Chapter 6 Flashcards

1
Q

How does the law define a tort?

A

A civil wrong, other than a breach on contract

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2
Q

What type of law has much overlap with torts?

A

Crimes

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3
Q

Describe three different ways a person may cause injury and be held liable

A
  • if the person casued the injury intentionally
  • by accident
  • without any fault at all (sometimes)
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4
Q

What are the two elements of an intentional tort?

A
  1. the intention to commit the tort

2. the doing of it

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6
Q

Be able to identify and describe three defenses to intentional torts.

A

• Consent
o Example: a person who is an cage fighter enters the cage and gets hit- he consented, otherwise that would be battery
• Privilege
o The nature of a relationship can provide privilege to engage in conduct that would otherwise be an intentional tort
o Example: parent spanking child if they are bad
• Self-Defense and Defense of other/property
o Few states allow deadly force with property
o in self-defense, deadly force may be allowed

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7
Q

What is the important issue that arises when it comes to the defense of self, others, or property?

A

how much force may be used under these circumstances

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7
Q

Be familiar with the facts and ruling(s) in the Katko v. Briney case (p. 156).

A

Defendant was distressed by a series of break-ins at his farmhouse, he and his wife wired a shotgun to go off and shoot leg-level if the door to the barn was opened. Katko broke in to the barn – injured by the shot gun. He sued them and won $$. Briney’s appealed, but supreme court held that the gun was not justifiable against a trespasser. May have been different if they broke into their home instead of janky barn.

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8
Q

Be able to identify what failure results in negligence.

A

Failure to exercise reasonable care- that causes injury to another

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9
Q

What are the four requirements for proving a negligence case?

A
  1. the defendant owed the plaintiff a duty of care
  2. the duty was breached
  3. the breach of duty was the cause of the plaintiffs injuries
  4. plaintiff must prove the harm suffered
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10
Q

What degree of care does the common law require each person to exercise?

A

A degree of care which a reasonable person in the same situation would have exercised.
• One who has held their selves out as a professional/expert, is held to a higher standard

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11
Q

As it relates to the breach of a duty of care, what does the court determine as a matter of law and what is the jury’s task?

A

The court determines if the defendant acted reasonably or not.

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12
Q

Be able to describe the general rule and public policy implications of the doctrine of proximate cause.

A

Proximate cause is the direct cause of the defendants injuries.
• Plaintiff must prove there was no intervening event between the defendants breach and the plaintiff’s injury. (the defendants actions were the direct cause of the plaintiffs damages)

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13
Q

What does it mean for a plaintiff to establish a prima facie case?

A

Establishing all the elements of the cause of action

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14
Q

How is proof different for affirmative defenses as opposed to just defending a case?

A

Affirmative defenses are when the defendant has the burden to prove

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15
Q

Be able to identify and describe the three historic affirmative defenses.

A
  1. contributory negligence
    • came to be during the beginning of railroads
    • if the plaintiff had to any degree contributed to his own injuries, he could collect nothing
  2. assumption of risk
    • if the plaintiff willingly puts themselves in a position of danger, they cant complain when they are injured.
  3. fellow servant rule
    • no longer is the law
    • if the plaintiff’s injuries would not have occurred but for the negligence of a fellow co-worker the defendants employer was not liable.
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16
Q

How is the modern defense of comparative negligence applied and how is it distinguishable from the three historic defenses, especially contributory negligence?

A

It doesn’t deny a negligent plaintiff all his recovery but only so much as he was responsible for causing.
(if plaintiff is 10% to blame, defendant only has to pay 90% of total damages)

17
Q

Three categories of torts

A

intentional torts, negligence, and strict liability

18
Q

Be able to describe the basic doctrine that strict liability represents

A

One who carries on a dangerous activity is subject to liability for harm caused from it without proof of any wrongdoing

19
Q

Describe what, if anything, may serve to limit a defendant’s liability under strict liability

A

Plaintiff must prove the dangerous activity was both the actual and the proximate cause of the plaintiff’s injury.
• Meaning an unforeseeable, intervening even will serve to limit defendants liability.

20
Q

Be able to describe when a court will order a judgment for the plaintiff in a tort case.

A

If the plaintiff proves the elements of their tort case and the defendant fails to prove any defense

21
Q

Battery

A

Intentionally causing another person injury by harmful or offensive contact.
c. Application of this rule determines whether a person is liable for damages for injuring another.

22
Q

Assault

A

Intentionally causing another person reasonable fear of harmful or offensive contact.
d. Application of this rule determines whether a person is liable for damages for threatening or placing another in fear of injury.

23
Q

Trespass

A

One who engages in the intentional interference with the use, enjoyment or possessory rights of property owned by another person is liable for damages to the injured party.
e. Application of this rule determines whether a person is liable for damages for interfering with the property of another person.

24
Q

Defamation

A

Intentionally communicating false statements by spoken word (slander) or printed word (libel) that harms another person’s reputation.
f. Application of this rule determines whether a person is liable for damages for harm to the reputation of another.

25
Q

Negligence

A

The breach of a duty which a reasonable person is required to exercise, that causes harm or injury.
g. Application of this rule determines whether a person is liable for damages for the negligent or accidental injuring of a person or property.

26
Q

Duty of Care for Professionals

A

h. Professionals, such as a doctors, lawyers, accountants, etc., rendering their professional services have a duty to act as reasonably prudent practitioners in the field.
i. Breach of this duty of care determines whether a professional is liable for damages for the negligent or accidental injuring of a person or property arising from the rendering of professional services.

27
Q

Duty of Care for Business Owners

A

A business owner has a duty to make property open to the public safe from harm to customers, including to conduct reasonable inspections to detect and remove hazards.
j. Breach of this duty of care determines whether a business owner is liable for damages for the negligent or accidental injuring of a person or property arising from a hazard occurring at the business.

28
Q

Duty to Trespassers

A

Except to refrain from placing traps, property owners have no duty to adult trespassers to identify and remove hazards; property owners must follow the “attractive nuisance doctrine” and exercise reasonable care to remove, or reduce the risk of, hazards on the property that are attractive to children of tender years.
k. Breach of this duty of care determines whether a property owner is liable for damages for the negligent or accidental injuring of a person or property arising from a hazard occurring on the property.

29
Q

Automobile Drivers’ Duty of Care

A

Automobile drivers have a duty to obey the statutory rules of the road.
l. Breach of this duty of care determines whether an automobile driver is liable for damages for the negligent or accidental injuring of a person or property arising from a violation of the rules of the road.

30
Q

The Dangerous Instrumentality Rule

A

There is strict liability for all injuries caused by the use of dangerous instrumentalities such as using explosives or radioactive materials or engaging in ultrahazardous activity such as keeping dangerous, wild animals, regardless of taking every reasonable precaution to prevent harm.
m. Application of this rule determines strict liability for damages for injury to a person or property arising from a dangerous instrumentality or ultrahazardous activity.