flight plan?
A- When requested or advised by ATC
B- Any time a portion of the flight will be VFR
C- Any time a landing is planned at an intermediate airport.

Answer 13

B- Any time a portion of the flight will be VFR

Question 14

When filing a composite flight plan where the first portion of the flight is IFR, which fix(es) should be indicated on the flight plan form?
A- All points of transition from one airway to another, fixes defining direct route segments, and the clearance limit fix
B- Only the fix where you plan to terminate the IFR portion of the flight
C- Only those compulsory reporting points on the IFR route segment

Answer 14

A- All points of transition from one airway to another, fixes defining direct route segments, and the clearance limit fix

Question 15

What is the recommended procedure for transitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan?
A- Prior to transitioning to IFR, contact the nearest FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC clearance
B- Upon reaching the proposed point for change to IFR, contact the nearest FSS and cancel your VFR flight plan, then contact ARTCC, request your IFR clearance
C- Prior to reaching the proposed point for change to IFR, contact ARTCC, request you IFR clearance, and instruct them to cancel the VFR flight plan

Answer 15

A- Prior to transitioning to IFR, contact the nearest FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC clearance

Question 16

What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a VOR approach with standard alternative minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan?
A- 800-foot ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility
B- 800-foot ceiling and 2 statue miles visibility
C- 1,000-foot ceiling and visibility to allow descent from minimum en route altitude (MEA), approach, and landing under basic VFR

Answer 16

B- 800-foot ceiling and 2 statue miles visibility

Question 17

An airport may not be qualified for alternative use if
A- the airport has only AWOS-3 weather reporting.
B- the airport is next to a restricted or prohibited area.
C- the only standard approach procedure is GPS.

Answer 17

C- the only standard approach procedure is GPS

Question 18

When your aircraft is equipped with a TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS, an aircraft may not be qualified for alternate use if
A- the only standard approach procedure is GPS at the destination and alternate
B-the airport has only AWOS-3 weather reporting and no LAAS equipment operational
C- the airport is next to a restricted or prohibited area

Answer 18

A- the only standard approach procedure is GPS at the destination and alternate

Question 19

What are the alternate minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an airport that has a precision approach procedure?
A- 400-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility
B- 600-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility
C- 800-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility

Answer 19

B- 600-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility

Question 20

When an alternate airport is required, what are the weather minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure?
A- Ceiling 200 feet above the approach minimums and at least 1 statue mile visibility, but not less than the minimum visibility for the approach
B- 600 foot ceiling and 2 statue miles visibility
C- Ceiling 200 feet above field elevation and visibility 1 statue mile, but not less than the minimum visibility for the approach.

Answer 20

B- 600 foot ceiling and 2 statue miles visibility

Question 21

What are the minimum weather conditions that must be forecast to list an airport as an alternate when the airport has no approved IAP?
A- The ceiling and visibility at ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively
B- The ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively
C- The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR

Answer 21

C- The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR

Question 22

When a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate airport , which minimums apply for landing at the alternate?
A- 600-1 if the airport has an ILS.
B- Ceiling 200 feet above the published minimum; visibility 2 miles
C- The landing minimums for the approach to be used

Answer 22

C- The landing minimums for the approach to be used

Question 23

If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate, the landing minimums used at the airport should be the
A- minimums specified for the approach procedure selected
B- alternate minimums shown on the approach chart
C- minimums shown for that airport in a separate listing of “IFR Alternate Minimums.”

Answer 23

A- minimums specified for the approach procedure selected

Question 24

When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?
A- Standard alternate minimums (600-2 or 800-2).
B- The IFR alternate minimums listed for that airport.
C- The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.

Answer 24

C- The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected

Question 25

An airport without an authorized IAP may be included on an IFR flight plan as an alternate, if the current weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will
A-allow for descent from the IAF to landing under basic VFR conditions.
B- be at least 1,000 feet and 1 mile.
C- allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions

Answer 25

C- allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions

Question 26

Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix by
A- the established airways(s) between the departure airport and the fix
B- an instrument departure procedure (DP) or radar vectors.
C- direct route only

Answer 26

B- an instrument departure procedure (DP) or radar vectors.

Question 27

The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from the
A- ATIS broadcast
B- AFSS
C- Notices to Airman publications.

Answer 27

B- AFSS

Question 28

What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?
A- The final approach fix on the expected instrument approach
B- The initial approach fix on the expected instrument approach
C- The point of first intended landing

Answer 28

C- The point of first intended landing

Question 29

For aircraft other than helicopters, what forecast weather minimums are required to list an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only?
A- Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively
B- Ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles respectively
C- Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 600 feet and 2 miles, respectively

Answer 29

A- Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively

Question 30

For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums in order to list it as an alternate for he IFR flight?
A- 600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.
B- 600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility from 2 hours before to 2 hours after your ETA
C- 800-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA

Answer 30

A- 600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.

Question 31

For aircraft other than helicopters, is an alternate airport required for IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z?
TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030 FRM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB FROM 2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVD040 BECMG 0608 02008KT BKN040 BECMG 1012 00000KT P6SM CLR=
A- No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA
B- No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to remain at or above 1,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively
C- Yes, because the ceiling could fall below 2,000 feet within 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA

Answer 31

A- No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA

Question 32

For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid the listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available?
A- From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 2 and 1/2 miles.
B- From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 3,000, and visibility 3 miles.
C- From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles

Answer 32

C- From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles

Question 33

For aircraft other than helicopters, under what conditions are you not required to list an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan if 14 CFR part 97 prescribes a standard IAP for the destination airport?
A- When the ceiling is forecast to be at least 1,000 feet above the lowest of the MEA, MOCA, or initial approach altitude and the visibility is 2 miles more than the minimum landing visibility is 2 hours of your ETA at the destination airport.
B- When the weather reports or forecasts indicate the ceiling and visibility will be at least 2,000 feet and 3 miles for 1 hour before to 1 hour after your ETA at the destination airport
C- When the ceiling is forecast to be at least 1,000 feet above the lowest of the MEA, MOCA, or initial approach altitude within 2 hours of your ETA at the destination airport

Answer 33

B- When the weather reports or forecasts indicate the ceiling and visibility will be at least 2,000 feet and 3 miles for 1 hour before to 1 hour after your ETA at the destination airport

Question 34

When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?
A- When priority has been given.
B- Any time an emergency occurs.
C- When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.

Answer 34

A- When priority has been given.

Question 35

While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?
A- Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible.
B- Squawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency.
C- Submit a detailed report to the chief of the ATC facility within 48 hours.

Answer 35

A- Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible.

Question 36

If you are performing a VFR practice instrument approach and Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds, what action should you take?
A- Enter the clouds, since ATC authorization for practice approaches is considered an IFR clearance
B- Avoid the clouds and inform ATC that altitude/ heading will not permit VFR.
C- Abandon the approach and advice ATC of your intentions.

Answer 36

B- Avoid the clouds and inform ATC that altitude/ heading will not permit VFR.

Question 37

What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A- Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
B- Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification
C- Read-back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all instructions.

Answer 37

B- Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification

Question 38

Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.)
A- Altitude, destination airport, and one or more fixes which identify the initial route of flight.
B- Destination airport, altitude, and DP Name-Number-Transition, if appropriate.
C- Clearance limit, and DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

Answer 38

B- Destination airport, altitude, and DP Name-Number-Transition, if appropriate.

Question 39

On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control:
CLEARED TO THE DALLAS LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED- MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND- SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE- DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER.
A- departure control frequency
B- destination airport and route
C- requested enroute altitude

Answer 39

B- destination airport and route

Question 40

Which information is always given In an abbreviated departure clearance?
A- DP or transition name and altitude to maintain.
B- Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude.
C- Altitude to maintain and code to squawk.

Answer 40

B- Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude

Question 41

An abbreviated departure clearance “….CLEARED AS FILED..” will always contain the name
A- and number of the STAR to be flown when filed in the flight plan.
B- of the destination airport filed in the flight plan
C- of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment

Answer 41

B- of the destination airport filed in the flight plan

Question 42

When departing from an airport served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that
A- ATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no transmission is received before the void time
B- the pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time
C- ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time

Answer 42

B- the pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time

Question 43

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “….CRUISE SIX THOUSAND….”?
A- The pilot must maintain 6,000 feet until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure.
B- Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot’s discretion.
C- The pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/MOCA to 6,000 feet, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC

Answer 43

B- Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot’s discretion.

Question 44

A “CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET” clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to
A- vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC.
B- climb to, but not descend from 4,000 without further ATC clearance
C- use an altitude from minimum IFR to 4,000 feet, but must report leaving each altitude

Answer 44

A- vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC.

Question 45

What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?
A- Maintain a continuous optimum climb until reaching assigned altitude and report passing each 1,000 foot level
B- Climb at a maximum angle of climb to within 1,000 feet of the assigned altitude, then 500 feet per minute the last 1,000 feet.
C- Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level-offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per minute

Answer 45

C- Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level-offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per minute

Question 46

To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used?
A- as rapidly as practicable to 500 feet above/below the assigned altitude, and then at 500 feet per minute until the assigned altitude is reached
B- 1,000 feet per minute during climb and 500 feet per minute during descents until reaching the assigned altitude.
C- As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/ below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude

Answer 46

C- As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/ below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude

Question 47

which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?
A- DP’s, STARs, and contact approaches
B- Contact and visual approaches
C- DP’s, STARs, and visual approaches

Answer 47

C- DP’s, STARs, and visual approaches

Question 48

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads”…CRUISE SIC THOUSAND….”?
A- The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure
B- It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000
C- The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC

Answer 48

B- It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000

Question 49

When ATC designs instrument procedures, unless otherwise stated or declared, ATC uses the standard IFR climb gradient of
A- 500 feet per minute
B- 400 feet per nautical mile
C- 200 feet per nautical mile

Answer 49

C- 200 feet per nautical mile

Question 50

What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?
A- Advise clearance delivery or ground control before departure.
B- Advise departure control upon initial contact
C- Enter “No DP” in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.

Answer 50

C- Enter “No DP” in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.

Question 51

A particular instrument departure procedure requires a minimum climb rate of 210 feet per NM to 8,000 feet. If you climb with a ground speed of 140 knots, what is the rate of climb required in feet per minute?
A- 210
B- 450
C- 490

Answer 51

C- 490

Question 52

Which procedure applies to instrument departure procedures?
A- Instrument departure clearances will not be issued unless requested by the pilot.
B- The pilot in command must accept an instrument departure procedure when issued by ATC
C- If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, the pilot must possess a textual or graphic description

Answer 52

C- If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, the pilot must possess a textual or graphic description

Question 53

Which is true regarding the use of an instrument departure procedure chart?
A- The use of instrument departure procedures is mandatory
B- The use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure
C- To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess both the textual and graphic form of the approved procedure

Answer 53

B- The use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure

Question 54

What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating within the outer area of Class C airspace?
A- Separation from all aircraft
B- Position and altitude of all traffic within 2 miles of the IFR pilot’s line of flight and altitude
C- Separation from all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft

Answer 54

C- Separation from all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft

Question 55

When should your transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight?
A- Only when ATC request Mode C.
B- At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC
C- When passing 12,500 feet MSL

Answer 55

B- At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC

Question 56

During a flight, the controller advises “traffic 2 o’clock 5 miles southbound.” The pilot is holding 20 degree correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?
A- 40 degrees to the right of the aircraft’s nose
B- 20 degrees to the right of the aircraft’s nose
C- Straight ahead

Answer 56

A- 40 degrees to the right of the aircraft’s nose

Question 57

What is meant when departure control instructs you to “resume own navigation” after you have been vectored to a Victor airway?
A- You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment.
B- Radar service is terminated.
C- You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

Answer 57

A- You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment.

Question 58

What does the ATC term “Radar Contact” signify?
A- Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.
B- Your aircraft had been identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
C- You will be given traffic advisories until advised the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.

Answer 58

B- Your aircraft had been identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.

Question 59

Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to “RESUME OWN NAVAGATION.” This phrase means that
A- you are still in radar contact, but must make position reports
B- radar services are terminated and you will be responsible for position reports
C- you are to assume responsibility for your own navigation

Answer 59

C- you are to assume responsibility for your own navigation

Question 60

When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?
A- Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower
B- Immediately upon acceptance of the approach by the pilot
C- When ATC advices, “Radar service terminate; resume own navigation.”

Answer 60

A- Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower

Question 61

During a takeoff into IFR conditions with low ceilings, when should the pilot contact departure control?
A- Before penetrating the clouds
B- When advised by the tower
C- Upon completing the first turn after takeoff

Answer 61

B- When advised by the tower

Question 62

What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions?
A- Report VFR conditions to ARTCC so that an amended clearance may be issued
B-Use VFR operating procedures
C- To see and avoid other traffic

Answer 62

C- To see and avoid other traffic

Question 63

When is pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?
A- At all times when not in radar contact with ATC.
B- When weather conditions permit, regardless of weather operating under IFR or VFR
C- Only when advised by ATC.

Answer 63

B- When weather conditions permit, regardless of weather operating under IFR or VFR

Question 64

When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?
A- When visibility is less than 1 mile.
B- When parallel runways are in use.
C- When departing from a runway intersection.

Answer 64

C- When departing from a runway intersection.

Question 65

Under which of the following circumstances will ATC issues a VFR restriction to an IFR flight?
A- Whenever the pilot reports the loss of ay navigational aid
B- When it is necessary to provide separation between IFR and special VFR traffic.
C- When the pilot requests it

Answer 65

C- When the pilot requests it

Question 66

During a takeoff into IMC with low ceilings, you should contact departure
A- before entering the clouds
B- when the tower instructs the change
C- upon reaching traffic pattern altitude

Answer 66

B- when the tower instructs the change

Question 67

What is the pilot in command’s responsibility when flying a propeller aircraft within 20 miles of the airport of intended landing and ATC requests the pilot to reduce speed to 160? (Pilot complies with speed adjustment.)
A- Reduce TAS to 160 knows and maintain until advised by ATC
B- Reduce IAS to 160 MPH and maintain until advised by ATC
C- Reduce IAS to 160 knots and maintain that speed within 10 knots

Answer 67

C- Reduce IAS to 160 knots and maintain that speed within 10 knots

Question 68

Which lines should you cross when exiting the runway?
A- Solid lines
B- Striped lines
C- Both solid and striped lines

Answer 68

C- Both solid and striped lines

Question 69

Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?
A- if on the glidepath, the near bars will appear red, and the far bars will appear white.
B- If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white.
C- if on the glidepath, both near bars and far bars will appear white.

Answer 69

B- If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white.

Question 70

The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will
A- both appear while to the pilot when on the upper glidepath
B- constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the lower glidepath
C- constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glidepath

Answer 70

C- constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glidepath

Question 71

Tricolor Visual Approach Indicators normally consist of
A- a single unit, projecting a three-color visual approach path
B- three separate lights units, each projecting a different color approach path
C- three separate light projecting units of very high candle power with a daytime range of approximately 5 miles

Answer 71

A- a single unit, projecting a three-color visual approach path

Question 72

When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as
A- white and the far bar is red
B- red and the far bar as white
C- white and the far bar as white

Answer 72

A- white and the far bar is red

Question 73

If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3- bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A- start a climb to reach the proper glidepath
B- continue at the same rate of descent if the runway is in sight
C- level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path

Answer 73

C- level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path

Question 74

Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A-One light projector with three colors: red, green, and amber
B- Two visual glidepaths for the runway
C- Three glidepaths, with the center patch indicated by a white light

Answer 74

A-One light projector with three colors: red, green, and amber

Question 75

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
A- Continuation of course guidance after transition to VFR
B- Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area
C- Course guidance from the visual descent point to touchdown

Answer 75

B- Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area

Question 76

Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one o each side of the runway threshold?
A- RAIL
B- HIRL
C- REIL

Answer 76

C- REIL

Question 77

The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide
A- rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility
B- a warning of the final 3,000 feet of runway remaining as viewed from the takeoff or approach position
C- rapid identification of the primary runway during reduced visibility

Answer 77

A- rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility

Question 78

Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?
A- Arrows leading to the threshold mark
B- Centerline dishes starting at the threshold
C- Red chevron marks in the nonlanding portion of the runway

Answer 78

A- Arrows leading to the threshold mark

Question 79

The ‘runway hold position’ sign denotes
A- intersecting runways
B- an entrance to runway from a taxiway
C- an area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway

Answer 79

B- an entrance to runway from a taxiway

Question 80

‘Runway hold position’ markings on the taxiway
A-identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway
B- identifies area where aircraft are prohibited
C- allows an aircraft permission onto the runway

Answer 80

A-identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway

Question 81

The ‘No entry’ sign identifies
A- the exit boundary for the runway protected area
B- an area that does not continue beyond intersection
C- paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited

Answer 81

C- paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited

Question 82

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway , the ‘taxiway directional sign’ indicates
A- direction to the take-off runway
B- designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an interaction
C- designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway

Answer 82

B- designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an interaction

Question 83

When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?
A- Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway
B- Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection
C- indicates direction to take-off runway

Answer 83

A- Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway

Question 84

A runway exit sign
A- points toward a named taxiway that leads off the runway
B- designed an intersection of two or more runways
C- indicates the direction to exit from a named taxiway onto a runway

Answer 84

A- points toward a named taxiway that leads off the runway

Question 85

In the movement area of an airport, what does a “Destination” sign indicate?
A- Direction to the takeoff runway
B- Direction from taxiway to runway
C- Direction from ramp to taxiway

Answer 85

A- Direction to the takeoff runway

Question 86

The ILS critical area markings denote
A- where you are clear of the runway
B- where you must be to start your ILS procedure
C- Where you are clear of the ILS critical area

Answer 86

C- Where you are clear of the ILS critical area

Question 87

What altitude may a pilot on an IFR flight plan select upon receiving a VFR-On-Top clearance?
A- Any altitude at least 1,000 feet above the meteorological condition
B- Any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the MEA in VFR weather conditions
C- Any VFR altitude appropriate for the direction of flight at least 500 feet above the meteorological condition

Answer 87

B- Any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the MEA in VFR weather conditions

Question 88

When must a pilot fly at a cardinal altitude plus 500 feet on an IFR flight plan?
A- When flying above 18,000 feet in VFR conditions
B- When flying in VFR conditions above clouds
C- When assigned a VFR-On-Top clearance

Answer 88

C- When assigned a VFR-On-Top clearance

Question 89

You have filed an IFR flight plan with a VFR-On-Top clearance in lieu of an assigned altitude. If you receive this clearance and fly a course of 180 degrees, at what altitude should you fly? (Assume VFR conditions.)
A- Any IFR altitude which will enable you to remain in VFR conditions
B- An odd thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet
C- An even thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet

Answer 89

C- An even thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet

Question 90

Where are VFR-On-Top operations prohibited?
A- In Class A airspace
B- During off-airways direct flights
C- When flying through Class B airspace

Answer 90

A- In Class A airspace

Question 91

Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR-On-Top clearance?
A- VFR only
B- VFR and IFR
C- VFR when “I the clear” and IFR when “in the clouds.”

Answer 91

B- VFR and IFR

Question 92

When can a VFR-On-Top clearance be assigned by ATC?
A- Only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be suitable
B- Any time suitable conditions exist and ATC wishes to expedite traffic flow
C- When VFR conditions exist, but there is a layer of clouds below the MEA

Answer 92

A- Only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be suitable

Question 93

Which ATC clearance should instrument-rated pilots request in order to climb through a cloud layer or an area of reduced visibility and then continue the flight VFR?
A- To VFR-On-Top
B- Special VFR to VFR Over-the-Top
C- VFR Over-the-Top

Answer 93

A- To VFR-On-Top

Question 94

When on a VFR-On-Top clearance, the cruising altitude is based on
A- true course
B- magnetic course
C- magnetic heading

Answer 94

B- magnetic course

Question 95

In which airspace is VFR-On-Top operation prohibited?
A- Class B airspace
B- Class E airspace
C- Class A airspace

Answer 95

C- Class A airspace

Question 96

What cruising altitude is appropriate for VFR on Top on a westbound flight below 18,000 feet?
A- Even thousand-foot levels
B- Even thousand-foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA.
C- Odd thousand-foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA

Answer 96

B- Even thousand-foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA.

Question 97

What reports are required of a flight operating on an IFR clearance specifying VFR on Top in a nonradar environment?
A- The same reports that are required for any IFR flight
B- All normal IFR reports except vacating altitudes
C- Only the reporting of any unforecast weather

Answer 97

A- The same reports that are required for any IFR flight

Question 98

What minimums must be considered in selecting an altitude when operating with a VFR-On-Top clearance?
A- At least 500 feet above the lowest MEA, or appropriate MOCA, and at least 1,000 feet above the existing meteorological condition
B- At least 1,000 feet above the lowest MEA, appropriate MOCA, or existing meteorological condition
C- Minimums IFR altitude, minimum distance from clouds, and visibility appropriate to altitude selected

Answer 98

C- Minimums IFR altitude, minimum distance from clouds, and visibility appropriate to altitude selected

Question 99

When operating under IFR with a VFR-On-Top clearance, what altitude should be maintained?
A- The last altitude assigned by ATC
B- An IFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown
C- A VFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown and as restricted by ATC

Answer 99

C- A VFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown and as restricted by ATC

Question 100

ATC has approved your request for VFR-on-top while on an IFR clearance. Therefore, you
A-should set your transponder to code 1200
B- must fly appropriate IFR altitudes
C-Must fly appropriate VFR altitudes

Answer 100

C-Must fly appropriate VFR altitudes