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DMS 222 > Chapter 54 > Flashcards

Chapter 54 Flashcards

1
Q

What type of screening test can be done in the 1st trimester ?

A

plasma protein A and free beta-human chorionic gonadotropin.

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2
Q

The laboratory values of PAPP-A and free beta-hCG can determine ?

A

chromosomal abnormality, congenital heart defect, skeletal dysplasia, or other syndromes.

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3
Q

what are some additional tests, a parent can choose aside from PAPP-A and free beta-hCG ?

A
  1. noninvasive prenatal testing (NIPT)

2. invasive testing such as: chorionic villus sampling (CVS) or amniocentesis

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4
Q

NIPT test can be done as early as?

A

10 weeks

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5
Q

Which test has a much higher detection, screening test, for down syndrome and trisomy 18/13 ?

A

NIPT

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6
Q

What four serum markers are done under the maternal serum quad screen?

A
  1. alpha-fetoprotein (AFP),
  2. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
  3. unconjugated estriol (uE3),
  4. inhibin-A.
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7
Q

Define: detaild fetal anatomic survey

A

a detailed evaluation of specified fetal anatomy and biometry that can be seen at the time of examination.

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8
Q

Most ultrasound departments prefer to perform the detailed fetal anatomic survey examination between____ weeks.

A

18 to 20 weeks

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9
Q

define: Advance maternal age (AMA)

A

describes a patient who will be 35 or older at the time of delivery

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10
Q

AMA can be an indicator for what?

A

high-risk pregnancy, example down syndrome

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11
Q

define: hydrops fetalis

A

a condition in which excessive fluid accumulates within the fetal body cavities.

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12
Q

what are the 2 type of fetal hyprops?

A

immune hydrops

nonimmune hydrops

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13
Q

immune hydrops is initiated by the_____?

A

Presence of maternal serum IgG antibody against one of the fetal red blood cell antigens (mixing of blood)

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14
Q

The mixing of maternal and fetal blood, can be prevented? true or false ?

A

True, with RhoGAM

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15
Q

If a sensitized pregnancy is not treated with RhoGAM, what will happen to fetus ?

A

Hemolysis: attaches to the fetal RBCs and destroys them.

anema, heart failure, hydrops

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16
Q

Of the ultrasound tools,what is one way to predict fetal anemia?

A

doppler evaluation of the middle cerebral artery.

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17
Q

define: cordocentesis

A

a procedure in which a needle is placed into the fetal umbilical vein to obtain a blood sample.

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18
Q

there are two types of fetal blood transfusion, One is cordocentesis and the other______?

A

intraperitoneal transfusion: ultrasound guidance to place a needle in the peritoneal cavity of the fetus

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19
Q

define Alloimmune thrombocytopenia.

A

a mother may develop an immune response to fetal platelets.

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20
Q

The result of an Alloimmune thrombocytopenia, the fetus may__?

A

have a low platelet count and intracerebral hemorrhage

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21
Q

nonimmune hydrops is?

A

A group of conditions, which hydrops is present in the fetus but is not a result of fetomaternal blood group incompatibility.

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22
Q

what are the most frequent causes for Nonimmune hydrops?

A

cardiovascular lesions

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23
Q

vaginal bleeding in the 2nd or 3rd trimester can be associated with___?

A

placental abruption and placenta previa

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24
Q

the condition that the placenta covers the internal os and prohibits the delivery of the fetus, is due to ___?

A

placenta previa

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25
Q

If the placenta and the internal os distance is less than 2 cm, the condition may be classified as

A

low-lying placenta

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26
Q

Placental abruption is a vaginal bleeding entity that___?

A

premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall.

27
Q

how can you tell if an placental abruption has happened, using ultrasound?

A

If the area between the placenta and uterine wall is thicker than 1 to 2 cm and by use of color doppler.

28
Q

Mothers with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus are at an increased risk for pregnancy-related complications. They are?

A

include early- and late-trimester pregnancy loss and congenital anomalies

29
Q

A fetus that has a diabetic mother may become_____?

A

macrosonia,

30
Q

polyhydramnios can be seen with ___ and _____.

A

elevated blood sugar and macrosomic fetuses.

31
Q

Premature rupture of membranes (PROM)

A

fetuses of diabetic mother may measure large for Gestation age, making pregnancy date inaccurate.

32
Q

define: Caudal regression syndrome

A

(lack of development of the caudal spine and cord) is seen almost exclusively in diabetic individuals.

33
Q

Hypertension places both mother and fetus at risk? true or false?

A

true

34
Q

hypertension pregnancy, the placenta is big or small?

A

small due to poorly blood supply

35
Q

terminology currently used in clinical practice to describe hypertensive states during pregnancy is?

A

pregnancy-induced hypertension (preeclampsia, severe preeclampsia, and eclampsia

36
Q

If hypertention is neglected, the patient may develop ___?

A

seizures- life treating to both mother /fetus

37
Q

Eclampsia means:

A

the number of times/occurrence of sizures or comas in a preclamptic patient.

38
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

A

chronic autoimmune disorder that can affect almost all organ systems in the body.

39
Q

Hyperemesis gravidarum menas?

A

a pregnant woman vomits so much that she develops dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.

40
Q

If bacteria is left untreated in a Urinary tract disease _____may develop

A

pyelonephritis (presents with flank pain, fever, and white blood cells in the urine)

41
Q

which type of cysts can be associated with early pregnancy ?

A

​Physiologic ovarian cysts as ( 8-10 cm)

42
Q

Fibroid benign tumor can cause premature labor due to ?

A

excessive growth due to hormones of pregnancy.

43
Q

Preterm, or premature, labor is anything before____ weeks

A

37

44
Q

fetal movement begins at ____ to ___ weeks.

A

16 to 20 weeks

45
Q

A 20 weeks, the uterine fundal height should have risen to _____ and should measure____?

A

umbilicus and 20 cm

46
Q

Fetal heart tones should be heard with Doppler at approximately ___to ___ weeks.

A

10 to 12

47
Q

spalding’s sign is?

A

overlap of skull bones

48
Q

Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) is ?

A

screening is performed routinely to detect neural tube defects.

49
Q

what should be done Once a multiple gestation has been identified?

A

a detailed fetal anatomic survey ultrasound examination should be performed –look for fetal anomalies

50
Q

Dizygotic twins are?

A

arise from two separately fertilized ova. Each ovum implants separately in the uterus and develops its own placenta, chorion, and amniotic sac

51
Q

monozygotic twins are?

A

(identical) arise from a single fertilized egg, which divides, resulting in two genetically identical fetuses

52
Q

conjoined twins may result, if after ____ days

A

13 days

53
Q

Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS)?

A

The arterial blood of one twin is pumped into the venous system of the other twin.

54
Q

oligohydramnios is developed through?

A

lack of blood flow through the kidneys and urinates less

55
Q

polyhydramnios is developed through?

A

excessive blood flow to kidneys, and urinates too much.

56
Q

sonographic findings for Nonimmune Hydrops are:

A
  • fetus may appear similar to sensitized baby.

* scalp edema, pleural and pericardial effusion ascites

57
Q

mother with diabetes, the placenta and fetus will present Big or small?

A

placenta - big

baby- big

58
Q

mother with hypertention, the placenta and fetus will present Big or small?

A

placenta- small

baby-small

59
Q

mother with systemic lupus erythematosus, the placenta and fetus will present Big or small?

A

placenta-big

baby-small

60
Q

how many IUGR are there?

A

2: asymmetric and symmetric

61
Q

IUGR is most commonly define as a fetal birth weight ____ for a given gestational age.

A

at or below 10%

62
Q

early noninvasive means of assessing the risk of aneuploidy is which one of the following?

A

Nuchal translucent

63
Q

after amniocenteses the sonographer should check ?

A

the fetal heart

64
Q

AFP is produced in early gestation by which one of the following structures ?

A

yolk sac

DMS 222 (6 decks)

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