Chapter 6

Question 1

1.	Bacteria that form an irregular cluster of spheres are called:
a.
bacilli.
b.
diplococci.
c.
staphylococci.
d.
streptococci.

Answer 1

c.

staphylococci.

Question 2

2.	A strict anaerobe requires which specific environment?
a.
A dry environment
b.
An acidic medium
c.
Air at a temperature less than 61° F/16° C
d.
The absence of oxygen

Answer 2

d.

The absence of oxygen

Question 3

3.	The presence of the bacterial capsule:
a.
aids in the release of endotoxins.
b.
protects the microbe from phagocytosis.
c.
increases the release of toxins and enzymes.
d.
prevents replication of the bacterium.

Answer 3

b.

protects the microbe from phagocytosis.

Question 4

4.	Microbial mutation means that:
a.
genetic information has changed.
b.
pathogens become nonpathogens.
c.
the microbe survives adverse conditions but can no longer replicate.
d.
the immune response to that microbe is strengthened.

Answer 4

a.

genetic information has changed.

Question 5

5.	A bacterial endospore can:
a.
also be classified as an acid-fast bacterium.
b.
exist in latent form inside a host cell.
c.
reproduce very rapidly.
d.
survive high temperatures and a dry environment.

Answer 5

d.

survive high temperatures and a dry environment.

Question 6

6.	The structure of a virus includes:
a.
a cell wall and membrane.
b.
metabolic enzymes for replication.
c.
a protein coat and either DNA or RNA.
d.
a slime capsule and cilia.

Answer 6

c.

a protein coat and either DNA or RNA.

Question 7

7. What method do viruses use to replicate?
   a.
   Binary fission
   b.
   Budding of a daughter cell from the parent viral cell
   c.
   Producing reproductive spores
   d.
   Using a host cell to produce and assemble components

Answer 7

d.

Using a host cell to produce and assemble components

Question 8

8.	A retrovirus such as HIV contains:
a.
RNA and enzymes for its conversion.
b.
a double strand of DNA.
c.
many enzymes to limit budding of new virions.
d.
numerous mitochondria.

Answer 8

a.

RNA and enzymes for its conversion.

Question 9

9. How do antiviral drugs act?
   a.
   They interfere with cell wall development.
   b.
   They decrease cell membrane permeability.
   c.
   They destroy new, immature viral particles.
   d.
   They reduce the rate of viral replication.

Answer 9

d.

They reduce the rate of viral replication.

Question 10

10. Which statement applies to yeasts?
    a.
    They are usually considered to be pathogenic.
    b.
    They seldom contain a distinct nucleus.
    c.
    They may cause opportunistic infection in the body.
    d.
    They are normally not found in large numbers in resident flora.

Answer 10

c.

They may cause opportunistic infection in the body.

Question 11

11. Fungi reproduce by:
12. budding.
13. extension of hyphae.
14. binary fission.
15. production of spores.
    a.
    1, 2
    b.
    2, 4
    c.
    1, 2, 4
    d.
    2, 3, 4

Answer 11

c.

1, 2, 4

Question 12

12.	Which of the following is NOT classified as a protozoan agent of disease?
a.
Plasmodium vivax
b.
Trichomonas vaginalis
c.
Tinea pedis
d.
Entamoeba histolytica

Answer 12

c.

Tinea pedis

Question 13

13.	Which of the following is a characteristic of rickettsia?
a.
It is a very small gram-negative intracellular microbe.
b.
It exists in three forms.
c.
It causes sexually transmitted disease.
d.
It reproduces by budding.

Answer 13

a.

It is a very small gram-negative intracellular microbe.

Question 14

14.	Entamoeba histolytica is transmitted by which of the following?
a.
Mosquitoes (bites)
b.
Inhaling contaminated particles
c.
Sexual intercourse
d.
Cysts in feces

Answer 14

d.

Cysts in feces

Question 15

15.	Which of the following is a characteristic of resident or normal flora (microflora)?
a.
It exists in all areas of the body.
b.
Different species inhabit various areas of the body.
c.
It is of no benefit to the human host.
d.
It consists only of bacteria.

Answer 15

b.

Different species inhabit various areas of the body.

Question 16

16.	Which of the following is normally considered sterile?
a.
Urine
b.
Pharynx
c.
Distal urethra
d.
Vagina

Answer 16

a.

Urine

Question 17

17. The term nosocomial infection means:
    a.
    transmission involves an insect or animal host.
    b.
    acquired in a hospital or medical facility.
    c.
    transmitted by a fomite.
    d.
    spread by direct contact with secretions from an open lesion.

Answer 17

b.

acquired in a hospital or medical facility.

Question 18

18.	Transmission of microbes by direct contact includes:
a.
touching a contaminated countertop.
b.
sexual intercourse.
c.
drinking contaminated water.
d.
inhaling dust-borne microbes.

Answer 18

b.

sexual intercourse.

Question 19

19. What does the term carrier mean?
    a.
    A person with active infection who acts as a reservoir for microbes
    b.
    Animals, insects, objects, or surfaces contaminated by pathogens
    c.
    An individual who is contagious through infected secretions on the hands
    d.
    An asymptomatic person whose body harbors pathogens and can transmit them to others

Answer 19

d.

An asymptomatic person whose body harbors pathogens and can transmit them to others

Question 20

20. Opportunistic infection may develop when:
    a.
    pathogens enter the body but cannot colonize the site of entry.
    b.
    an imbalance occurs in the normal resident flora.
    c.
    host resistance increases, and the balance of resident flora is restored.
    d.
    contaminated food or water is unknowingly ingested.

Answer 20

b.

an imbalance occurs in the normal resident flora.

Question 21

21.	Host resistance is promoted by all of the following EXCEPT:
a.
prescribed immunizations.
b.
chronic respiratory disease.
c.
vitamin and mineral supplements.
d.
appropriate inflammatory or immune response.

Answer 21

b.

chronic respiratory disease.

Question 22

22.	Which of the following factors would NOT increase the virulence of a specific microbe?
a.
Secretion of endotoxin
b.
Presence of a bacterial capsule
c.
Production of interferons
d.
Secretion of invasive enzymes

Answer 22

c.

Production of interferons

Question 23

23.	That time in the course of an infection when the infected person may experience a headache or fatigue and senses he or she is “coming down with something” is referred to as which of the following?
a.
Subclinical period
b.
Eclipse period
c.
Prodromal period
d.
Presymptomatic period

Answer 23

c.

Prodromal period

Question 24

24. The principle of Universal Precautions is based on:
    a.
    using disinfectants at all times to eliminate cross-infections.
    b.
    not touching any open or bleeding lesions.
    c.
    sterilizing all instruments and equipment after each use.
    d.
    assuming that all body fluids from all individuals are possible sources of infection.

Answer 24

d.

assuming that all body fluids from all individuals are possible sources of infection.

Question 25

25. The “incubation period” refers to the time period between:
    a.
    entry of the pathogen into the body and the first signs of infectious disease.
    b.
    the onset of the prodromal period and the peak of the acute infection.
    c.
    the onset of clinical signs and signs of recovery from infection.
    d.
    the acute period and establishment of chronic infection.

Answer 25

a.

entry of the pathogen into the body and the first signs of infectious disease.

Question 26

26.	What does “bacteremia” refer to?
a.
Numerous pathogens circulating and reproducing in the blood
b.
Uncontrolled sepsis throughout the body
c.
Multiple infections, primary and secondary, established in the body
d.
Microbes present in the blood

Answer 26

d.

Microbes present in the blood

Question 27

27.	Which of the following is a local sign of infection?
a.
Fever and leukocytosis
b.
Headache and anorexia
c.
Pain, erythema, and swelling
d.
Nausea, weight loss, and fatigue

Answer 27

c.

Pain, erythema, and swelling

Question 28

28. What are culture and sensitivity tests used for?
    a.
    To determine the type of microbe present in an exudate
    b.
    To provide a specific medium that supports maximum microbial growth
    c.
    To identify the causative microbe and the effective antimicrobial agent for it
    d.
    To provide living host cells for microbes requiring such for replication

Answer 28

c.

To identify the causative microbe and the effective antimicrobial agent for it

Question 29

29. A broad-spectrum bactericidal agent would be expected to:
    a.
    destroy many gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.
    b.
    destroy all pathogenic microbes in contact with the agent.
    c.
    reduce the replication of many bacteria.
    d.
    inhibit the growth of most spores and acid-fast bacteria.

Answer 29

a.

destroy many gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.

Question 30

30.	How does penicillin act as a bactericidal agent?
a.
It interferes with cell-wall synthesis.
b.
It blocks protein synthesis.
c.
It increases cell membrane permeability.
d.
It prevents DNA replication.

Answer 30

a.

It interferes with cell-wall synthesis.

Question 31

31. Secondary infection may occur with administration of antibacterial drugs because the:
    a.
    patient is allergic to the drug.
    b.
    balance of species in the resident flora is upset.
    c.
    mucosa of the stomach is irritated.
    d.
    infecting microbes spread to adjacent areas.

Answer 31

b.

balance of species in the resident flora is upset.

Question 32

32.	All of the following are mechanisms of antiviral drug action EXCEPT:
a.
interference with attachment to host cell.
b.
block assembly of viral particles.
c.
interference with mitosis.
d.
shedding of protein coat.

Answer 32

c.

interference with mitosis.

Question 33

33. Secondary bacterial infections occur frequently during influenza epidemics primarily because:
    a.
    antiviral drugs lower host resistance.
    b.
    the virus causes extensive tissue inflammation and necrosis.
    c.
    respiratory droplets transmit infections.
    d.
    the viral infection is usually self-limiting.

Answer 33

b.

the virus causes extensive tissue inflammation and necrosis.

Question 34

34. The primary pathological effect of influenza virus is:
    a.
    destruction of the mucosa in the lower respiratory tract.
    b.
    replication of the virus in respiratory secretions.
    c.
    destruction of leukocytes and macrophages in the lungs.
    d.
    inflammation and necrosis of the upper respiratory epithelium.

Answer 34

d.

inflammation and necrosis of the upper respiratory epithelium.

Question 35

35.	What does leukocytosis frequently indicate?
a.
Immunosuppression
b.
Bone marrow damage
c.
Presence of bacterial infection
d.
An allergic or autoimmune reaction

Answer 35

c.

Presence of bacterial infection

Question 36

36.	When an infection or inflammation is suspected, what does leucopenia often indicate?
a.
Bacterial infection
b.
Viral infection
c.
Allergic reaction
d.
Septicemia

Answer 36

b.

Viral infection

Question 37

37.	Which of the following statements applies to Chlamydia?
a.
The microbe exists as a chain of cells.
b.
It causes a common STD.
c.
It possesses many flagella.
d.
It is excreted in feces.

Answer 37

b.

It causes a common STD.

Question 38

38.	Which of the following microbes is classified as an obligate intracellular parasite?
a.
Fungus
b.
Bacterium
c.
Virus
d.
Protozoa

Answer 38

c.

Virus

Question 39

39. Which of the following are characteristics of influenza virus?
40. It is an obligate intracellular parasite.
41. It contains RNA.
42. It usually causes nausea and vomiting.
43. There are three subtypes: A, B, C.
    a.
    1, 4
    b.
    1, 3
    c.
    2, 3, 4
    d.
    1, 2, 4

Answer 39

d.

1, 2, 4

Question 40

40.	The widespread necrosis of respiratory mucosa caused by an influenza infection often gives rise to:
a.
severe anemia.
b.
secondary infections.
c.
asthma.
d.
emphysema.

Answer 40

b.

secondary infections.

Question 41

41. Prions cannot be cultured in a PETRI plate of media because:
    a.
    they take so long to grow.
    b.
    they require extensive amounts of specialized nutrients.
    c.
    they are proteinaceous particles, not living organisms.
    d.
    they are viruses that don’t grow on conventional media.

Answer 41

c.

they are proteinaceous particles, not living organisms.

Question 42

42. Which of the following statements applies to Influenza A H1N1?
    a.
    It alters human chromosomes to cause manifestations.
    b.
    It usually causes severe respiratory distress and high fever.
    c.
    Infection is common in the elderly.
    d.
    It contains genetic material from avian, swine, and human viruses.

Answer 42

d.

It contains genetic material from avian, swine, and human viruses.

Question 43

43.	Which of the following does NOT directly determine the virulence of a microbe?
a.
Capacity for opportunism
b.
Production of toxins
c.
Ability to mutate
d.
Invasive qualities

Answer 43

a.

Capacity for opportunism

Question 44

44. Which of the following is a function of interferons?
    a.
    They block the invasion of pathogenic bacteria.
    b.
    They reduce the inflammatory response to local infection.
    c.
    They increase host cell resistance to viral invasion.
    d.
    They may facilitate the spread of some cancer cells.

Answer 44

c.

They increase host cell resistance to viral invasion.

Question 45

45. Inflamed tissue is likely to become infected because:
    a.
    the immune system is not effective in inflamed tissue.
    b.
    the increased fluid and protein in the inflamed area supports microbial growth.
    c.
    phagocytes cannot penetrate the inflamed areas.
    d.
    capillaries are less permeable in the affected area.

Answer 45

b.

the increased fluid and protein in the inflamed area supports microbial growth.

Question 46

46.	When an infectious disease is occurring globally at a higher rate than usual, it may be designated as a/an:
a.
sporadic occurrence.
b.
epidemic.
c.
pandemic.
d.
emerging disease.

Answer 46

c.

pandemic.

Question 47

47. Which of the following is the primary difference between an antiseptic and a disinfectant?
    a.
    Antiseptic is used on living tissue, whereas disinfectant is designed for nonliving surfaces.
    b.
    Antiseptic is much stronger than the potency of a disinfectant.
    c.
    Antiseptic often causes allergic skin reactions, whereas disinfectant is always hypoallergenic.
    d.
    Antiseptic is effective against endospores; disinfectants are not effective against endospores.

Answer 47

a.

Antiseptic is used on living tissue, whereas disinfectant is designed for nonliving surfaces.

Question 48

48.	Drugs that are designed to inhibit or slow down growth of microbes but not necessarily kill them are considered:
a.
ineffective.
b.
bacteriostatic.
c.
narrow-spectrum.
d.
bactericidal.

Answer 48

b.

bacteriostatic.